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CVSOH 4 > Goats, Deer, Donkey and Camelid Medicine > Flashcards

Goats, Deer, Donkey and Camelid Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is compulsory standstill for goat keeping legislation?

A

If any small ruminants move on to the property than standstill for 6 days

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2
Q

What is the dairy goat year/life?

A

Weaned = 8-10w weeks
Go to billy = 7-9 months
Gestation = 150days/4.5months
Enter milking herd = 12-14months
Length 1st lactation = 3-400days
Dry period = 1-2 months
Length of 2nd lactation
Cull = 4-8 years

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3
Q

How does goat dairy industry compare to cow dairy industry?

A

Less yield but higher price

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4
Q

Describe commercial goat housing.

A
  • Dry to help reduce foot disease and mastitis, and the build up of parasites – so often housed all year as they do not do well with wet underfoot conditions in this country
  • Space to keep disease down with reduced stocking density and to ensure don’t damage each other if horned
  • Draught free but with good ventilation – goats very prone to changes in the temperature and this affects food intake and increases disease. Poor ventilation results in pneumonia
  • Ensure don’t keep escaping and stay within groups to stop disease spread
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5
Q

What is the nutrition for browser goats?

A
  • Eat 80% up, off ground and 20% on floor
  • Like to sort food
  • Need a variety of food types and lengths? TMR
  • Avoid SARA/acidosis
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6
Q

What is the nutrition used for milking goats?

A
  • Highly digestible diet with high fibre and protein
  • Balances microminerals
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7
Q

Why is it difficult to BCS goats?

A

Very prone due to getting too fat during the dry period – goats carry a lot of internal fat so can be tricky to BCS by look alone

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8
Q

How is goat nutrition altered around kidding?

A

Due to multiple pregnancies restricting food intake so much in the final month of pregnancy

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9
Q

How does hypocalcaemia in goats differ to hypocalcaemia in cows?

A

All energy put into kids (sheep with lambs the same) so get hypocalcaemia during pregnancy unlike cows who put all their energy into milk so get hypocalcaemia post lactation

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10
Q

How are metabolic diseases in goats prevented?

A

Regular BCS pre-kidding, palatable food

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11
Q

How is hypocalcaemia treated in goats?

A

IV/ SQ/Oral calcium supplementation

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12
Q

How is twin lamb disease/hepatic lipidosis in goats treated?

A
  • Oral propylene glycol or glycerol – not glucose due to rumen bacteria
  • IV glucose
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13
Q

How is lameness prevented in goats?

A
  • Regular foot trimming essential to prevent overgrown
  • Recommend footbathing – copper sulphate (5%) or formalin (3%)
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14
Q

How is lameness treated in goats?

A

Check for infectious causes

1st line - Amoxicillin/oxytetracyclines and NSAIDs

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15
Q

Why is there high SCC in goat dairy herds?

A
  • No pre-stripping or individual cell counts
  • Long lactations means that the SCC build up over time
  • No milk recording
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16
Q

Describe the outcomes of staph aureus/blackleg in goats.

A

Need to PTS due to poor prognosis, whole quarter turns back, dies off and may slough off

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17
Q

Describe the reproductive life of goats.

A

Puberty = 5 months
Type of breeder = short day polyoestrous
Cycle length = 18-21days
Ovulation = 24-36hours post oestrous
Source of progesterone = CL only
Gestation length = 150 days

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18
Q

What are the possible post parturient problems in goats?

A
  • Uterine rupture after assisted birth or breach kid/lamb – euthanise
  • Uterine prolapse, rare but good prognosis if soon treated in both species
  • RFM (>12 hrs), does become ill quickly – need antibiotics if doesn’t cleanse with 24 hours. Sheep will be fine. Amoxicillin/Oxytetracyclines
  • If kid left in goat then will soon become toxic and die
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19
Q

What in cloudburst in goats?

A

Pseudopregnancy of goats – may have been no contact with male

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20
Q

What are the clinical signs of cloudburst in goats?

A

Goat present with distended abdomen and fill up with fluid and may also enter lactation

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21
Q

How is cloudburst in goats treated?

A

Ultrasound scan to check isn’t really pregnant

PGF2α to regress CL – may give secondary antibiotics if signs of infection due to the cervix being open

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22
Q

What is pseudolactation in goats?

A
  • Often no history of parturition or contact with male
  • Can often have mastitis as a consequence
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23
Q

What are the treatment options for pseudolactation in goats?

A
  • Reduce feed intake
  • Do not remove udder – too big a surgery for them
  • Treat mastitis if it occurs
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24
Q

What are the common tumours of goats and their clinical signs?

A
  • Lymphoma
  • SCC
  • Thymoma - dysphagia, respiratory distress/marked dyspnoea
  • Cervical leiomyomas - massive haemorrhage, ddx for distended abdomen
  • Uterine adenocarcinoma
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25
Q

What is the colostrum management for goats?

A
  • 10% bwt
  • ½ volume in 2 hrs, rest by 6 hrs
  • Passing of meconium – sign had a feed of colostrum
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26
Q

What is meningitis in goats a consequence of and what are the clinical signs?

A

Consequence of FPT and present as extended neck, full, recumbency, fitting

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27
Q

At what ages can goats develop different neonatal enteric diseases?

A

ETEC = 0-5days
Salmonella = 2 days plus
Rotavirus = 7+ days
Cryptosporidium = 1-3 weeks
Coccidiosis = 3 weeks

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28
Q

When are coccidia found in goats?

A

High stocking density
Youngstock
Kept indoors/deep litter

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29
Q

What does coccidia present as in goats?

A

Diarrhoea with/without mucus
Ill thrift
Rectal prolapse from straining

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30
Q

How is coccidia treated in goats?

A

Toltrazuril at 20mg/kg PO

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31
Q

How does clostridium perfringes type B present in goats?

A
  • Entertoxaemia also the main effect, the same way as lamB dysentery
  • May be precipitated by tubing kid with too much milk meaning undigested milk enters the small intestine
  • Present as bloating, colic and the kid soon dies
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32
Q

How does clostridium perfringes type D present in goats?

A
  • Pulpy KiDney at death caused by enterotoxaemia
  • Precipitated by high carbohydrate diet causing proliferation of the bacteria
  • Severe diarrhoea with blood and mucus, chronic form of intermittent diarrhoea
  • Sudden death
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33
Q

How is clostridium perfringes B and D treated in goats?

A

Submit faeces and ask for toxin testing

Vaccination for Heptavac P

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34
Q

How is disbudding done in kids?

A
  • Do <10 days old once able to be away from dam
  • Must be anaesthetised
  • Place iron for 5 seconds max
  • Don’t press hard as they have thin skulls. Melt brain – necrosis/abscessation of underlying of brain tissue
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35
Q

How are kids anaesthetised for disbudding?

A
  • Be wary that very sensitive to alpha 2 agonists and local anaesthetic (procaine). Always dilute your local with sterile water
  • 0.1 (0.2-0.5mg/kg) xylazine IM
  • Cattle dose 0.5mg/kg meloxicam
  • Atipamazole reversal agent
  • Cornual branches of lacrimal and infratrochlear (ophthalmic)
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36
Q

Why should we never de-horn goats?

A

Haemorrhage, sinusitis, pain

If growing into the skull, remove tips or radiograph to see extent of sinus within the horn

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37
Q

How are younger goats castrated?

A
  • Can ring in first week of life
  • Must use local anaesthetic once > 3 months
  • Be wary of tetanus
  • Can burdizzo
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38
Q

How are older goats castrated?

A
  • Must use sedation /GA
  • Emasculators?
  • Triple clamp?
  • Ensure tetanus protection
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39
Q

What are the anaesthetic agents that can be used in goats?

A
  • Xylazine IM at 0.05 are quite sensitive to xylazine - atipamezole but can never go into food chain
  • Anaesthetise with ketamine – smoother induction if pre-med
  • Diazepam IV - good for muscle relaxant – not licenced in food producing animals
  • Include butorphanol to further decrease muscle tone and give analgesia and is licensed
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40
Q

What are the vital parameters in goats?

A
  • Temperature = 39-40˚C
  • Heart rate = 70-110bpm
  • Respiratory rate = 10-20bpm
  • Rumen turnover = 1-2 per min, 5s duration
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41
Q

What is the IM injection site in goats?

A

Quadriceps to avoid hitting the sciatic nerve

42
Q

What are the 9 licensed products for goats in veterinary medicine?

A
  • Baytril/enrofloxacin
  • Oxytocin
  • Coxevac - for coxiella brunetti (abortion)
  • Sterilised water for injection
  • Versiguard rabies - rabies immunisation
  • GUIDAIR emulsion for injection - Johne’s vaccine)
  • Eprinex pour on - eprinomectin
  • VIMCO emulsion for injection for females - Staph. aureus sub-clinical mastitis control
  • TAF cutaneous spray - thiamphenicol for foot infections
43
Q

Which antibiotics are used and not used in goats?

A

Micotil will kill goats so don’t use

Penicillin/amoxicillin, oxytetracycline and TMPS (EMA category D) will treat nearly all conditions

44
Q

What are the 5 vaccines that are safe for goats, the diseases they protect against and their vaccination regimes?

A

Heptovac P Plus/Lambivac - clostridia and pasteurella

Scabivax - orf, vaccinate at birth

Ovivac - pasteurella, vaccinate from 3 weeks

Toxovac - toxoplasmosis, 1 month before

Enzovac - EAE, 1 month before mating

45
Q

What is the vaccination schedule of clostridial vaccines in goats?

A
  • Primary course, 2 injections 4-6 weeks apart
  • Start kids at 10-12 weeks of age (vaccinated dam)
  • Boosters given every 6 months
  • Booster 2-4 weeks pre-kidding ideally
46
Q

What does lambivac protect against in goats?

A
  • Cl. perfringens B – lamb dysentery
  • Cl. perfringens C – struck, necrotic enteritis Vs
  • Cl. perfringens D – pulpy kidney and enterotoxaemia
  • Cl. tetani
47
Q

Why are goats monitored for parasites for life?

A

Highly susceptible and never become immune

48
Q

What are the clinical signs of roundworms in goats?

A
  • Weight loss, submandibular oedema and pale mucous membranes common clinical signs
  • Diarrhoea (only v.severe cases)
  • Sudden death?
  • Haemonchus = blood sucking worm, get anaemic
49
Q

What should the general dose of anthelmintics in goats be?

A

1.5x the sheep dose (not LV)

50
Q

What is the anthelmintic of choice for nematodirus battus in goats?

A

Benzimidazoles

51
Q

How is parasitism controlled in sheep?

A

Don’t co-graze with sheep or cows, especially goats which do not have the ability to cope with a high parasite level

52
Q

How are flukes treated in goats?

A

Triclabendazole (Fasinex) for acute (immature) stages

Closantel/Albendazole/Nitroxynil for when only adult fluke

53
Q

Which mites are present in goats?

A

Chorioptes – legs

Psoroptes – body, ears, scrotum. Non-burrowing

54
Q

How are mites treated in goats?

A
  • Keratinolytic shampoo to remove scabs
  • Ivermectin at 0.6mg/kg weekly at least 4 weeks
  • Spray frontline or topical eprinomectin on affected areas for 6-8 weeks of chorioptic
55
Q

What can be done to reduce lice problems in goats?

A
  • Keep indoors
  • Quarantine on arrival to farm
  • Frequent FEC
  • Don’t co-graze
  • Don’t over worm
  • Low stocking densities
  • Graze with others of same age
  • Dose correctly
56
Q

What is CAE?

A

Caprine atrhitis encephalitis virus - lentivirus primarily spread via colostrum and respiratory secretions

57
Q

What are the clinical signs that kids develop with CAE?

A

Neurological signs – weakness, ataxia, and hindlimb placing deficits. Over time, signs progress to paraparesis or tetraparesis and paralysis

58
Q

What are the clinical signs that adult goats develop with CAE?

A
  • Joints appear swollen (most often carpal joints)
  • Goats will eat kneeling down and sit on their haunches
  • Differential diagnoses – mycoplasma and traumatic arthritis
59
Q

How is CAE diagnosed in goats?

A
  • Antibody ELISA
  • Sensitivity increases with age – if <90 days will be MDA
  • Accreditation scheme available
60
Q

How is CAE treated in goats?

A

Test and cull

61
Q

How does Johne’s disease present in goats?

A
  • Infected at birth/neonates
  • Present as wasting, not diarrhoea
62
Q

How is Johne’s diseases diagnosed in sheep?

A
  • High shedders so a faecal smear often diagnostic (ZN stain)
  • Ab ELISA is not validated for goats
  • Faecal PCR
  • Faecal culture gold standard
63
Q

What is the Johne’s vaccine?

A

Gudair vaccine

64
Q

What is the consequence of caseous lymphadenitis in goats?

A

Carcass condemnation

65
Q

How is caseous lymphadenitis controlled in goats?

A
  • Quarantine affected animals – pus is infectious to others
  • Test and cull infected animals
66
Q

How is the spread of Johne’s disease in goats prevented?

A

Snatch kidding, artificial colostrum, test and cull, don’t keep replacements from MAP does, tag and separate herd, vaccinate

67
Q

How is the spread of CAE in goats prevented?

A

Snatch kidding, artificial colostrum, test and cull, accreditation schemes, cull all progeny of infected, buy from accredited herds

68
Q

How is the spread of CLA in goats prevented?

A

Don’t lance abscess, cull those with clinical signs, blood test and cull, buy from negative herds, isolate suspected cases

69
Q

What are the clinical signs of CCN in goats?

A

Star gazing’
Animal can appear blind

70
Q

How is CCN in goats treated?

A

Essential to get vitamin B1 treatment

71
Q

What are the clinical signs of listeriosis in goats?

A
  • Depressed animal, often not moving with head tilt and drooling
  • Food packing into one cheek
  • Facial asymmetry
72
Q

How is listeriosis treated in goats?

A
  • High dose penicillin
  • NSAID/steroid and Vit B1
73
Q

What are the types of urolithiasis stones that goats develop?

A
  • Struvite – magnesium ammonium phosphate eg grain based diets, alkali pH
  • Calcium carbonate – high calcium diet eg alfalfa. Goats >1yr more likely to have calcium based stones
  • Calcium phosphate – amorphous magnesium calcium phosphate most common stone seen
  • Calcium oxalate – plants including rhubarb, spinach
74
Q

Why/where do uroliths become trapped in goats?

A

Sigmoid flexure in castrated animals

75
Q

What are the clinical signs of urolithiasis?

A
  • Failure to urinate/straining, dry prepuce
  • ‘Out-stretched’ posturing
  • Constant straining may result in a rectal prolapse
  • Bloating
  • Anorexia
  • Vocalising
  • Restlessness
76
Q

What blood work is done in goats for urolithiasis?

A
  • Increased BUN, creatinine and potassium
  • K > 8mmol/L indicates a very poor prognosis and euthanasia should be recommended
  • Decreased sodium, chloride and phosphorus
  • Increased PCV/ TP
77
Q

What imaging is done in goats for urolithiasis?

A

Ultrasound – visualise bladder, check for free abdominal fluid

Radiographs - able to visualise calcium based uroliths, location and if multiple stones

78
Q

What are the treatment options for urolithiasis in goats?

A
  • Cannot use conservative
  • Removal of vermiform appendage - recurrence in most within hours/days, challenge to extrude penis
  • Tube cystotomy - surgical/percutaneous placement
  • Surgery - referral
79
Q

What are the referral surgical options for urolithiasis in goats?

A

Perineal Urethrostomy
Marsupialisation

Both can have complications with wound breakdown/urine scalding and heal over in time

80
Q

What is the temperament of red deer?

A

More docile and easier to handle

81
Q

What is the temperament of fallow deer?

A

Fractious, nervous, herd species – don’t do much with

82
Q

What can no longer be done with Muntjac deer?

A

Illegal to release – no natural England licenses issued. Cannot re-release back into the wild

83
Q

What is characteristic about Chinese water deer?

A

No antlers, have fangs only

84
Q

What is characteristic about reindeer?

A

Males commonly castrated – behavioural reasons

Both females and males grow antlers – only deer species routinely grown antlers in females

Hard to get them to breed

85
Q

Describe deer behaviour.

A
  • Prey species with weapons to fight back if they want to but more prey species in behaviour
  • Very new to domestication
  • Heavily seasonal aggression in ruts
  • Bullying – herding species and prey species, can be merciless
  • Stag putting tongue out and clicking = warning and threat of aggression
  • Can fluff up white fur on bums to make themselves look bigger in case they need to run away
86
Q

Describe the antler cycle of deer.

A
  • Testosterone/androgen dependent for growth cycle of antlers
  • Annual growth – inch of antler a day at peak season
  • Velvet and pedicle growth planes is soft, has nervous tissue and highly vascular (living tissue)
  • Rising testosterone to shed the velvet as it dies off, rising testosterone starts the rut, drop off of testosterone means antlers die off and the cycle starts all over again
  • Damage and injuries – ability to deal with fractures is very high due to cycle
87
Q

What are some characteristics of deer farms?

A
  • Must go through abattoir
  • Light and dark areas used to encourage deer through the system, not pushed or beaten
88
Q

What are some common practices for preventative medicine in deer?

A
  • De-antlering of stags – cut above attachment to the skull, antlers have died off so can’t feel
  • Weighing – used to assess if worming or not
89
Q

Name 7 common conditions of deer seen in deer farms.

A

PGE
Lungworm
Copper deficiency
Bovine tuberculosis
Pasteurella
Yersiniosis
Cryptosporidium

90
Q

What condition do red deer get particularly?

A

Copper deficiency

Present in different ways – poor condition, growth rates, conception, coat quality, youngsters may have neuro signs but mostly ill thrift

91
Q

What condition do deer calves get in particular?

A

Cryptosporidium

They do not scour, they just die. If overstocked paddocks, 7-10 day old calves dying off. PM findings as do not scour

92
Q

What are deer parks?

A
  • Enclosure containing managed deer that are not routinely handled
  • Deer within bounds are “wild” and managed as so, no agriculture purpose
  • Narrow gene pools and inbreeding problems
  • Cull plans so to avoid overstocking consequences
93
Q

What are the common conditions of deer seen in deer parks?

A
  • Often related to stocking density
  • Lungworm
  • Cryptosporidium
  • Clostridial disease
  • Toxicities
  • Dystocia – dart and remove calf or euthanise, try to leave them to it
  • Tangling/snaring injuries – during cleaning phase they try to fond something to scratch on to remove velvet and end up wrapping around fences. Dart and remove
94
Q

What is the consideration of euthanasia with wild deer?

A

If prognosis is poor, is it worth keeping wild prey species in a very stressful environment when it will die in a few days

95
Q

What must be considered with orphaned deer?

A
  • Most times mot actually abandoned
  • Species specific temperaments
  • Releasing criteria – must have a plan when rearing
  • Consider colostrum status – assume failure of passive transfer and co-morbidities of this
96
Q

When is castration or euthanasia of male orphaned deer considered?

A

Behaviour during the rut. If bottle fed and not castrated, they are not afraid of you – castrate too late will affect huge problems for antler cycle as it is testosterone dependent. Huge safety risk

97
Q

What are the management considerations for reindeer?

A
  • Vaccinations
  • Castration
  • Foot trimming as they are not walking on snow in this country
  • De-antlering
  • Careful with feeding and husbandry – do not feed lush pasture
98
Q

What are some common antler conditions in reindeer?

A
  • Perruques
  • Antler warts (antleroma) – papillomas on antler surface, only in castrated males
  • Broken antlers
  • Pedicle infections where cut off
  • Hormone therapy
99
Q

What condition do reindeer get particularly?

A

MCF/malignant catarrhal fever (ovine/caprine herpesvirus). Hyperaemia, hypersalivation, neuro signs and death. Diagnostic testing difficult – do not seroconvert and PCR takes weeks

100
Q

What is some basic legislation in the UK around deer?

A
  • Only vets can do shit with antlers
  • IM injections are an act of veterinary surgeon in wild or park deer, not farmed deer
  • Can’t transport a deer in velvet
101
Q

What is the role of deer in bovine tuberculosis spread?

A
  • Deer can contract bTB
  • Spillover host – can contract but don’t seem to spread to each other and other things except in certain mechanisms of infection and overstocking
  • Raw pet food industry – cats and zoos can get TB from deer offal
102
Q

What are the possible notifiable diseases in deer?

A
  • Bovine tuberculosis (bTB)
  • Foot and Mouth Disease
  • Bluetongue – can seroconvert but unlikely to see in deer
  • Epizootic haemorrhagic virus
  • (Chronic Wasting Disease)

CVSOH 4 (34 decks)

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