GMP - Section 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the GMP frequency?

A

121.955

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2
Q

What are the responsibilities of GMP?

A

Transmit pre-flight data to aircraft
Check the accuracy of FDEs
Co-ordinate with other ATSUs as necessary
Issue airways or zone clearances
Regulate the flow of traffic to optimise runway utilisation and protect GMC

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3
Q

If a pilot reports that they are unable to receive the ATIS, what is the ATCO to pass them?

A

Runway in use
Weather
QNH
IRVR
Any other relevant information

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4
Q

What is the ATIS frequency?

A

136.525

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5
Q

How does Gatwick ATC confirm QNH with aircraft?

A

Confirm QNH with clearance or engine start approval
Broadcast QNH Changes
Set QNH on EFPS Status Bar and in FDEs

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6
Q

To avoid accidental pushbacks, what phraseology shall be used when transferring communication from GMP to GMC?

A

“[callsign], hold position, contact ground on 121.805”

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7
Q

GMP may approve start on stand provided what?

A

The phrase “hold position” is included
GMP verbally informs GMC of start prior to transfer

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8
Q

What are the contents of a clearance?

A

Callsign
Clearance Limit
Route
Squawk
Time Restrictions

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9
Q

What must happen to the FDE if the ATCO issues heading and level instructions to aircraft?

A

It shall be added in the HDG and ALT boxes

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10
Q

If ATC becomes aware of differing aircraft details from the FDE what must happen?

A

The pilot must be advised and the airline/GHA must correct it before the flight can depart.

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11
Q

Below what met values shall pilots operating VFR within Gatwick ATZ be notified?

A

Met Vis 5km
Cloud Ceiling 1500ft

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12
Q

Below what met values shall pilots operating SVFR within Gatwick ATZ be notified?

A

Fixed Wing Met Vis 1500m
Helicopters Met Vis 800m
Cloud Ceiling 600ft

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13
Q

If a jet requests clearance to depart from Gatwick VFR, what phraseology should be used?

A

“[callsign] leave the Gatwick Control Zone VFR to the (west/east/south) following the published Noise Preferential Route, not above 2400ft Gatwick QNH, squawk (3764/3765/3766)”

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14
Q

Can a jet leave VFR to the north?

A

No as there is no NPR

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15
Q

Can a jet be issued with a SVFR clearance?

A

No, as the requirement for them to operate not above 1500ft Gatwick QNH has been deemed by GAL to be non-compliant with the airport noise abatement procedures.

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16
Q

Can GMP approve exceedance of the 250kt limit?

A

No

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17
Q

What are the three elements of the SID designator?

A

Basic Indicator - Where the SID terminates
Validity Indicator - A number to identify which version is currently in use
Suffix - A letter to determine which runway the SID applies to

18
Q

Which runways do the SID suffixes apply to?

A

M - Runway 26L Conventional
P - Runway 08R Conventional
V - Runway 26R Convetional
W - Runway 08L Conventional
X - Runway 26L RNAV
Z - Runway 08R RNAV

19
Q

When can BOGNA/HARDY SIDs not be used on 26L?

A

2300 to 0559 Local

20
Q

When can SFD SIDs not be used on 26L?

A

0600 - 2259 Local

21
Q

Which departures require approval from TC prior to issuing start up clearance?

A

LTMA, Farnborough and Wessex Airfields

22
Q

Which departures require a release from TC SE before committing the aircraft to the Runway?

A

Heathrow
Northolt
City
Biggin Hill
Southend
Stansted
Luton

23
Q

Which departures require a release from TC SW before committing the aircraft to the Runway?

A

Farnborough
Wessex Group

24
Q

Are there separation restrictions behind a Heathrow/Northolt departure?

A

Yes. A minimum of 3 minutes separation shall be applied between a departure via this route and a succeeding DVR, MIMFO, ODVIK, FRANE or LAM SID

25
Q

Are departures to City, Biggin Hill and Southend given a clearance all the way to destination?

A

No. The clearance issued is “[callsign] cleared to DET on a FRANExx, squawk xx”

26
Q

What SID shall departures to Stansted or Luton be issued and is the clearance to destination?

A

FRANE, with clearance issued to destination.

27
Q

What SID shall departures to Bournemouth or Southampton be issued and is the clearance to destination?

A

IMVUR/NOVMA or SAM, with clearance issued to destination.

28
Q

What SID shall departures to Farnborough or Wessex Group be issued and is the clearance to destination?

A

IMVUR/NOVMA or SAM, with clearance issued to destination.

29
Q

Which frequency shall departures to Farnborough or Wessex Group be transferred after departure?

A

KK FIN unless coordinated otherwise.

30
Q

What is the MDI for KENET departures?

A

1 per 6

31
Q

Which frequency will TUGs freecall?

A

GMP. However, GMC if GMP is closed.

32
Q

Do towed movements require transponders?

A

Yes

33
Q

When is a non-transponding towed movement permitted?

A

Only if escorted by a transponding Ops vehicle.

34
Q

Which discreet SSR codes are available for Gatwick Tower and TC Gatwick to allocate?

A

Gatwick Tower : 3764 - 3766
TC Gatwick : 3750 - 3761

35
Q

What is the London Saturation SSR code and is it given to aircraft?

A

7100 and it is not to be given to aircraft in any circumstance, it is for information only. Aircraft must not be given clearance until a discreet SSR has been allocated.

36
Q

What is the tolerance of a CTOT?

A

-5 to +10

37
Q

Who should be called for a CTOT negotiation regarding a UK/Irish flight?

A

UK FMP

38
Q

Who should be called for a CTOT negotiation regarding an international departure?

A

NMOC

39
Q

If an aircraft is subject to MDI/ADI and a CTOT, can the CTOT be disregarded?

A

Not entirely. The aircraft may not depart before CTOT -5 but may depart after CTOT +10

40
Q

What does ARDS stand for?

A

Airfield Reasonable Departure Separation

41
Q

What is the clearance for an aircraft to Heathrow or Northolt?

A

26
“(Callsign) cleared to Heathrow/Northolt, after departure climb straight ahead to altitude 4000ft, at 2.3DME turn right heading 075 degrees, speed limit 220kts”

08
“(Callsign) cleared to Heathrow/Northolt, after departure climb straight ahead to altitude 6000ft, at 5DME turn right heading 090 degrees, speed limit 250kts”