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Year 4 Gen Med > Haem Pass Med > Flashcards

Haem Pass Med Flashcards

1
Q

Reed sternberg cells

A

Hodgkins

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2
Q

What is the blood count like in sickle cell anaemia

A

Normocytic anaemia with a raised reticulocyte count

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3
Q

What do people with hereditary spherocytosis get when they have a parvovirus infection

A

Aplastic crisis - severe anaemia and reduced retic count

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4
Q

What is prothrombin complex concentrate used for

A

Emergency reversal of anti coagulation in severe bleeding or head injury with suspected intracranial haemorrhage

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5
Q

When is FFP used

A

PT or APTT > 1.5

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6
Q

What is cryoprecipitate used to replace

A

Fibrinogen

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7
Q

What is the preferred NOAC for patients with renal impairment

A

Apixaban

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8
Q

What are the CRaB features of myeloma

A

Hypercalcaemia
Renal failure
Anaemia
Bone fractures/ lytic lesions

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9
Q

How do you treat an urticarial blood transfusion reaction without anaphylaxis

A

Antihistamine

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10
Q

A raised ESR and osteoporosis represents what until proven otherwise

A

Multiple myeloma

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11
Q

What is the transfusion threshold for patients with anaemia

A

70 without and 80 with ACS

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12
Q

Mirror image nuclei =

A

Reed sternberg cells

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13
Q

Sickle cell patients should get the pneumococcal vaccine every

A

5 years

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14
Q

What drugs cannot be used in a G6PD deficiency

A

Sulpha containing drugs because they can trigger haemolysis

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15
Q

Prolonged APTT

A

Von Williebrand disease

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16
Q

What is the length of warfarin treatment after VTE

A

Provoked 3 months

Unprovoked 6 months

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17
Q

Which type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma has the worst prognosis

A

Lymphocyte deplete

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18
Q

Smear cells

A

CLL

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19
Q

Tear drop cells

A

Myelofibrosis

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20
Q

Starry sky appearance

A

Burkitts lymphoma

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21
Q

What is a common cause of tumour lysis syndrome

A

Burkitts lymphoma

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22
Q

How should tranexamix acid be given in major haemorrhage

A

IV Bol is followed by a slow infusion

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23
Q

Smudge or smear cells

A

CLL

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24
Q

Reed sternberg

A

Hodgkins

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25
Q

Rouleaux formation

A

Myeloma

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26
Q

Auer Ross

A

AML

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27
Q

Pseudo pelger Huet cells

A

CML

28
Q

What are the B symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma that imply a poor prognosis

A

Weight loss >10% in last 6 months
Fever >38
Night sweats

29
Q

A decrease in haptoglobin levels can be seen in

A

Intravascular haemolysis

30
Q

What is sequestration crisis in sickle cell ?

A

Cells cause the spleen to become grossly enlarged causing abdo pain

31
Q

CLL can transform to

A

High grade lymphoma (known as richters transformation and this usually makes them suddenly unwell

32
Q

Phenytoin causes what type of anaemia

A

Aplastic anaemia

33
Q

Two main differentials of abdo pain in hereditary spherocytosis

A 
Biliary colic (chronic haemolysis and gallstone formation) 
Splenic rupture
34
Q

Macrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented neutrophils on blood film is likely to be a

A

Megaloblastic anaemia such as B12 or folate deficiency

35
Q

What is stage 1 hodgkins

A

Single LN region

36
Q

What is stage 2 hodgkins

A

Two or more regions on the same side of the diaphragm

37
Q

Stage 3 hodgkins

A

LN on both sides of the diaphragm

38
Q

Stage 4 hodgkins

A

Involvement of extanodal sites

39
Q

What prevelant condition causes a secondary polycythaemia

A

COPD and smoking

40
Q

Person with lymphoma being started on chemo with high potassium high phosphate and low calcium

A

Tumour lysis syndrome

41
Q

Prophylaxis first tumour lysis syndrome

A

Allopurinol or rasburicase

42
Q

When do you give a platelet transfusion in a pt with a severe bleed

A

<100x10^9 platelets

43
Q

Unexplained petechia or hepatosplenomegaly in ages 0-24yo

A

Refer for immediate specialist assessment for leukaemia

44
Q

Renal impairment in myeloma has 4 causes

A

AL type amyloidosis
Hence Jones nephropathy
Nephrocalcinosis
Nephrolithiasis

45
Q

What is the most common form of lymphoma in the Uk

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

46
Q

How long should the COC be stopped before an operation

A

4 weeks

47
Q

Howell jolly bodies

Pappenheimer bodies

A

Hyposplenism

48
Q

What is the mneumonic for transfusion reactions

A

Got a bad unit

Graft vs host disease
Overload 
Thronbocytopaenia
Alloimmunisation 
BP unstable 
Acute haemolytic reaction 
Delayed haemolytic reaction 
Urticaria 
Neutrophilia 
Infection 
Transfusion associated lung injury
49
Q

Asymmetrical spreading lymphadenopathy

A

Hodgkins

50
Q

In a non urgent scenario a unit of RBC is usually transfused over

A

90-120 mins

51
Q

What type of Hodgkin’s has the best prognosis

A

Lymphocyte predominant

52
Q

C- much gene translocation seems in

A

Burkitts lymphoma

53
Q

Schistocytes

A

G6PD

54
Q

Malaria prophylaxis can trigger haemolytic anaemia in those with

A

G6PD deficiency

55
Q

If no scan can be done within 4 hours of a DVT do what

A

Give LMWH

56
Q

Bite cells and blister cells

A

G6PD deficiency

57
Q

What is the mechanism behind acute haemolytic transfusions reaction

A

RBC destruction by IgM type antibodies

58
Q

To diagnose tumour lysis syndrome you require either

A

Increased serum creatinine
A cardiac arrhythmia
A seizure to have occurred

59
Q

H pylori is associated with a

A

Gastric lymphoma

60
Q

Starry sky appearance

A

Burkitts lymphoma

61
Q

Why are irradiated blood products used

A

They are depleted in T lymphocytes

62
Q

What can be used to treat neutropenia

A

Filgrastim

63
Q

What do you treat first in B12 or folate deficiency and why

A

Treat B12 first to avoid precipitating subacute combined degeneration of the cord

64
Q

What is the most common inherited thronbophylia

A

Protein C resistance (factor 5 Leiden)

65
Q

What is the reversal agent for dabigatranv

A

Idarucizamab

66
Q

Steroids tend to do what to the blood count

A

Neutrophilia

67
Q

CLL in elderly tend to do what to blood count

A

Lymphocytisis

Year 4 Gen Med (26 decks)

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