HAEM: Haemolytic anaemias and systemic disease Flashcards

1
Q

What does the VHL gene mutation cause?

A

Chuvash polycythaemia - excess erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do corticosteroids affect leukocytes?

A

Raised`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4 types of anaemia?

A

Iron deficiency
AI haemolytic
Microangiopathic
Leukoerythroblastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

2 cancers which cause occult blood loss.

A

GI

Urinary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does leukoerythroblastic mean? Give an example of their morphology.

A

RBC and WBC of variable degree of maturation

e.g. Tear drop aniso/poikilocytes (this is usually a sign of myelofibrosis), myelocytes, nucleated RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 causes of leukoerythroblastic blood film?

A

Malignancy - haem or non-haem
Severe infection
Myelofibrosis (tear drop poikilocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What bilirubin is raised in haemolytic anaemia?

A

Unconjugated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are haptoglobin levels in HA?

A

Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What Ig in cold vs warm HA?

A
Warm = IgG -> extravascular 
Cold = IgM -> intravascular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which HA presents with Raynaud’s?

A

Cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which HA occurs in CLL, SLE, methyldopa use?

A

Warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which HA occurs in EBV and mycoplasma infections?

A

Cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which HA in lymphoma?

A

Cold or warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which tx for cold HA?

A

Supportive + chlorambucil chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which tx for warm HA?

A

Steroids, splenectomy, immunosuppress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which abs in PNH?

A

Donath-Landsteiner IgG ,anti-RBCs - on rewarming cause complement-mediated HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is seen on blood film in immune HA?

A

Spherocytes and agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the DAT vs IAT look for?

A

DAT - looks at surface of RBCs for complement/Abs

IAT - looks at serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

3 non-immune HA.

A

Malaria
MAHA
PNH (Ham’s test +ve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which malignancy can cause MAHA?

A

Adenocarcinoma –> granules into circulation –> pro-coagulant –> low-grade DIC + RBC fragmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What mutation causes TTP?

A

ADAMTS13 –> lack of vWF cleaving protease so it builds up to shred RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Over what % myeloblasts is abnormal in BM?

23
Q

3 infections without neutrophilia?

A

Viral
Brucella
Typhoid

24
Q

What malignancy: neutrophilia + basophilia + myelocytes + splenomegaly = ?

25
What malignancy: neutropenia + myeloblasts = ?
AML
26
What does the FIP1L1-PDGFRa fusion gene cause?
Chronic eosinophilic leukaemia
27
Which viral infections cause monocytosis?
CMV | VZV
28
Which bacterial infections cause monocytosis?
EBV CMV Toxoplasmosis
29
What technique is used to determine clonality of B cells?
light chain restriction
30
What is normal B cell clonality?
Polyclonal k:l 60:40 Abnormal would be monoclonal e.g. k:l 99:1
31
Which technique used to decide if myeloid or lymphoid?
Immunophenotyping
32
What are the main 3 types of haem mutations?
Type 1 - pro-proliferation Type 2 - anti-differentiation Anti-apoptosis - pro-survival
33
Name an anti-apoptosis mutation.
BCL-2
34
Name a pro-proliferation mutation.
BCR-ABL, JAK2
35
Name an anti-differentiation mutation.
PML-PARA
36
Which neoplasm is TdT +ve, CD19 +ve , surface Ig -ve?
B cell ALL
37
What does TdT +ve mean?
Immature cells - B
38
What does TdT -ve, Ig +ve and CD138 +ve indicate?
MM
39
Intravascular causes of haemolysis
``` Malaria (MOST COMMON) G6PdD ABO Cold AIHA Drugs MAHA PNH ```
40
What is the mutation in Gilbert's?
UGT1A1
41
Which anaemia has alpha and beta spectrin and protein 4.1?
Elliptocytosis
42
Which anaemia has band 3, protein 4.2, beta spectrin and ankyrin?
Spherocytosis
43
What is the inheritance of spherocytosis and elliptocytosis?
AD for both
44
What tests can be done in spherocytosis?
Osmotic fragility | Less Eosin-5-maleimide binding on flow cytometry
45
What does the homozygous state for elliptocytosis cause?
Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis - fragmentation, budding, vesciculation of membrane and variation in size of RBCs
46
What is the inheritance of G6PD?
X linked recessive
47
Role of G6PD normally?
Generates NADPH to protect cell against oxidative stress
48
What cell types are seen in G6PD?
Hemi ghosts (Hb on one side) Bite cells Nucleated RBC
49
What is seen on G6PD slide when stained with methylviolet?
Heinz bodies = deformed haemoglobin peripherally
50
Which pathway is defective in PK deficiency?
Glycolytic
51
What cells are seen in PKD?
Echinocytes - short projections on RBCs | Spherocytes
52
Which HA is basophilic stippling seen in?
Pyrimidine 5'-nucleotidase deficiency (uncommon) - nucleotide metabolism pathway defect
53
When can splenectomy be done in HA?
>3yo but <10yo for maximal benefit before puberty