70.6 Flashcards

1
Q

b. The Graham Factors. The Graham decision specified three primary factors (the Graham Factors) to assist in determining reasonableness. While not all inclusive, these factors assist in evaluating the reasonableness of a use of force incident when considering “the totality of the circumstances.” These factors are:
1-3 HPM 70.6

S I R

A

(1) Severity* of the crime at issue.
(2) Whether the subject poses an immediate* threat to the safety of the
officer(s) or others.
(3) Whether the subject is actively resisting* arrest or attempting to evade* arrest by flight.

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2
Q

Pursuant to California Penal Code Section 835a(e)(3), _______ means all facts known to the peace officer at the time, including the conduct of the officer and subject leading up to the use of force.

A

the totality of the circumstances

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3
Q

(a) When safe and feasible under the totality of circumstances, officers _____ utilize de-escalation techniques, crisis intervention tactics, and other alternatives to force.

A

are required to

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4
Q

An officer is justified in using nondeadly force to gain compliance or control of a subject when it is objectively reasonable under the totality of the circumstances. Nondeadly force includes, but is not limited to, ____ and _____

A

control holds and personal weapons. (Departmentally approved handcuffing techniques on a compliant subject does not constitute a use of force.)

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5
Q

An officer is justified in using intermediate force when the subject presents an immediate threat of harm to the officer(s) or others and the use of such force is objectively reasonable under the totality of the circumstances. Intermediate force includes, but is not limited to, electronic control device, impact weapons, aerosol subject restraint, and kinetic energy munitions.

F S I E

A

(1) Flight.
(a) While it is relevant, flight alone is not the only factor to be taken into consideration. In addition to flight, officers shall consider:

1 The severity of the crime.
2 Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to officers or
others.
3 The officer-to-subject factors and environmental* factors (lighting, footing, weather, etc.).

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6
Q

An officer is justified in using deadly force upon another person only when the officer reasonably believes, based on the totality of the circumstances, that such force is necessary in defense of human life. In determining whether deadly force reasonably appears to be necessary, officers shall evaluate each situation in light of the particular circumstances of each case. If reasonably safe and feasible to do so, officers shall use other available resources and techniques.

D A

SHALL NOT: DANGER TO THEMSELVES

A

(1) Self-Defense and/or Defense of Others.
(2) Apprehension.
(3) An officer shall not use deadly force against a person based on the danger that person poses to themselves, if an objectively reasonable officer would believe the person does not pose an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to the peace officer or to another.

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7
Q

(1) Self-Defense and/or Defense of Others.

A

(a) To defend against an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to the officer or to another person.

(b) In self-defense while an assault with a deadly weapon (ADW) with a vehicle is actually being committed.

Officers shall not stand and/or step directly in front of or directly behind a vehicle in an attempt to impede its movement (prevent escape), intentionally creating circumstances where use of deadly force appears to be necessary. The primary tactical consideration should be for officers to move out of the path of a vehicle whenever such movement is reasonably possible. Once an officer no longer perceives a threat, deadly force is no longer justified.

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8
Q

(2) Apprehension.

F A I E

A

(a) To apprehend a fleeing person for any felony* that threatened or resulted in death or serious bodily injury, if the officer reasonably believes that the person will cause death or serious bodily injury to another unless immediately apprehended.

(c) Following an ADW* with a vehicle, where an officer reasonably believes serious bodily injury or death has occurred, an officer may utilize deadly force when necessary to apprehend a person, if the officer reasonably believes the person will cause serious bodily injury or death to another unless immediately apprehended.

(b) Where feasible, a peace officer shall, prior to the use of force, make reasonable efforts to identify* themselves as a peace officer and to warn that deadly force may be used, unless the officer has objectively reasonable grounds to believe the person is aware of those facts.

(d) Deadly force for apprehension of a person shall be used only when all other reasonable means of apprehension have been exhausted* and, if under the totality of the circumstances perceived by the officer, the use of a firearm is not likely to endanger innocent persons.

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9
Q

(1) In the event of a reportable firearm discharge, the discharge _____ be reported to a supervisor as soon as the situation is stabilized.
(2) The following discharge of firearms incidents _____ be reported:

	ON DUTY: I A   OFF DUTY:  A D W

c. Exceptions to the Above Reporting Procedures.

U T A H

A

Shall, shall

(a) The intentional discharge of any firearm by an officer while on duty.
(c) Accidental discharge of any firearm while on duty.
(f) The intentional or accidental discharge of a firearm by a nonuniformed employee while on duty.

(b) The intentional discharge of any firearm by an officer while off duty in
the direction* of, or causing injury to, any person, or toward the property of another person without their specific permission.
(d) Off-duty accidental discharges of any firearm that may be carried concealed under the authority* of California peace officer status.
(e) Warning* shots fired by an officer while off duty in an attempt to apprehend a person for any crime.

(1) Training, qualification, or shooting competition (other than accidental).
(2) Lawful hunting
activities which do not result in injury to any person or
cause damage to another person’s property.
(3) Shooting of animals* in accordance with policy outlined in Chapter 2, Discharge of Firearms at Animals, of this manual.
(4) The discharge of any firearm (including accidental) while performing duties directly related to service in the U.S. Armed Forces*.

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10
Q

a. Officer Responsibility. When officers are involved in or witness an incident in which they believe excessive force is currently or may have been used by any peace officer, they shall take immediate action to stop the excessive force.

N I R

A

(1) The officer’s actions shall be reasonable* and prudent, based upon the circumstances.
(2) The officer’s actions shall include verbal and/or physical intervention* necessary to stop the use of excessive force.
(3) Following the incident, the officer shall immediately notify* a CHP supervisor and submit a report, in accordance with GO 100.39, thoroughly documenting the events.

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11
Q
  1. INVOLVEMENT IN OR WITNESSING EXCESSIVE FORCE.

b. Supervisor and Manager Responsibilities. Supervisors and managers are responsible for ensuring that:

D R I A

A

(1) A supervisor or manager shall respond* to the scene of an incident of excessive use of force as soon as practical when notified.

(2) Accurate reporting shall be thoroughly documented* in accordance with HPM 100.86.

(3) An investigation* is conducted and documented.

(4) These guidelines are followed whether such incidents involve the CHP, an allied agency*, or both.

(5) Investigation of incidents involving allied agencies shall be coordinated at the appropriate Division level.

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12
Q
  1. POLICY.
    a. An officer may discharge a firearm at an animal under the following conditions:

C R D

A

(1) In self-defense or to defend* another person from serious bodily harm.

(2) When necessary to destroy a critically* injured animal, provided such action can be accomplished with safety to persons and property.

(3) When necessary to destroy suspected rabid* animals or animals attacking livestock.

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13
Q

b. Shooting of Injured Animals. There are many instances when officers are confronted with unattended or injured animals that present serious traffic problems requiring prompt action. The shooting of an animal _____ be undertaken only as a last resort. The following steps shall be taken prior to shooting:

S O B R 90DEGREES

A

should,

(1) A supervisor’s* approval to destroy the animal should be obtained with consideration of the geographical location and the officer’s experience.

(2) If possible, the owner’s* permission to destroy the animal should be obtained.

(3) All bystanders* must be protected by removal to a safe area behind the shooting officer.

(4) The area behind and to the sides of the animal should be protected in the event of over penetration or ricochet* of the bullet. The preferred method is to select a location which provides a dirt embankment or other suitable backstop.

(5) When shooting any animal in the head, the chances of ricochet are reduced when shot from a 90-degree* angle at the point of entry.

(6) The skull structure of large animals is predominately thick. There are, however, limited areas where the skull is thin enough to permit bullet penetration.

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14
Q

(2) Except for _____, the most effective way to destroy an animal is to shoot it in the brain through the front of the head. The best alternative would be bullet entry from either side of the head.

A

swine

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15
Q

b. California Vehicle Code Section 21055. This section outlines conditions which, when met, exempt the driver of an AEV from obeying certain sections of the CVC known generally as the “Rules of the Road.” California Vehicle Code Section 21055 grants the operators of AEV exemptions to the rules of the road when the vehicle displays a red light visible to the front and the siren is operated as reasonably necessary in conjunction with one or more of the following conditions:

F E R P

A

(1) In response to an emergency* call.
(2) While engaged in rescue* operations.
(3) In the immediate pursuit* of an actual or suspected violator of the law.
(4) In response to, but not returning from, a fire* alarm.

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16
Q

(c) A patrol vehicle using a siren _____ pass traffic on the left even though it is necessary to drive across a center line of a roadway. A motorist will often swerve to the right at the approach of an AEV. Therefore, an officer should cautiously pass on the right only when no other course is open and then only when the red light and siren have been deactivated.

A

should

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17
Q

(5) If the driver of a vehicle fails to stop as required, officers are authorized to continue following until

L S D R

A

the violator voluntarily stops*,

until relieved* from the pursuit,

until the circumstances warrant legal* intervention (forcible stop), or

until the pursuit is voluntarily discontinued*.

HPM 70.6 5-8

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18
Q

Officers and supervisors shall, at all times, utilize sound professional judgment when balancing the factors associated with vehicular pursuits. Multiple factors must be considered by the officers and supervisors to determine reasonable speeds. Such factors may include, but are not limited to:

W T N V L F Sx3

A

weather* and road conditions,

the volume of vehicular and pedestrian traffic*,

visibility,

the nature of the offense committed by the suspect(s),

the location of the pursuit,

the officer’s familiarity with the location, etc.

the safety of the general public,
the safety of the officers involved,
the safety of the occupants in the fleeing vehicle,

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19
Q

(9) Legal Intervention/Forcible Stops. A general term meaning the termination of a pursuit through the use of physical force or presence.

B R U H R C

A

(a) Channelization. A technique similar to a roadblock where objects are placed in the anticipated path of a pursued vehicle which tends to alter its direction. Examples of usable objects include: barricades, flare pots, pylons, and vehicles.
(b) Roadblocks
. Establishing a physical impediment to traffic as a means for stopping a vehicle using signs, devices, actual physical obstructions, or barricades.
(c) Ramming*. The deliberate act of impacting a violator’s vehicle with another vehicle to functionally damage or otherwise force the violator’s
HPM 70.6 5-10

vehicle to stop. The Pursuit Immobilization Technique (PIT) is a form of ramming and, if utilized, should be identified as such.
(d) Hollow Spike Strip. A device designed to be physically placed across the roadway directly in the path of a fleeing vehicle. As the vehicle passes over the strip, the hollow spikes pierce the tires, pull out of the strip, and cause the tires to deflate.
(e) Boxing-in
. A technique designed to stop a violator’s vehicle by surrounding it with law enforcement vehicles and then slowing all vehicles to a stop.
(f) Use of Firearms*. The act of discharging a firearm at or from a moving vehicle for defense or apprehension shall be in conformance with Chapter 1 of this manual.

.

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20
Q

Pursuits ____ normally be limited to _____ departmental vehicles, the primary pursuit unit and the secondary pursuit unit. A supervisor who has joined in the pursuit and supervises the units would be an additional unit. However, the number of vehicles engaged in the pursuit may be adjusted to fit the situation with supervisory approval (e.g.,”

A N A L S

A

shall,
two,

armed* fugitives,
number* of suspects,
level* of threat,
threat setting*).

The supervisor shall consider the availability or involvement of allied* agency units in determining the number of departmental vehicles participating.

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21
Q

Pursuits shall normally be limited to two departmental vehicles, the primary pursuit unit and the secondary pursuit unit. A supervisor who has joined in the pursuit and supervises the units would be an additional unit. However, the number of vehicles engaged in the pursuit may be adjusted to fit the situation with supervisory approval (e.g.,

A N A L S

A

armed* fugitives,

number* of suspects,

level* of threat,

threat setting*).

The supervisor shall consider the availability* or involvement of allied agency units in determining the number of departmental vehicles participating.

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22
Q

(4) Discontinuing a Pursuit.

(a) An officer shall discontinue a pursuit when _______.

(b) Under certain circumstances the officer should discontinue a pursuit.
Such circumstances may include, but are not limited to:

D;
L E I A ;
RADIO ACKNOWLEDGE

A

directed by a supervisor.

1 The known circumstances of the pursuit present an extreme* safety hazard to the public, the officer, or the suspect (e.g., a heavy vehicle or pedestrian traffic volume, school zones, extreme speeds, weather conditions, traffic conditions, the availability of air support, or the officer’s lack of familiarity with the location).
5-17 HPM 70.6

2 Information about the suspect’s identity* has developed during the pursuit which will allow later apprehension.

3 The pursued vehicle’s location* is no longer definitely known.

4 An allied* agency has been notified to discontinue their participation in the pursuit but refuses to do so. Additionally, if the pursuit tactics being used by the allied agency are not within CHP policy, officers shall discontinue the pursuit. In such cases, the allied agency shall be notified of the Department’s discontinuation of the pursuit.
(c) When discontinuing a pursuit, the supervisor or primary pursuit unit shall make radio contact with the officer(s) involved and ensure that the officer(s) acknowledge the order to discontinue the pursuit.
NOTE: Throughout a pursuit, those involved shall exercise sound professional judgment and balance the risks of pursuit (to both the public and the officers) against the known or reasonably suspected offense and the apparent need for apprehension. The decision to continue or discontinue the pursuit shall remain open to reassessment.

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23
Q

(4) Administrative Review. A supervisor shall evaluate all pursuits and complete a_______ , when the incident meets the definition of a pursuit. All pursuit reports shall be documented using the automated Pursuit Reporting System (PRS). The entry into PRS shall be completed ______ of the pursuit.

A

CHP 187 Pursuit Report,

within ten calendar days

24
Q

1) Parking on freeway ramps for the purpose of observing motorist behavior is normally prohibited. Parking on freeway ramps is restricted to
7-7 HPM 70.6

P E R C

A

providing* services,

investigating traffic collisions*,

deploying radar*/lidar, or

taking enforcement* action against a violator.

25
Q

(5) Area commanders shall ensure there are a sufficient number of certified OST instructors, at a ratio of ____ instructor for every ____ officers in attendance at training.

A

1, 10

26
Q

b. Exceptions. At the officer’s discretion, the following persons may be exempted from handcuffing to the rear:

S E V

A

(1) Sick, injured, or disabled. Handcuffs should be secured in a manner that would not aggravate the person’s condition.
(2) Elderly.
(3) Visibly pregnant.

27
Q

(1) Standing.
(2) Kneeling.
(3) Prone.

Standing Arrest Techniques.

A

(1) Bent Wrist.
(2) Twist Lock.
(3) Modified Twist Lock.

28
Q

(1) Standing.
(2) Kneeling.
(3) Prone.

Kneeling Arrest Techniques.

A

(1) Kneeling Twist Lock.

29
Q

(1) Standing.
(2) Kneeling.
(3) Prone.

Prone Arrest Techniques.

A

(1) Prone Twist Lock.
(2) High Risk Prone Twist Lock.

30
Q

c. An officer ____ never allow the gender of an arrestee affect their use of proper search techniques and safety procedures. When searching an arrestee of a different gender, at least one of the following guidelines ____ be followed:

G W R

A

shall, should,

(1) Use of another uniformed employee of the same gender to conduct the search.
(2) Use of another uniformed employee as a witness.
(3) Use of an impartial witness.
(4) Use of the Mobile Video/Audio Recording System.
(5) Use of body-worn camera recordings.

31
Q

(3) A spit sock shall only be used on subjects placed ____ or those who have been taken into _____.

A

under physical arrest,

protective custody per California Welfare and Institutions Code Sections 305 and 5150

32
Q

Oleoresin capsicum spray ____ not be used at a distance of _____ unless an extreme hazard exists to the officer or other persons (e.g., immediate threat of injury). The projector ____ not be aimed directly at the eyes at a distance of _______. If the projector is used at less than the above indicated distances and the officer believes there is a possibility of eye injury due to the force of the propellant, the officer shall seek medical assistance for the subject as soon as practical.

A

shall, less than 3 feet,

should, less than 5 feet

33
Q

b. The optimal deployment range for the 12-gauge shotgun with kinetic energy munitions is ______. Deployment at ______ reduces the intended use of long-range impact munitions, and beyond ______, energy and accuracy may not be sufficient for deployment considerations. Regardless of any optimal distances, impact munitions aimed or deployed directly to the ______ can result in serious or even fatal injury.

A

5 to 60 feet,

less than 5 feet, 60 feet,

head, neck, throat, or spine

34
Q

ECD Operation.

(4) Optimum distance: _______.
(5) Maximum effective range: _____.

A

7 feet to 15 feet,

25 feet

35
Q

(2) An ECD shall not be used:

R E E L F

A

(a) As a prod or escort* device.
(b) To rouse* unconscious, impaired, or intoxicated individuals.
(c) If there is reason to believe a subject has been exposed to flammable* liquids. Some oleoresin capsicum sprays carried by allied agencies contain flammable components.
(d) If the use would occur in a flammable or explosive environment
where the spark may cause ignition (such as a clandestine laboratory).
(e) If the subject could fall* from a substantial height or into a pool, river, or other body of water where substantial injury or death could occur.

36
Q

j. Restrictions.
(1) An ECD should not be used:

H N M (P E F W C)

A

(a) On handcuffed* persons, unless they pose an immediate threat of injury to the uniformed employee, themselves, or others.
(b) On a subject who is simply noncompliant* or in control of a vehicle in motion* (including motorcycles and bicycles).
(c) Against a person in control of a vehicle if the uniformed employee has reason to believe the vehicle could be put into motion.
(d) Against the following:
1 Women who appear to be pregnant.
2 Subjects who appear to be elderly
.
3 Subjects who appear to be frail.
4 Subjects who appear to weigh
less than 80 pounds.
5 Young children*.

37
Q

o. Probe Removal.
(1) The following options are available for probe removal after the subject has been taken into custody:

E T

A

(a) Removal by trained on-scene emergency medical services (EMS) personnel.

(b) If transportation is practical, the subject may be transported to a medical facility to accommodate the removal of the probes by trained EMS personnel.

(c) If transportation is impractical because of the location of the probes, the uniformed employee may remove the probes on-scene using the following procedures:
1 While wearing protective gloves, the uniformed employee shall remove the probes from the subject in the manner which they were trained.
2 The probes shall be treated as a sharp and should be inserted in the cartridge. The cartridge should be dealt with as a biohazard and booked into evidence. This shall exclude any cartridges and probes utilized for training purposes.
3 The probe area shall be swabbed with an antiseptic wipe, and a first aid adhesive strip applied.
29-13 HPM 70.6

38
Q

(2) Uniformed employees shall not remove a probe from any of the following areas:

A

(a) Groin.
(b) Breast area on a female.
(c) Head and eyes.
(d) Neck.
(e) Spinal column.
(f) Joints.

39
Q

(1) A supervisor ____ be notified as soon as practical after an ECD has been discharged, on or off duty, other than for ____ or ______.

The following procedures shall be followed:

A

shall,

training or performing a spark test,

(a) Comply with the reporting procedures and supervisory responsibilities specified in Chapter 1 of this manual.
(b) A supervisor should respond. Pictures shall be taken of the probe sites, drive stun sites, and any other injuries.
(c) The booking officer shall document the use of an ECD on the detention facility booking slip. Additionally, a copy of the medical clearance form shall be provided to the detention facility and attached to the arrest report.
29-14

40
Q

1 The front red warning light may be displayed when:

A

a Required by CVC Section 21055.

b An extreme hazard exists (CVC Section 25269).

NOTE: When parked off the roadway to write a citation, issue a warning, or for other routine duties, do not display front warning lights.

41
Q

2 Flashing red or red and blue warning lights may be displayed only
during extremely hazardous conditions. These may be described as, but not limited to, the following:

A

a Any incident or situation requiring traffic to stop or proceed only as directed.

b Any incident requiring the roadway to be blocked by the CHP.

c In any other situation when, in the professional judgment of the officer, an extreme hazard exists. When this hazard ceases to exist, flashing lights shall be turned off.

42
Q

3 Flashing amber warning lights may be displayed only when ____

A

an unusual traffic hazard exists. When this hazard ceases to exist, flashing lights shall be turned off (CVC Section 25268).

NOTE: The rear flashing amber lights may be used to warn and slow traffic while a traffic stop is being made. However, if the patrol vehicle and the violator’s vehicle are parked completely off the roadway and no unusual traffic hazards exist, the amber warning lights should be turned off.

43
Q

4 The flashing headlight system shall be used in accordance with CVC Section 25252.5 and only when ____

A

operating vehicles in the emergency mode pursuant to CVC Section 21055. The flashing headlight system shall be deactivated when the patrol car is stopped or parked.

44
Q

3 Ramming. Officers may elect to use a deliberate crash between a patrol vehicle and the pursued vehicle to terminate a pursuit. A supervisor’s permission should be obtained prior to the ramming or utilization of the PIT. For execution of the PIT method, see Annexes A and B. The guidelines below shall be followed:

A

a Motorcycles. Officers shall not ram motorcycles or similar vehicles except:
1/ When necessary in defense of the officer’s life or life of another, or
2/ During the subject’s actual commission of an assault with a deadly weapon (ADW) with a vehicle, or
4/ When necessary to apprehend a person who has committed an ADW with a vehicle which the officer reasonably believes has resulted in serious injury or death.
3/ When necessary to prevent the escape of a person whom the officer reasonably believes has committed a felony through the use or threatened use of deadly force, or

b Vehicles other than motorcycles.
1/ To ensure an officer is not left in a vulnerable position, consideration should be given to the final resting place of the patrol car and its proximity to the violator’s vehicle prior to ramming.
2/ Ramming should not occur when either the pursued vehicle or the pursuing vehicle is traveling in excess of 35 miles per hour (mph).
3/ Officers driving patrol vehicles equipped with supplemental restraint system airbags should be aware of the airbag system and its operation.

45
Q

Therefore, the driver of an enforcement vehicle utilized during a high-speed pursuit or any other high-performance driving conditions shall notify their immediate supervisor. The supervisor ____ ensure the vehicle is placed out-of-service if the vehicle experienced any level of reduced brake efficiency or damage during the high-performance driving. It is not intended every vehicle driven under high-performance conditions be placed out-of-service. Personnel shall utilize sound professional judgment in making the decision to place a vehicle out-of-service. However, should any doubt exist, the vehicle ___ be immediately placed out-of-service.

A

shall,

shall

46
Q

(4) Warning shots ____ be fired except under the same conditions which authorize the use of deadly force against a human being and only if the firing of such shots is not likely to endanger innocent persons.

A

shall not

47
Q

(6) A pursuit ____ be initiated or engaged in while providing transportation for any person, other than sworn peace officers.

A

should not

48
Q

(c) Prior to acceptance of a pursuit from an allied agency, the field supervisor ____ determine the degree of CHP involvement, if any, and provide the appropriate direction. When appropriate, the supervisor or primary unit ___ attempt to cancel allied agency units if control of the pursuit is assumed by the CHP.

A

shall,

shall

49
Q

4 Hollow Spike Strip. Officers may elect to deploy the hollow spike strip to terminate a pursuit. Whenever possible, a supervisor’s permission should be obtained prior to deploying the spike strip. If the hollow spike strip is deployed, the following guidelines shall be followed:

a The spike strip shall not be used to stop ____, ____, or ____.

b The spike strip should not be deployed to stop the following vehicles unless the continued movement of the pursued vehicle would result in an unusual hazard to others.

A

motorcycles, mopeds, or similar vehicles.

1/ Any vehicle transporting a hazardous material as defined in CVC Section 2402.7.

2/ Any passenger bus transporting passengers.

3/ Any school bus transporting pupils.

4/ Any vehicle that would pose an unusual hazard to
innocent parties.

50
Q

HIGH-RISK STOP

a. Definition. The stopping of a vehicle under circumstances which give the officer reasonable cause to believe that any attempt to stop the vehicle will create an extraordinary safety risk. Examples (not all-inclusive) are:

A

(1) Vehicle displaying wrong plates, e.g., plate reported stolen, lost, junked, etc.

(2) Extreme attempts to avoid apprehension. (More than high speed; there must be action that indicates a willful attempt to evade.)

(3) Vehicle reported as stolen or connected to a crime.

(4) Nexus to weapons or a violent crime, e.g., “armed and dangerous.”

51
Q
  1. POLICY ON USE OF ROADBLOCKS. Officers ___ employ a roadblock except as permitted in this chapter for the purpose of ____ and/or ____.
A

shall not,

the apprehension of a fleeing felon and/or disaster relief

52
Q

b. Misdemeanor Apprehension. Roadblocks _____ be utilized when attempting to apprehend misdemeanants.

A

should not

53
Q
  1. REPORTING. The reporting procedures set forth in General Order 100.80, Notification and Report of Emergencies and Unusual Occurrences, ____ be followed when a roadblock is implemented.
A

shall

54
Q

(1) Care shall be taken that the subject’s neck is not jerked, twisted, pulled, or compressed when placing a spit sock over their head. A spit sock ____ be used on any subject who may have a ____ which may be exacerbated by its use.

A

shall not,

head injury,

55
Q

3 Ramming. Officers may elect to use a deliberate crash between a patrol vehicle and the pursued vehicle to terminate a pursuit. A supervisor’s permission should be obtained prior to the ramming or utilization of the PIT. For execution of the PIT method, see Annexes A and B. The guidelines below shall be followed:

b Vehicles other than motorcycles.
1/ To ensure an officer is not left in a vulnerable position, consideration should be given to the final resting place of the patrol car and its proximity to the violator’s vehicle prior to ramming.
2/ Ramming should not occur when either the pursued vehicle or the pursuing vehicle is traveling _____.
3/ Officers driving patrol vehicles equipped with supplemental restraint system airbags should be aware of the airbag system and its operation.

A

in excess of 35 miles per hour (mph)