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MATS Part 2 EGKK > General - Section 1 > Flashcards

General - Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the forms of separation available to ATCOs?

A
  • Level (Vertical)
  • Distance (Horizontal)
  • Time
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2
Q

What are some examples of items that should be entered into the ATC Watch Log?

A
  • ATC systems Serviceability
  • Essential aerodrome information
  • Runway in Use
  • Routine Equipment Checks
  • Reportable events (Accidents, LOS)
  • Any unusual occurrences
  • Flow
  • Go Arounds
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3
Q

What should an incoming ATCO be aware of when taking over a position and how is this combated?

A

Errors and omissions by the outgoing ATCO
Combated by a thorough check of the hand-over form, EFPS display and other information sources

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4
Q

Describe the Gatwick ATZ

A

Surface to 2000ft AGL
2.5nm radius from the midpoint of the Main

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5
Q

Describe the Gatwick CTR

A

Surface to 2500 ft QNH within the area detailed in the UK AIP

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6
Q

Define the Gatwick CTA

A

1500 ft QNH to 2500 ft QNH within the area detailed in the UK AIP

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7
Q

What class of airspace are the Gatwick ATZ/CTR/CTA?

A

Class D

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8
Q

What is the frequency of Gatwick Ground?

A

121.805

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9
Q

What is the frequency of Gatwick Tower?

A

124.230

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10
Q

What is the frequency of Gatwick Delivery?

A

121.955

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11
Q

What is the frequency of Gatwick Director?

A

126.825

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12
Q

What is the frequency of Gatwick FIN?

A

118.950

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13
Q

Which surface wind is to be transmitted to aircraft?

A

The 2 minute average touchdown wind

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14
Q

If the touchdown wind for the Runway in Use is not available, what should be used?

A

Stop End Wind, and the words “Stop End” must be included in the transmission

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15
Q

Which wind does ADIS normally show?

A

2 minute average Touchdown wind

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16
Q

When will Variation be shown on ADIS?

A

If variation has been more than 60º over the last 10 minutes

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17
Q

When will a maximum wind be shown on ADIS?

A

When the max wind is 10 knots or more above than 2-minute average

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18
Q

When will a minimum wind be shown on ADIS?

A

When the min wind is 10 knots or more lower than 2-minute average

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19
Q

To which aircraft can the directional variation in wind be omitted?

A

At 5kts and below, directional variation can be omitted for arriving aircraft

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20
Q

When an accident or incident occurs at or near the aerodrome, what must happen regarding the met?

A

A SPECI must be issued.

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21
Q

What is the ATIS frequency?

A

136.525

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22
Q

Should any NOTAMs be included in the ATIS?

A

Safety Critical NOTAMS should be included in ATIS for 24hrs

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23
Q

Is a manual assessment of RVR available at Gatwick?

A

No

24
Q

When are IRVR values to be passed to aircraft?

A

Whenever an IRVR value is displayed

25
Q

Which IRVR values on the ADIS are to be routinely transmitted to Pilots?

A

Only those displayed in White

26
Q

Which IRVR values must be passed to aircraft when using 26R?

A

All Three

27
Q

If the Touchdown IRVR is unserviceable, which reading may be passed?

A

Midpoint, if the pilot is told that the touchdown reading is unavailable

28
Q

If the 26R touchdown IRVR fails, can the mid-point be used instead?

A

No, if 26R Touchdown IRVR fails the whole system is considered unserviceable

29
Q

What setting must the runway edge lights be at for the IRVR system to give useable readings?

A

10%

30
Q

When large scale diversions are immiment what will the AOM activate?

A

Airfield Disruption Cell

31
Q

What is the purpose of the Airfield Disruption Cell?

A

To determine the allocation of resources to minimise airport disruption

32
Q

Describe Plan 39

A

Mass Diversion Protocol.
Immediate and pre-authorised additional landing capacity for airlines and aircraft types at specified airports

33
Q

Which agencies have the authority to detain aircraft at Gatwick?

A

The Police
HM Customs
The CEO of GAL (who has authorised the AOM to act on their behalf)

34
Q

What are the callsigns of Redhill based Helimed and Police Helicopters?

A

Helimed 21
Helimed 60
Police 37

35
Q

How will Police and Helimed request routing southbound through Gatwick ATZ from Redhill when Redhill is Open and what will their clearance be?

A

Redhill ATC will request a clearance from the AIR controller

Clearance - North Terminal not above 1500ft VFR
AIR will co-ordinate with TC ASAP

36
Q

How will Police and Helimed request routing southbound through Gatwick ATZ when departing from Redhill when Redhill is Closed and what will their clearance be?

A

Helicopter crew will call the AIR controller directly on start-up via R/T, and request clearance to the North Terminal prior to lifting

Clearance - “Cleared into the Gatwick ATZ, VFR, Clearance Limit North Terminal not above altitude 1500ft. QNH xxxx”. AIR will co-ordinate with TC ASAP

37
Q

How will Police and Helimed request routing southbound avoiding Gatwick ATZ when departing from Redhill and what are the two routes available?

A

Clearance will be given by TC who will coordinate with AIR.

The two routes available are:
* Capel : to Capel on A24 not above 1000ft
* Lingfield : to Lingfield not above 1000ft

TC may give further climb, once the aircraft is south of the centreline

38
Q

How will Police and Helimed request routing northbound through the Gatwick CTR on return to Redhill and what are the three routes available?

A

Crew will request clearance from TC who will coordinate with AIR

The three routes available are:
* Capel : via Capel on A24 not above 1500ft (not above 1000ft through extended centreline)
* Lingfield : via Lingfield not above 1500ft (not above 1000ft through extended centreline)
* Through the ATZ

39
Q

Describe the Drone Flight Restriction Zones around Gatwick

A

The Drone Flight Restriction Zone is made up of two parts

Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ)
and
Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) - A rectangle 5km x 1km up to 2000ft AGL aligned with the runway centreline

40
Q

List the Categories on the ILS CSU

A

U3 - Localiser and Glidepath CAT III
2 - Localiser and Glidepath CAT II
1 - Localiser and Glidepath CAT I
2L3 - Glidepath CAT II, Localiser CAT III
1L3 - Glidepath CAT I, Localiser CAT III
L3 - Glidepath Off, Localiser CAT III
L2 - Glidepath Off, Localiser CAT II
L1 - Glidepath Off, Localiser CAT I
NC - Localiser and Glidepath NON CAT
OFF - ILS Not Radiating
MX - Part/All ILS on Maintenance
U/S - System Fault

41
Q

When would ILS Fluctations lead to the ILS being withdrawn?

A

After multiple reports over an hour or any consecutive reports

42
Q

What are the actions in the event of a Failure of VCCS?

A
  • EVCS should be used in the first instance for a very short period, then
  • Change headset
  • Switch VCCS channels
  • Change position
43
Q

What airfield actions is the Aerodrome Authority (GAL) Responsible for?

A
  • The closure and re-opening of the aerodrome
  • The withdrawal and return to use of the runway, taxiways, and associated lighting
  • The revision of declared distances
  • Runway, taxiway, and apron markings
  • NOTAM action to promulgate changes of the above
  • Snow clearing and SNOWTAM action
  • Bird Scaring
44
Q

When are Idle engine runs allowed?

A

24/7 During Main, Northern Runway and LVP operations

EXCEPT between 2200-0700 LOCAL on Pier 4, Pier 5 and stands 64-68

45
Q

When are high powered engine runs allowed?

A

Main and Northern Runway Ops
0700-2200 LOCAL Only

LVPs
NOT PERMITTED

46
Q

Where will high power engine runs usually take place on Main Runway Operations?

A

A2 (08R Ops)
J4 (26L Ops)
Yankee Plates (Max Code C)
Block 38S

47
Q

What are the restrictions for aircraft conducting an engine run at A2?

A

All Aircraft
08R Use Only

Rules for Code D and E aircraft
Positioned slightly north of the centreline
AN between N and A downgraded to maximum code D
Last available exit from 08R is BR
Alpha TUBS shall be selected

Rules for Code C Aircraft
Positioned on the centreline with no restrictions

48
Q

What are the restrictions for aircraft conducting an engine run at J4?

A

Code E Aircraft
26L in Use
38S Unavailable
Positioned slightly south of J centreline.
Last available exit from 26L is H
J TUBS shall be selected
Consideration must be given to Code F arrivals

Code D & C Aircraft
Positioned on the centreline with no restrictions

49
Q

Where will high power engine runs usually take place during Northern Runway Operations and what is the maximum size aircraft that can perform one there?

A

Yankee Plates
Max Code C

50
Q

What are the restrictions associated with an engine run on the Yankee Plates?

A

Maximum Code C
When engine run faces east, no aircraft movements are permitted between Y1 and the H6 pan

51
Q

Can Grass Cutting take place on the manoeuvring area during LVOs?

A

No

52
Q

Does Grass Cutting inside the CGA block the runway, and if so, what has to happen?

A

Yes, a “Runway Blocked” FDE must be placed in the runway bay to reflect this

53
Q

If a grass cutter wishes to cross an RET whilst remaining outside of the CGA, can they do so under their own lookout?

A

No, Grass cutters must obtain clearance to cross RET’s from AIR

54
Q

What shall ATC do upon receipt of information of a laser attack?

A

Anticipate the need for the pilot to adopt manoeuvres/operational techniques to minimise the impact on aircraft
Advise other aircraft
Inform the Police

55
Q

What happens during Drone State Green?

A

Nothing, this is the normal state

56
Q

Describe Drone State Amber

A
  • AIR shall pass traffic information to all aircraft on the Drone
  • AIR shall request a minimum arrival spacing of 6nm
  • AIR is not permitted to use RSVA
  • AIR shall only use time-based separation for departures
57
Q

Describe Drone State Red

A
  • Stop all Movements
  • A message shall be placed on the ATIS

MATS Part 2 EGKK (13 decks)

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