Emergencies - Section 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Can requests for AFS attendance be made on the direct line to AFS?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is emergency action to be initiated by?

A

Any member of staff who is:
* In communication with the aircraft involved, or
* In receipt of information that such action is necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

For an inbound emergency aircraft, at what time should alerting action be carried out?

A

ETA less than 30 minutes
Right Away without delay

ETA more than 30 minutes
Alerting action carried out at ETA = 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the categories of emergency alert and what line they are called on.

A

Local Standby - Emergency Line
Full Emergency - Emergency Line
Aircraft Accident - Crash Line
Aircraft Accident Imminent - Crash Line
Aircraft Ground Incident - Crash Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

On which emergency lines do GCC and AFS read back?

A

Emergency Line - GCC to read-back

Crash Line - AFS to read-back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the procedure for initiating emergency action for an aircraft in comms with TC more than 10nm from Touchdown?

A
  • Details passed by TC GS to Tower Sup
  • Tower Sup responsible for initiating emergency action.\
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the procedure for initiating emergency action for an aircraft in comms with TC less than 10nm from Touchdown?

A
  • KK INT/FIN will alert AIR using the priority line
  • AIR responsible for initiating emergency action.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which types of aircraft incidents require mandatory alerting action, and which action do they require?

A
  • Hydraulic Failure - Full Emergency
  • Engine Failure
    More than 50% - Full Emergency
    Less than 50% Engine - Local Standby
  • Flight Crew Incapacitation - Full Emergency
  • Evacuation - AGI
  • Rapid Decompression - Full Emergency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the event of a 3 or 4 engined aircraft approaching to land with one engine unserviceable, which action is to be initiated?

A

Local Standby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In the event of an Aircraft Decompression, what word must be used when undertaking mandatory alerting action?

A

The word ‘Decompression’ must be included in the ‘nature of trouble’ category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should emergency aircraft be given a landing clearance if a go around would NOT compromise the situation?

A

4nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should emergency aircraft be given a landing clearance if a go around WOULD compromise the situation?

A

10nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If a MAYDAY/PAN aircraft elects to approach the non-duty runway, at what distance from touchdown must departing traffic be stopped?

A

20nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who is to be notified when an emergency aircraft is number 1 to land?

A

AFS (Fire 1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If smoke or flames are suspected during an aircraft emergency, what information should also be passed to the crew?

A

The surface wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If ‘fire’ is suspected by an ATCO, should the word ‘fire’ be used?

A

No. Smoke and/or Flames should be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an Off-Paved Area Incident and what alerting action should take place?

A

Off Paved Area Incident
* Aircraft touches down short of the runway
* Aircraft over-runs the runway
* Aircraft otherwise leaves the paved surface of the manoeuvring area

Alerting Action
Aircraft Ground Incident and off paved area incident must be included in the nature of trouble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the Rendezvous Points

A
  • RVP South
  • RVP Police Station
  • RVP North
  • RVP East
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For which emergencies are each RVP used for?

A
  • RVP South - Full Emergency, Aircraft Accident
  • RVP Police Station - As directed by Police
  • RVP North - AGI or if RVP South is unavailable
  • RVP East - Crash between the railway line and the motorway
20
Q

What is an accident outside the aerodrome boundary but within control of the AIR controller called?

A

Aircraft Accident Off-Aerodrome

21
Q

What is the procedure for an Aircraft Accident Within the Gatwick CTA/CTR but not under control of the AIR controller?

A
  • No CRASH call
  • AFS advised on direct line
  • TC shall initiate alerting action
22
Q

Who can upgrade an emergency category?

A
  • ATCO
  • Police Commander
  • AFS Officer in Charge
23
Q

Which is the only form of emergency that can be downgraded before an aircraft lands?

A

A Full Emergency to a Local Standby

24
Q

Do AFS need to be made aware of any dangerous goods onboard an aircraft experiencing an emergency?

A

Yes. Details of dangerous goods should be included in the ‘nature of trouble’ when initiating emergency action.

25
Q

If ATC become aware of an accident or incident involving radioactivity onboad an aircraft in the air, what is the lowest category of emergency to be initiated and what phrase shall be used?

A

Full Emergency and the phrase “Radiation Suspected” is to be used to indicate nature of trouble

26
Q

Which extra outside organisation should be notified of an Aircract Accident or Aircraft Accident Imminent?

A

Network Rail, so that they can isolate the power supply

27
Q

Can ATC initiate the cancellation of emergencies?

A

No, the Senior Fire Officer is responsible for the cancellation of emergencies

28
Q

After an emergency, when can aircraft be cleared for onward taxi?

A

When ATC have received confirmation from AFS/Ops that all vehicles and personnel are clear

29
Q

If the runway is closed due to an aircraft accident or incident, who’s responsibility is it to declare the runway re-open?

A

AOM only

30
Q

What is the Gatwick Fire Frequency?

A

121.6

31
Q

What is the international distress frequency?

A

121.5

32
Q

When should a Weather Standby be initiated?

A

Whenever weather makes landing or take-off difficult or difficult to observe, including LVPs

33
Q

Which information is required to request an ambulance?

A
  • Age
  • Sex
  • Chief Complaint
  • Level of Consciousness

Any extra information is helpful, such as seat number and medication

34
Q

What are the levels of disruptive passenger and how should these levels be spoken about with Police?

A
  • Level 1 - Disruptive behaviour
  • Level 2 - Physically abusive behaviour
  • Level 3 - Life-threatening behaviour
  • Level 4 - Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck

The threat level must be ‘decoded’ into plain English when speaking to the Police

35
Q

What does the term Act of Agression Ground mean?

A

An actual or suspected bomb, armed attack, the taking of hostages, and other acts of terrorism within the boundary

36
Q

What is Operation Cairn?

A

When the Police request a stop on all movements due to a police incident

37
Q

What are the AIR ATCO actions in the event of Op CAIRN activation?

A

AIR
* Arrivals inside 2nm Go Around
* Suspend all departures
* Advise aircraft to hold position and shut down
* Advise arrivals outside of 2nm that the runway is closed
* Co-ordinate with KK INT/FIN
* Inbound emergency aircraft can still land

38
Q

What are the GMC ATCO actions in the event of Op CAIRN activation?

A
  • Suspend all pushbacks
  • Instruct all aircraft, including those under tow, to hold position and shut down
39
Q

What are some examples of situations which could indicate an airborne security situation?

A
  • Squawk 7500
  • Selection of 7600/7700
  • Unauthorised SSR code changes
  • Extended use of IDENT
  • Unauthorised deviation from clearance
  • Refusal or inability to comply with ATC instructions for no good reason
  • Open RTF transmitter from the cockpit
  • Non-ATC related RTF transmission
  • Loss of RTF contact
  • Use of non-standard phraseology other covert attempt to highlight the situation
  • Notification from third party
40
Q

What is callsign Doughnut and what should happen?

A

What is it?
Category A Flight

What should happen?
Do not discuss purpose of flight over RTF
Inform the Supervisor Immediately

41
Q

What are the AFS standby positions for 08R/26L?

A
  • Western end of Juliet/Fire Training Ground
  • AFS Forecourt
  • Taxiway Tango
  • Holding Point M3 (08R only)
42
Q

What are the AFS standby positions for 08L/26R?

A
  • AFS Forecourt
  • Taxiway Tango
  • Fire Training Ground
43
Q

When do AFS require positive clearance when responding to an emergency?

A
  • To access the active runway
  • If the Senior Fire Officers deems it necessary due to visibility
44
Q

What is the RFF category of Gatwick?

A

10

45
Q

What are the ATCO actions in the event of depletion of RFFS?

A
  • Broadcast immediately on all operational RTF channels
    “Message from the Aerodrome Authority, Rescue and Fire Fighting facilities reduced to Category (x)”
46
Q

What are the AIR ATCO actions in the event of RFFS Cat 0?

A
  • Broadcast immediately
    “Message from the Aerodrome Authority, Rescue and Fire Fighting facilities reduced to Category 0, no rescue and fire fighting services are available”
  • Suspend Departures
  • Inform KK INT/FIN and Co-Ordinate Arrivals
  • It may be safer to allow an aircraft on short final to land
  • Emergency inbound aircraft must be advised of the reduced category but are allowed to continue
47
Q

What are the GMC ATCO actions in the event of RFFS Cat 0?

A
  • Broadcast immediately
    “Message from the Aerodrome Authority, Rescue and Fire Fighting facilities reduced to Category 0, no rescue and fire fighting services are available. All Stations Hold Position”
  • Suspend Movements
  • Inbound taxiing aircraft should be asked their intentions and are allowed to continue to stand