AIR - Section 4 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the AIR frequency and what spare is available?
A
124.230
Spare
134.230
2
Q
Who should be advised when AIR starts/stops using a non-standard frequency?
A
Redhill ATC
Aircraft via a message added to the ATIS
3
Q
What are the responsibilities of an Aerodrome Controller?
A
To issue information and instructions to aircraft in order to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of:
- Preventing collisions between:
(a) aircraft flying in/in the vicinity of the ATZ
(b) aircraft taking-off and landing
(c) aircraft and vehicles - Assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron
4
Q
What priority lines are available to AIR?
A
INT PTY
FIN PTY
TC STH PTY
5
Q
Which calls should be on a priority line?
A
Calls of an urgent operational nature that require an immediate response. The recipient should terminate any other telephone conversations
6
Q
When should FIN priority call AIR?
A
- Approach separation is being eroded within 10nm
- Emergency within 10nm
- Aircraft which requires a landing immediately after take-off
- Emergency evacuation of TC when normal notification procedures cannot be followed
7
Q
When should AIR priority call FIN?
A
- Go-around
- Emergency traffic
- Emergency separation between departures
- Landing aircraft inside 2nm not contacted AIR
- Emergency evacuation of VCR when normal notification procedures cannot be followed
8
Q
When should AIR priority call TC South?
A
Any situation AIR believes requires the immediate attention of TC South
9
Q
What is the maximum range that the ATCOs are permitted leave set on ATM?
A
30nm
10
Q
What labels MUST be displayed on the ATM?
A
Callsign
Level (including Mode S)
Ground Speed
11
Q
What may the ATM be used for at EGKK?
A
LLSC VODMAP TBM
Basic - LLSC - Landing, Longitudinal, SID, Circuit
1) Determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft
2) Assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft
3) To confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the SID issued
4) Provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach
Advanced - VODMAP - Validate/Verify, Overflying, Departure, Missed, Arriving, Pass TI
1) Validate SSR and Mode S of departing aircraft and verify Mode C read-outs
2) Monitor overflying aircraft identified by Approach to ensure that they do not conflict with arriving or departing aircraft
3) Establish separation between departing aircraft
4) Establish separation in the event of a missed approach
5) Assist in taking corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the minima
6) Pass traffic information
TBM - Training, Bandboxed, MATS 2
* The ATCO must have undertaken specified training
* The ATCO is only providing an Air Control Service and a separate GMC is being provided by another ATCO on a separate frequency
* The procedures are detailed in MATS 2
12
Q
What should the ATCO say when the Selected Level is seen to be at variance with an ATC clearance?
A
“(callsign), check selected level. Cleared level is (correct cleared level)”
13
Q
What is AFDAS?
A
Approach Funnel Deviation Alert System
14
Q
What happens on the ATM screen when there is a localiser alert on the AFDAS?
A
- Aircraft label causing the alert is highlighted in orange on the ATM and in the AFDAS localiser window
- The boundary of the approach funnel area being crossed changes to red
- The audible alarm is sounded
15
Q
What happens on the ATM screen when there is a glidepath alert on the AFDAS?
A
- The glidepath window is displayed
- Aircraft label causing the alert is highlighted in orange on the ATM and in the AFDAS window
- The glidepath limit being breached is coloured red
- The audible alarm is sounded
16
Q
What are the ATCO actions in the event of a localiser alert activated at 1nm or less from touchdown?
A
Instruct the aircraft to Go-Around
17
Q
What are the ATCO actions in the event of a localiser or glidepath alert activated more than 1nm from touchdown?
A
- Advise the aircraft of their apparent displacement
- Seek confirmation that the aircraft is aligned with or visual with the correct runway in use
“(callsign) you are left/right of the centreline. Confirm established on the localiser or visual with (runway in use)”
“(callsign) you are below/above the glidepath. Confirm returning to the glidepath or visual with (runway in use)”
18
Q
What are the ATCO actions in the event that an aircraft is outside the localiser tracking zone at 1nm or less from touchdown, OR the ATCO believes that the aircraft is dangerously positioned on the approach?
A
The aircraft must be instructed to Go-Around
19
Q
Which AFDAS alerts should be recorded in the Watch Log? And who else should be contacted after an AFDAS alert?
A
Those not caused by Go Arounds or overflights. Pilots should also be contacted for their comments/observations.
20
Q
What is RIMCAS?
A
Runway Incursion Monitoring and Collision Avoidance System
21
Q
What is RIMCAS configured to alert against on Main Runway Operations?
A
- MDS cooperative (transponding) targets
- Primary targets that enter the runway via a primary detection area
22
Q
What is RIMCAS configiured to alert against during Northern Runway Operations?
A
All MDS cooperative and non-cooperative targets
23
Q
When must Poor Visibility (‘Low’) be selected on RIMCAS?
A
- Main Runway Ops - During LVPs
- Northern Runway operations - When visibility is less than 1500m
24
Q
Which Arrival RIMCAS alerts are advisory and which are mandatory go arounds?
A
Good Visibility
Stage 1 - Advisory
Stage 2 - Advisory, but ATCOs discretion
Poor Visbility
Stage 1 - Advisory
Stage 2 - Go Around, except when caused by heavy precipitation
25
What actions come from Departure RIMCAS alerts?
Stage 1 - Advisory, No action.
Stage 2 - Advisory, action up to ATCOs discretion
26
What is the ATCO's response to an aircraft declaring a TCAS RA?
"Roger"
27
What is the width of both 08R/26L and 08L/26R?
45 Metres
28
What is the length of 26L/08R?
3317 Metres
29
What is the length of 26R/08L?
2561 Metres
30
At what distance is an aircraft or vehicle considered to have vacated 26L/08R?
When every part of the aircraft or vehicle is at least 77.5m from the runway centreline
31
When is an aircraft or vehicle defined as fully vacated 26R/08L?
When every part of the aircraft or vehicle is at least 60m from the runway centreline
32
When can a take-off or landing clearance be issued in anticipation?
When the preceding aircraft
* Has passed the runway edge markings
* Is continuing in the required direction
* Has NOT been instructed to stop before the applicable runway holding position
33
Describe the CGA?
Cleared and Graded Area
The area around the runway within which there must be no obstructions, and only frangible items, when aircraft are cleared to land or take-off, in case an aircraft runs off the runway
34
What are the two distances used for the CGA?
75m and 105m either side the centreline
35
If a vehicle has been cleared to operate inside the CGA, can the runway still be used for takeoff and landing?
No, a vehicle in the CGA occupies the runway and a runway blocked FDE shall be placed in the runway bay to reflect this
36
What must an ATCO ensure before a tug requiring an escort is cleared to tow from Hangar 6 to Y1 in order to facilitate a runway crossing?
A Leader Vehicle is at Y1 for the escort
37
What are the R/T procedures for a Leader Vehicle escorting a towed movement across the runway?
* Leader vehicles will take R/T responsibility
* Will call AIR for crossing once both are on the correct frequency and the tug driver has been briefed
* Callsign "Leader X + 1"
38
Can towed movements cross the runway from any holding point if the tug crew are crossing qualified?
No, all towed crossers must use the undershoot or Charlie. Otherwise an escort must be used
39
Are unescorted crossings allowed during Low Vis Safeguarding and LVPs?
Low Visibility Safeguarding - Yes
LVPs - No, all crossings during LVPs shall be under escort
40
Are multiple lineups from A and M allowed?
Yes if A is instructed to line up first, and M to line up behind.
41
Who shall the AIR ATCO inform when the runway becomes obstructed?
* FIN
* Sup
* GMC/GMP
42
What are the AIR ATCO actions in the event that an aircraft or vehicle is lost on the manoeuvring area?
If RIMCAS is serviceable
* Take-offs and landings may continue
* Runway inspection should be requested to confirm that the runway is not obstructed
If RIMCAS is not in use
* It must be assumed that the aircraft or vehicle is on the runway
* No take-offs or landings are to be permitted until it can positively be established that the lost traffic no longer presents a hazard to runway movements
43
What are the actions if a RET is unavailable?
* Advise landing aircraft
* Cancel lead off lights
* Select the TUBs
44
What are the actions in the event that GAL issue a short-notice runway closure?
* Stop Runway Movements
* Advise FIN and TC GS Airports reason and likely duration
45
Must ATCOs include the runway designator in RT transmissions involving the runway?
Yes
46
Should ATCOs include the holding point designator with all RT transmissions involving entering or crossing the runway?
Yes
47
When giving a conditional clearance behind a landing aircraft, what extra piece of information should be given about the landing aircraft?
The distance from touchdown
48
What should be taken into account when considering a runway change?
* Traffic already at the hold or taxiing out
* The CTOTs of departing traffic awaiting start
* Work in progress affected by a runway change
* FINs Traffic
49
Who makes the final decision regarding the tactical point in the traffic pattern at which the runway change occurs?
AIR ATCO after consultation with FIN
50
Which aircraft are allowed to make an approach to the non-duty runway?
Flight Category A
ILS/AGL flight checks
51
What actions should be taken when an emergency aircraft is positioning to land at Gatwick on the non-duty runway?
When the emergency aircraft is 20nm from touchdown
* Stop all departures
* FIN shall restrict all inbounds
52
Through which block on Taxiway Y is a movement considered a runway movement, and which holding points is it from/to?
Block 14
W1 - Y3
53
What are the only movements allowed through Block 14?
* Towed aircraft
* Vehicles
54
What are the rules associated with approving crossing through Block 14 on 26L?
* No aircraft can be cleared to land when an aircraft or vehicle is in block 14
* An undershoot crossing is not permitted when a 'Heavy' departs from M or a Code F from Alpha
55
What are the rules associated with approving crossing through Block 14 on 08R?
No aircraft can be cleared to land or cleared for takeoff when an aircraft or vehicle is in block 14
ILS
* ILS Arrivals cannot be within 15nm and on a heading that is closing or maintaining the 08R ILS centreline
* ILS Arrivals cannot be established on the 08R localiser unless they continue visually
* In LVPs, nothing can be in Block 14 when a departure is cleared for 08R takeoff until it is overhead the localiser
56
Are undershoot crossings allowed during LVOs?
Yes, however this should be avoided as this may downgrade the ILS from Cat 3 to Cat 1
57
An undershoot crossing of 26L is not permitted when which aircraft are departing?
* 'Heavy' from Mike
* Code F from Mike or Alpha
58
If AFS request to use the undershoot as a priority what should AIR do?
Afford AFS priority and initiate go arounds where necessary
Aircraft on an ILS to 08R without a landing clearance
Outside 4nm
May continue approach providing they are warned of possible ILS fluctuations
Within 4nm
Must requested to switch to a visual approach or be sent around
59
Can aircraft departing from 26L/08R be cleared for takeoff from anywhere on the airfield?
No, aircraft departing from 26L/08R are not to be cleared for take-off until they are south of 26R/08L
60
If whilst on 08R the ASMGCS is unavailable and AIR is unable to see the thresholds, what action must be taken to ensure aircraft line up with the main?
A leader vehicle is to be positioned in the Juliet Pan
61
Which departures are subject to prior coordination with FIN?
WIZAD/TIGER/DAGGA SID
Non-Airways Departures (inc VFR)
When required by INT/FIN
NPR Deviation
First departure after a runway change
Departures from a previously closed runway
62
When should AIR coordinate with a TC Sector?
* Whenever the AIR controller intends to depart successive aircraft with less than the specified separation
* When an aircraft wishes to deviate from its SID
* Aircraft types not included in the speed group table unless MATS1 separation is applied
63
What shall AIR coordinate with TC SE?
Release for destination London TMA Airports (EGLL, EGWU, EGKB, EGSS, EGGW, EGMC & EGLC)
64
What shall AIR coordinate with TC South?
Release for Destination Farnborough and Wessex Group Airfields (EGLF, EGHL, EGLK, EGTD, EGTF, EGVO)
65
With whom shall AIR coordinate weather avoidance?
* The appropriate TC outbound sector
* FIN if it will potentially conflict with their traffic (eg 40deg south of the runway centreline)
66
At what times may WIZAD/TIGER/DAGGA SIDs be used?
0700-2300 local only
67
What separation is required before aircraft are transferred to TC South or INT/FIN?
3nm and 1000ft, maintained or increasing
68
When can '5 miles in trail' be used?
* The ATM must be serviceable
* Pease or LGW radar feed must be selected
69
When a faster aircraft follows a slower aircraft, how does the speed table affect the departure separation?
1 minute is added for each speed group lower
70
When a slower aircraft follows a faster aircraft, how does this affect the departure separation?
Separation reduced to 1 minute provided that the following aircraft is 2 groups or more slower than the preceding aircraft.
71
Are there any time restrictions applied between WIZADs and other departures?
Yes, 3 minutes separation is required between a MIMFO and WIZAD and vice versa
72
What separation must be applied between to Heathrow and Northolt departures and other SIDS?
3 minutes separation is required between a Heathrow/Northolt Departure and any subsequent LAM, DVR, MIMFO, ODVIK or FRANE SID
73
When an departing aircraft has no SSR (primary only) what information must be passed to FIN?
Departure Time
74
What is the wake turbulence requirement between two Heavy departures at Gatwick?
None, Gatwick has a CAA exemption where no wake turbulence separation is required instead of the 4nm or time equivalent stated in MATS 1
75
On 26L which pairs of holding points are considered as 'same points' for the purposes of departure separation?
Any pair of Mike, Alpha and Bravo
Also Bravo and Charlie
76
On 08R which pairs of holding points are considered as 'same points' for the purposes of departure separation?
Any pair of Juliet, Golf and Hotel
77
If the departure frequency differs from published, what action should the ATCO take?
The non-standard frequency is to be issued by the AIR controller prior to line up
78
Can a conditional line-up clearance be issued on aircraft at oblique holding points?
No, an aircraft cannot be instructed to line up behind another aircraft they cannot see
79
In accordance with instructions given in MATS Part 1, Section 2, Chapter 1, Paragraph 16, cancellation of a take-off clearance after an aircraft has started its take-off roll should only occur when the aircraft will be in serious and imminent danger should it continue. Why is this?
The risks associated with abandoning a take-off increase with speed, especially above 80kts, whis is considered a high speed reject. 80kts is typically achieved by jet aircraft in 300m
As a guide the distance between Alpha and Bravo is 200m, and between Juliet and Hotel is 275m
80
Can AIR take any action that may affect the separation on final approach?
No, AIR must coordinate with INT/FIN first
81
What is the minimum radar separation on final approach and it's exceptions?
2.5nm
Except when
* Braking action is less than Good
* Runway is contaminanted
* AIR is unable to observe the runway or holding points visually/electronically
Then the minimum radar separation is 3 miles
82
Can RSVA be used as a subsitute for wake turbulence separation?
No
83
How will AIR continue to operate if the ATM is unserviceable?
*FIN will notify AIR of the inbound sequence
*Aircraft will report their DME range on first contact
84
By which point must all landing aircraft be issued with a landing clearance or a conditional landing clearance?
Start of the concrete
85
What are the requirements for a conditional landing clearance at EGKK?
SMOBSL
Sunny
Main
Observe
Braking
Separation
LVPS
Sunny - Daytime Only
Main - Runway 26L/08R is in use
Observe - Pilot of the next arriving aircraft will be able to observe the relevant traffic clearly and continuously
Braking - There is no evidence that the braking action may be adversely affected
Separation - ATCO can assess separation visually or by ATS surveillance system-derived information
LVPs - LVPs must NOT be in force
86
What is the distance rule for issuing a conditional landing clearance to a landing aircraft following another landing aircraft?
By the time the landing aircraft crosses the threshold,
The preceding landing aircraft
* Will have vacated the runway
OR
* Will be at least 2500m from the threshold (G1/B1)
87
What is the distance rule for issuing a conditional landing clearance to a landing aircraft following a departing aircraft?
By the time the landing aircraft crosses the threshold
The departing aircraft will be
* Airborne and at least 2000m from the threshold (FR/75m before C1)
* At least 2500m from the threshold (G1/B1)
88
What is the distance rule for issuing a conditional landing clearance to a landing aircraft following another landing aircraft if they are both propeller aircraft with MTWA not exceeding 5700kg?
By the time the propeller aircraft crosses the threshold
The preceding landing propeller aircraft will have
* Vacated the runway
* Will be at least 1500m from the threshold (ER/D)
89
On 26L and 08R approximately where are the 1500m, 2000m and 2500m distance minima?
26L
1500m - ER
2000m - FR
2500m - G1
08R
1500m - D
2000m - 75m before C1
2500m - B1
90
Can a conditional landing clearance be issued subject to a towed movement?
No
91
When must a helicopter be given a landing clearance or a land after by?
Before the start of the concrete
92
What additional instruction should be given to helicopters as part of a landing clearance?
A positive instruction on where to vacate the runway
93
At night how is it suggested that a helicopter is given a landing clearance and why?
At night helicopters shall hold at the North Terminal/Southern Maintenance Hangar until the preceding inbound has vacated or the preceding deparure is airborne, before being cleared to make an approach
Why
Because a land-after cannot be given at night
94
What information should be passed to FIN in the event of a Missed Approach?
* Callsign
* Missed approach instructions
* Whether the missed approach was initiated by the pilot or ATC
* Any other relevant information (e.g. runway blocked)
95
What actions must occur if an inbound aircraft diverts to Gatwick?
* Details recorded in the ATC Watch Log
* Send an Arrival message
96
After what time is the AIR controller to inform the Sup if an off-airways inbound aircraft has not turned up?
30 minutes
97
On Runway 26L, which aircraft vacating at which exits will cause ILS fluctuations for the aircraft behind?
All Aircraft
Juliet
Code E
Golf, Hotel
98
On Runway 08R, which aircraft vacating at which exits will cause ILS fluctuations for the aircraft behind?
All Aircraft
Mike
Code E
Bravo, Alpha
99
What are the minimum met conditions pilots can operate through the ATZ VFR?
Ground Visibility 5km
Cloud Ceiling 1500ft
100
Where are the two Gatwick VRPs?
North Terminal
Southern Maintenance Hangar
101
What is the standard altitude that VFR aircraft will be routed to the VRPs at?
Not Above Altitude 1500ft Gatwick QNH
102
What should happen if a VFR Transit aircraft loses visual contact with the surface?
AIR shall co-ordinate with KK INT/FIN
103
Can VFR aircraft be issued a VFR clearance to enter the ATZ if visbility falls below 5km and/or the cloud ceiling falls below 1500ft?
No, unless they are helicopters using the callsigns
* Police
* Helimed
* Rescue
* Electricity
* Grid
* Powerline
* Pipeline
104
Which criteria must pilots comply with if they wish to fly within the CTA/CTR but remain outside of the ATZ whilst the met is below VFR minima?
COCSIS
140kts or less
Fixed Wing met vis 5km
Helicopters met vis 1500m
105
Which are the squawks available to the AIR ATCO?
3764
3765
3766
106
What instructions should the ATCO give to VFR Transit aircraft routing inbound to Redhill after crossing?
"Route to Buckland and freecall Redhill Tower 119.605"
107
Can AIR permit an aircraft to fly within the Redhill LFA or buffer when Redhill are open?
No, AIR must co-ordinate with Redhill to allow VFR/SVFR aircraft into the Redhill LFA or Buffer. Otherwise aircraft are to be instructed to remain 1nm clear of the Redhill LFA
108
What is AIR to instruct all transit aircraft routing to the north after crossing if not routing to Redhill?
"Remain 1nm clear of the Redhill LFA"
109
How should a VFR/SVFR aircraft inbound to Gatwick be treated?
* Initially treated as a transit until transferred to the AIR controller
* KK INT/FIN will provide a gap and advise AIR
* In the gap, AIR will clear the aircraft in for an approach with approropriate wake turbulence caution
* Landing clx must be given before the start of the concrete
110
When should the runway and approach lighting for 26L/08R be displayed?
* Night
* Visibility is less than 5km
* The cloud BASE is less than 700ft
111
Should the RET lights be displayed at all times?
Yes, to minimise the chance of aircraft taking disused RETs
112
What runway edge brilliancy is required for the IRVR to work?
At least 10%.
113
What are the Hazard Beacons and when are they required?
* Lights situated on the high ground to the west of Gatwick
* Required whenever high intensity approach lights are required
114
What colour are the lead-off lights within the LSA?
Alternate Yellow & Green
115
What is the speed of a routine runway inspection?
40mph
116
How many runs should a runway inspection be completed in?
Preferably 1, however, a maximum of 3 wherever possible
117
Can a vehicle be visually observed to have vacated?
No, a vehicle must report vacated
118
What must be done for the final section of a routine runway inspection to be run against the flow?
* The vacating aircraft must be notified about the against-flow traffic inspection plan
* Vehicle must not be cleared onto the runway until the vacating aircraft has turned away from the centreline and is established on the runway exit
119
When are mandatory runway inspections required?
Any Incident involving
* Tyre Failure
* Structural Failure
* Engine Malfunction
* Birds
* Hydraulics
120
What actions should be taken in the event of a bird strike in the vicinity of the runway?
* Suspend Departures
* Request urgent runway inspection
* Assess whether further debris is suspected
* Inform pilots of arriving aircraft and ask if they are able to continue
121
What is a BOG/NOV split and when can it be used?
* BOGNA Departs first
* NOVMA is amended to stop climb 3A
* Separation reduced to 60 seconds between
* BOGNA must be asked to report level on departure/report passing 3A
* Aircraft can be transferred to London once BOGNA is through 3A
* Co-ordination must be completed with TC South first
* Only used in RSVA conditions
122
What is a LAM/IMV split and when can it be used?
* To be coordinated with TC SE
* LAM to climb SAH to 5A
* IMVUR flies normal SID
* Separation reduced to 60 secinds between
* Can be used at any time
123
What is the weather minima for a Runway Walking inspection?
Vis 6km
Cloud Ceiling 1000ft
124
What are the rules for allowing an aircraft to switch to a visual approach?
* Cloud ceiling is at or above the level of the aircraft
* Pilot reports visual reference to the surface can be maintained
* Reasonable assurance exists that the approach can be completed
* RVR 800m or more
125
What is the Missed Approach Procedure for Gatwick?
Climb straight ahead to 3000ft. Upon passing 2000ft or 1nm inbound, whichever is later, fly heading 178
126
