GO 6.7, GO 100.17, 100.18, 100.21, 100.31, 100.40, 100.42, 100.62, 100.72, 100.84, 110.2, 100.95 Flashcards

1
Q

(1) An OIC shall only be appointed when ______ officers will be on duty under their supervision. Officers who are assigned to perform the duties of an OIC for ______ during a regular shift shall receive the OIC pay differential as specified in the current Bargaining Unit 5 Labor Agreement.

A

two or more,

six hours or more

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2
Q
  1. PROCEDURES.
    a. Departmental personnel charged with making death or injury notifications shall take care to exercise good judgment. Whenever possible, death notifications ____ be made in person. Injury notifications may be made in person or by telephone, commensurate with the nature and sensitivity of the injury and incident. In any event, notification shall be made in accordance with the following:
A

shall,

(1) The notifying individual shall take extreme care to ensure the proper person receives the information.

(2) In death notifications, the notifying CHP member should have a neighbor or friend of the family present at the time of notification, if possible.

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3
Q
  1. IDENTIFICATION.
    a. During incidents where protective vests are worn and cover the badge and nameplate or the name on the battle dress uniform, uniformed employees’ _______ shall be clearly printed on the front of their helmets.

(1) ______ shall be marked with a _____; other marking devices may damage the helmet finish.

(2) Identification numbers should be _____.

A

identification (ID) numbers,

Identification numbers,

yellow grease pencil,

at least one inch high.

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4
Q

g. Unless they have received prior notice, supervisors ___ refuse to accept subpoenas for subordinates on the day of the designated appearance except in those cases when the Area commander deems the attendance to be critical, and they have reason to believe the employee can be contacted.

A

shall

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5
Q

d. Employees who have been unavailable for a cancellation notification shall contact their office _____ of the scheduled court appearance between ________, excluding legal holidays. Collect telephone calls will be accepted for this purpose. If an employee is notified after the end of their last scheduled shift that the court appearance has been cancelled, compensation shall be approved pursuant to the applicable collective bargaining agreement. If overtime is not covered in the pertinent collective bargaining agreement, the provisions of HPM 10.3, Personnel Transaction Manual, Chapter 24, Overtime, will prevail for that Work Week Group.

e. If an employee reports to the office, court, or hearing room in response to a subpoena or other official process, without having learned of the cancellation or postponement, and they have not confirmed the appearance as required in paragraph 4.d., no overtime compensation or travel expenses will be approved.

A

within 24 hours,

0800 and 1700 hours, Monday through Friday

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6
Q

c. In all cases where a ‘perceived’ data element is required, responses shall be based on perception alone. Officers may not consider identification documents obtained during the stop and ____ inquire with the person contacted to try and ascertain appropriate responses to any of these data elements.

A

shall not

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7
Q

f. Recordable Activity. An entry on the CHP 415 must be made for each person contacted during _______ (e.g., an officer may stop one vehicle with four occupants, cite the driver for speeding, search two passengers, and have three entries on the CHP 415).

(1) Personnel shall not collect data for ____ in crashes, vehicle stops, or motorist services unless the passenger is subjected to one of the specific activities listed in “actions taken by the officer,” on the CHP 415 (e.g., passenger cited, searched, handcuffed), excluding vehicle impounds.

(2) When two or more reporting agencies are involved in a stop, only the _____ shall submit demographic data. The ______ is the agency with investigative jurisdiction based on local, county, state law, or applicable interagency agreement or memorandum of understanding.

A

an enforcement stop or action,
detention,
crash, or
motorist service

passengers,

primary agency, primary agency

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8
Q

g. Exceptions. The following interactions do not require any data entry on the CHP 415:

C A R S

A

(1) Crowd* control or contacts made during public safety evacuations (e.g., natural disasters, critical incidents).

(2) Contacts made during active* shooter incidents.

(3) Contacts made during security screenings* required of all persons entering
a building or event.

(4) Absent additional law enforcement actions, contacts made during routine* traffic control, sobriety checkpoints, or other situations in which the contact is the result of a blanket regulatory activity or neutral formula not based on individualized suspicion or personal characteristics.

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9
Q

According to the Department of Transportation, Division of Rail, an average freight train traveling 30 miles per hour (mph) on level ground requires a minimum distance of ____ to stop. An average freight train traveling 60 mph on level ground requires a minimum distance of ____ to stop.

A

one-half mile,

1 1⁄2 miles

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10
Q

c. When there is a need to stop railway traffic, employees should attempt to locate the nearest Emergency Notification System (ENS) sign. These signs are ________ and are located at each railroad grade crossing. Each sign has the appropriate emergency contact telephone number for the respective railroad.

A

blue with white lettering

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11
Q

(1) Universal Hand Signals.

(a) Normal Stop. To stop a train, slowly swing, a visible object (e.g., flag, handkerchief, emergency yellow blanket, lighted flashlight) horizontally, in a back and forth motion at knee to hip height, at a right angle to the track. In addition, the person giving the signal can be observed more readily by moving about rather than remaining stationary. The locomotive engineer will acknowledge this signal with ____ whistle blasts and stop the train as quickly as practical.

A

two

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12
Q

(2) Unattended Road Flare. If time and access allows, place one 30-minute lighted road flare between the rails, but not directly on a wooden railroad tie, in advance of the rail-highway grade crossing or hazard in both directions of travel (refer to Annex B). The lighted road flare should be placed _______ to _________ in advance of the hazard. If a train approaches a lighted road flare burning on or near its track, the locomotive engineer is required to stop the train at or near the road flare.

A

2,000 feet (minimum) to over two miles

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13
Q

When a road flare is placed over one mile from a hazard, additional lighted road flares should be placed _____ from the hazard. This will allow sufficient time for the locomotive engineer to be warned of an approaching hazard.

A

less than one mile

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14
Q
  1. PROCEDURES.
    a. Killed or Injured Livestock.

O H P S

A

(1) In the case of an accident where a motor vehicle has killed or injured livestock, reasonable efforts shall be made to locate and notify the owner(s)* of the animal(s).
1 GO 100.36

(2) When the owner cannot be located and it becomes necessary to confine the animal or store the carcass, immediate notification shall be made to the Secretary of Food and Agriculture, as required in Food and Agriculture Code Section 17042. This requirement can be satisfied by advising the appropriate state hide* and brand inspector having jurisdiction. Current listings of state hide and brand inspectors can be obtained from Bureau of Livestock Identification regional supervisors at the following telephone numbers:
(a) Northern California: (530) 347-5721 (b) Central California: (209) 845-8352 (c) Southern California: (559) 685-3505

(3) Only the owner or the owner’s agent can order a carcass salvaged. If this person is not available, officers shall direct the removal of carcass(es) to a reduction works processing* plant, but not to a locker plant.

(4) Departmental policy regarding shooting* of injured animals is contained in Highway Patrol Manual (HPM) 70.6, Officer Safety Manual, Chapter 2, Discharge of Firearms.

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15
Q

Loose Livestock on Roadways and Railways. Generally, there is no legal
requirement for fencing in open range areas.

(3) Officers shall make a reasonable effort to locate the livestock owner before ordering animal removal. When the owner cannot be located and the livestock cannot be safely directed away from the roadway, officers shall attempt to remove the livestock from the highway as follows:

A

(a) Direct livestock into an enclosed or fenced area. The officers herding the livestock should be reasonably certain the animals were originally contained within the specific area and make every effort to minimize injury to livestock or damage to property. Officers shall immediately notify the owner of the fenced property that the livestock were placed on their property.

(b) Request removal from available public resources (e.g.,sheriff,animal control).

(c) If public resources are not available, Area commanders may enter into an agreement with private contractors. Contact Business Services Section, Contracts Services Unit, for assistance in establishing annual contracts for such services. Such agreements shall require the individual to:

(d) Officers authorizing the removal of livestock from a roadway shall complete a CHP 51, Memorandum,

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16
Q

c. Damaged Livestock Fences.
(1) Officers encountering damaged livestock fences which border highways during the course of their duties ____ make a reasonable effort to notify responsible parties in accordance with Section 2811 of the California Vehicle Code (CVC).

(a) In situations where personal notification is not possible, and the incident is within an unincorporated area, officers shall notify the ______ and complete a _____ outlining the circumstances of the incident.

A

Shall,

local sheriff, CHP 51,

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17
Q

(2) Children who are less than eight years of age shall be transported as follows:

(a) When transporting a child in a state vehicle other than an authorized emergency vehicle or when transporting a child in a rented or private vehicle while on state business, an approved ____ shall be used.

A child under eight years of age who is _____ in height or taller may be properly restrained in the rear seat of a vehicle by a seat or safety belt. Effective January 1, 2017, children under ____ of age shall be properly secured in a rear-facing child passenger restraint sytem unless the child weighs _____ pounds or is ______ inches tall.

A

child passenger restraint system,

four feet nine inches,

two years, 40 or more, 40 or more.

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18
Q

(b) When transporting a child in an emergency situation or in an _______, the provisions of Section 27363(b) CVC shall be followed: “In case of a life-threatening emergency, or when a child is being transported in an _______, if there is no child passenger restraint system available, a child may be transported without the use of that system, but the child shall be secured by a seatbelt.”

A

authorized emergency vehicle,

authorized emergency vehicle,

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19
Q

(4) Section 27363(e) CVC prohibits a child or ward under the age of eight to be secured in the front seat of a motor vehicle unless:

A

(a) There is no rear seat.

(b) The rear seats are side-facing jump seats.

(c) The rear seats are rear-facing seats.

(d) The child passenger restraint system cannot be installed properly in
the rear seat.

(e) All rear seats are already occupied by children seven years of age or younger.

(f) Medical reasons necessitate that the child or ward not ride in the rear seat. The court may require satisfactory proof of the child’s medical condition.

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20
Q

The operator of any state vehicle, or private vehicle being operated during the course of conducting state business, that is equipped with a passenger-side air bag, shall give consideration to the following when transporting persons.

(1) The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) recommends there be a minimum of ____ between the chest of a person sitting in the front seat and the air bag cover to minimize the risk of serious injury. Additionally, NHTSA recommends the front seat be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain the ____ distance.

(2) If the vehicle has a passenger-side air bag on-off switch, the vehicle operator shall only shut off the air bag pursuant to the provisions of the on-off switch installation approval letter issued by NHTSA.

A

ten inches, ten-inch

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21
Q

b. Ride-along requests should be authorized when practical in the following circumstances, but only under the procedures set forth in paragraph 4. of this GO.

N P C

A

(1) Nonuniformed, departmental employee requests.

(2) Persons considering employment with the Department.

(3) Persons currently involved in the cadet selection process.

(4) Cadets with approval of the CHP Academy. (Refer to paragraph 4.e. of this
GO.)

22
Q

e. California Highway Patrol officers participating in a ride-along with an allied agency are subject to the following:

A

(1) An armed CHP officer shall not participate in a voluntary, off-duty ride-along with an allied law enforcement agency without first receiving the written approval from their respective commander.

(2) Departmental approval is not required in situations where an unarmed CHP officer participates in a ride-along with an allied law enforcement agency while off- duty.

23
Q

(4) A preliminary record check ____ be conducted on all prospective ride-along participants using the California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System (CLETS). The preliminary record check is for security purposes and shall not be used in a decision to hire a prospective employee. Preliminary record checks _____ be conducted on current CHP employees. Preliminary record checks containing _____ convictions shall result in a denial of participation as a ride-along. Prospective ride-alongs with _____ convictions on their preliminary record checks shall only participate as a ride-along upon approval from the Area commander or designee.

A

should,

shall not,

felony,

misdemeanor,

24
Q

If an officer who is assigned a ride-along participant is directed or required to respond to an extremely hazardous situation, they ____ ensure the immediate supervisor is aware that a ride-along participant is present. In extremely hazardous situations, it may be advisable to leave the ride-along participant at a safe location and return for the individual after the incident has been concluded. Ride-along participants shall follow the directions of the officer at all times.

A

shall

25
Q
  1. POLICY.
    a. Uniformed personnel operating enforcement vehicles while assigned to _____ duties shall:

(1) Stop to assist persons who are in apparent need regardless of _____.

(2) Provide reasonable assistance (including transportation) to persons who express concern for their safety or have an obvious compelling need within the geographical area of the Department’s primary responsibility.

A

patrol,

geographical location,

26
Q

(2) Requests for transportation other than those provided within normal patrol activities ____ be referred to a supervisor. Determining whether transportation will be provided requires assessment of:

COMPELLING NEED;
ALTERNATIVE;
POTENTIAL HAZARD IF NOT TRANSPORTED;
AVAILABILITY OF PERSONNEL

A

should,

(a) The person’s compelling need.

(b) Available alternatives.

(c) The potential for hazard to the person if transportation is not provided.

(d) Availability of Department personnel to provide service.

27
Q
  1. PROCEDURES, OTHER UNIFORMED PERSONNEL.
    a. Uniformed personnel operating enforcement vehicles but not assigned to patrol duties shall, using sound professional judgment, either:
A

(1) Stop and assist pedestrians or occupants of disabled vehicles.

(2) Ensure the need for departmental assistance is relayed in a timely manner
to the appropriate departmental personnel responsible for providing such assistance.

28
Q

f. Commanders or designated alternatives may authorize emergency transportation or escorts to continue into an adjacent Area without relay under the following conditions:

A

(1) When units in the Area(s) into which the emergency transportation or escort extends are unavailable or so located that an excessive delay in transportation would exist.

(2) When circumstances where any delay may be considered life threatening or excessive.

(3) When the destination of the emergency transportation or escort is such that a relay would be inappropriate.

(4) When the Area(s) being traversed is/are notified of the emergency transportation or escort.

29
Q
  1. PROCEDURES.
    a. Commanders should establish procedures governing the disposition of requests for emergency medical and life-saving transportation for inclusion in the command’s standard operating procedures.

b. Requests are to be screened to determine validity and urgency of need.

A

(1) Transporting officers are to be advised of the degree of the urgency.

(2) If a request is deemed a nonemergency, the requester shall be advised
and assisted in finding alternative transportation.

30
Q

(6) Area Commander/Designee. It is the responsibility of the Area commander or designee to assess risk criteria prior to deployment. If any of the critical risk assessment criteria listed in paragraph 6.d.(2) of this GO are present, the Division WST ____ be utilized for warrant service.

Accordingly, if at any time prior to a warrant service operation the WST supervisor or team members reach a reasonable suspicion that any of the following conditions/situations exist or are developing, the service of the warrant should be considered high-risk and careful consideration given prior to execution:

F A G V

A

Shall,

(a) The search location is believed to be fortified*.

(b) Multiple gang* members are known to be present.

(c) Assault* rifles are believed to be present and a potential for their use exists.

(d) The subject(s) are known to be violent*, particularly towards law enforcement.

31
Q

(3) In the event that any of the following conditions exist, the warrant service shall not be initiated. These incidents shall be referred to a SWAT team:

B E A C H E S S

A

(d) Barricaded* and armed subject(s).
(e) Known presence of explosive(s).
(g) Attempt to ambush
.
(a) Chemical* hazard threat.
(c) Hostage* situation.
(h) Paramilitary extremist* groups (organized crime/terrorist).
(f) Presence of sniper(s).
(b) Suicidal
individual(s).

32
Q

b. Exigent Circumstances. The courts have held that Knock and Notice is not necessary where exigent circumstances exist. There must be a specific threat which can be articulated before Section 1531 PC may be waived. General concerns involving officer safety are not sufficient.
Also, exigent circumstances which are created by the officers themselves are not grounds for waiving Knock and Notice requirements. An exigent circumstance is defined as an emergency situation requiring swift action to prevent the following:

SS D E

A

(1) Serious injury or loss of life (officers and/or the public).

(2) Serious damage to property.

(3) Destruction of evidence or property.

(4) Escape of the suspect(s).

33
Q

b. Officers performing patrol duty ___ check all vehicles which appear to be unattended or disabled upon state highways (including freeways), unincorporated roadways, and other major traffic arteries within the geographical area of the Department’s primary responsibility, as such vehicles may actually be occupied or disabled. Vehicles should be promptly removed from the freeway or roadway whenever authorized by law.

A

shall

34
Q

d. Upon locating a vehicle that has been involved in a crash and is unoccupied, officers shall practice due diligence by conducting a thorough search of the area and attempt to contact the______ to determine the whereabouts of the occupants of the vehicle.

A

registered owner of the vehicle

35
Q

d. Officers ____ issue a CHP 281, Notice to Correct Violation, or a CHP 214, Written Warning, to a driver with a CLETS record which shows a current suspension or revocation status, regardless of notification or service order.

A

shall not

36
Q

a. Deployment.
(1) Field commands utilizing a 12-hour work shift shall schedule and deploy all officers according to the historic rotation of work days and regular days off (RDO). Requests for unscheduled time off should not be granted.

(2) Field commands utilizing a 10-hour work shift shall schedule and deploy all officers according to the historic rotation of work days and RDOs. Requests for unscheduled time off should not be granted. If a rotation has not historically been utilized to prepare the work schedule, ____ of all available field officers for any given shift shall be scheduled and deployed.

(3) Field commands utilizing a 9- or 8-hour work shift for most officers shall schedule and deploy a minimum _____ of all available field officers for each shift during the MEP.

A

80 percent, 80 percent

37
Q

(4) No compromise to the maximum deployment formula shall be made during egress/ingress periods (e.g., if Christmas falls on a Friday, Thursday, or Sunday would be an egress/ingress period for most field commands). Calculation of the MEP formula may deviate downward to _____ during scheduled work shifts outside of anticipated egress/ingress periods and for Area specific needs as determined by the commander.

A

70 percent

38
Q

(6) Following are the minimum criteria for selection and assignment of officers as OICs:

A

(a) Have permanent status as an officer, and maintain a minimum performance rating of “Proficient” for all critical tasks on the CHP 100, Officer’s Evaluation/Activity Summary, and a minimum performance rating of “Proficient” for all critical tasks on the CHP 118, Performance Appraisal - Officer.

(b) Not currently serving an adverse action penalty.

(c) Has demonstrated good judgment, shown individual initiative, and
been supportive of departmental policies.

39
Q

c. Departmental personnel traversing a state-owned bridge/toll highway in a state vehicle, conducting official business, not equipped with a FasTrak transponder or included in a license plate tolling system ____ pay the required bridge/highway toll.

A

shall

40
Q

b. Departmental personnel responding to or returning from an urgent or emergency call, engaged in an urgent or emergency response, or directly related to an emergency response shall also be exempt from monetary payment. An urgent response or call means an incident or circumstance that requires an immediate response to a public safety related incident, but may not warrant the use of emergency warning lights.

(1) Urgent does not include any _____,_____,_____,_____.

(2) Departmental personnel, when returning from an urgent or emergency call, or from being engaged in an urgent or emergency response _____ be exempt from monetary payment of a toll or other charges imposed while traveling on a high-occupancy toll (HOT) lane.

A

personal use, commuting, training, or administrative uses

shall not

41
Q

(9) Ride-alongs shall be prohibited from taking photographs or making any type of recordings (e.g., video, audio) during a ride-along. Exceptions may only be made for ____ and only with the approval of the respective Area commander.

A

members of the media

42
Q

a. Pedestrians and Occupants of Disabled Vehicles. Officers shall provide or summon assistance as necessary when a person appears to need help.

(1) Officers shall take all reasonable steps to accommodate the transportation needs of persons who ______ and _____.

A

have expressed an immediate concern for their personal safety and

who are actually in need of transportation assistance.

43
Q

a. Report copies provided in any format, require a charge of ____ per _____.
b. A person who has proper interest may ____ a report in its entirety without charge.

A

$10.00 per 25 pages,

review

44
Q
  1. RELEASE TO A PERSON WHO HAS PROPER INTEREST - NONGOVERNMENT - CHARGE FOR COPIES UNLESS OTHERWISE INDICATED. The following entities are authorized to purchase a copy of a collision report:

b. Persons involved or injured (including passengers), legal guardians, conservators, and relatives (when proper interest has been established, i.e., _______). ____ are not considered a person of proper interest, unless they have a signed authorization from the involved adult child.

A

parents of minors,

Parents of adult children

45
Q
  1. SPECIFIC QUALIFIED EXCEPTIONS.
    a. 0600 to 2200 Hours. Two or more officers may be assigned to a field patrol unit between 0600 and 2200 hours under the following circumstances:
A

(1) For officer safety. The Area commander’s primary consideration when determining the number of officers assigned to a field patrol unit should be officer safety. The efficiency of field operations is a secondary concern.

(2) For training or field orientation purposes.

(3) When there are insufficient patrol cars available for officers on the shift,
such as when motorcycle officers use patrol cars on rainy days.

46
Q

e. During events in which activation is mandated, employees are required to record an entire event, or at least as much as their involvement will allow. However, it is not the intent to capture video when the public contact has concluded, and there is no evidentiary value in continuing the recording (e.g., the time interval after completing ____).

f. When recording an enforcement contact that leads to a physical arrest, employees may discontinue the recording while transporting the subject to a booking or detention facility. If an arrestee becomes _____ or _____ during transport, recording ____ be resumed if it can be done so safely.

A

a vehicle inventory and awaiting the arrival of a tow truck,

combative or uncooperative,

should

47
Q

If the MVARS unit becomes inoperable at any time during the officer’s shift, the officer ____ acquire another vehicle with an operational MVARS unit ____ thereafter, except when no other MVARS equipped vehicles are available.

A

shall,

as soon as practical

48
Q

r. Documentation. A notation indicating MVARS disk and event number shall be made in the corresponding report when incidents are recorded with MVARS. If a mandatory record event was not recorded, an explanation shall be made in ______. When a supervisory report is completed, a notation ____ be made as to whether or not the event was captured on MVARS and whether or not the recorded event was reviewed.

A

the narrative section of the corresponding report,

shall,

49
Q

When worn on the uniform, communication devices ___ be in the silent/vibrate mode.

A

shall

50
Q

(1) The following personal electronic/entertainment devices shall not be carried or used while engaged in enforcement activities: televisions, DVD players, or video game systems.

(2) Approved cellular telephones and electronic devices with the capability of playing video files shall not be used in such a manner.

(3) Music devices may be carried in vehicles; however, at no time shall an employee use _____or _____ to listen to the music device.

(4) Approved devices ____ at no time be integrated with any part of the departmental vehicle or California Highway Patrol radio/audio systems.

A

headphones or earbuds,

shall

51
Q

NOTE: Digital media recorded while on duty shall be processed in accordance with GO 110.8, Processing and Storage of Digital Media. Digital media captured while on-duty shall be transferred from the device and submitted to the Department prior to _____.

(10) If the transferred data is likely to result in criminal, civil (against or initiated by the Department), or administrative proceedings, the transferred data shall be booked into ____

A

the end of the employee’s work shift,

evidence in accordance with HPM 70.1, Evidence Manual.