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Year 3 Exams > General mix (2) > Flashcards

General mix (2) Flashcards

1
Q

complications of MI

A
  • cardiogenic shock
  • mitral regur- flash oedema
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2
Q

fracture healing timings

A
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3
Q

Maintenance treatment of addisons

A
  • Lifelong replacement
    • Glucocorticoid: hydrocortisone, prednisolone
    • Mineralocorticoid: fludrocortisone -> do you don’t get hypoaldonsteronism
  • Education
    • Double dose of glucocorticoid at time of illness
    • Emergency HC injection if vomiting
    • Steroid card and bracelet
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4
Q

HF management: FAB SID

A
  • furosemide
  • ACEi
  • Beta blocker
  • Sprionolaction
  • Isomonitrate -look)
  • Digoxin – slow ventricles more blood pumped per beat
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5
Q

investigations for Pheochromocytoma and paraganglioma

A

24h urine metanephrines

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6
Q

medullary thyroid cancer causes

A

high calcitonin

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7
Q

when adding a 4th agent to control BP what do you need to think about

A

think about potassium

>4.5 - add alpha or beta blocker

<4.5 add spironolactone

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8
Q

tests before starting anti-hypertensive

A
  • U and E, urine dip/ ACR, cholesterol, HbA1c and ECG
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9
Q

IUD and emergency contraception

A

licened for either 5 days post UPSI or five days post earliest possible ovulation

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10
Q
A
  • Can presume reversible cause of AF
    • Due to CAP
    • No evidence of previous AF
  • Give amiodarone (rhythm control)
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11
Q

=Side effects of amiodarone

A
  • dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting.
  • pulmonary fibrosis
  • numbness or tingling in the fingers or toes.
  • painful breathing.
  • sensitivity of the skin to sunlight.
  • trembling or shaking of the hands.
  • trouble with walking.
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12
Q

management of AF >48 hours with no reversible cause

A

rate control

  • first line: B blocker (or cardioselective CCB)
  • CHADSVASC
    • >1
    • >2 female
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13
Q

management of AF <48 hours reversible cause

A

rhythm control: amiodarone

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14
Q

managemnt of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A
  • vagal manoevres
  • second line: IV adenosine
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15
Q

management of atrial flutter

A

same as AFG

  • radiofrequency ablation
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16
Q

manageemnt of Wolff-partinson white

A

IV amiodarone

  • radiofrequency ablation
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17
Q

when to DC cardiovert

A

tachycardias with haemodynamic instability

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18
Q

who not to give adenosine to

A

asthmatics

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19
Q

name 3 antiemetics

A

cyclizine

ondansetron

metoclopramide

20
Q

cyclizine

A

anti-histamine and anti-muscarinic

  • for vertigo and motion sickness
  • side effects: drowsniness e.g. antihistamine
21
Q

ondansetron

A
  • 5HT3 receptor antagonist
  • PONV, chemo induce NV or gastroenteritis
22
Q

metoclopramide

A

dopamine antognist

  • post op Nausea and motion sickness
  • beware bowel obstruction
23
Q

mid inguinal point vs midpoint of inguinal ligament

A

mid-inguinal point- femoral artery

midpoint of inguinal ligment- cough reflex

24
Q

brachial plexus

A

The brachial plexus is a network of nerve fibres that supplies the skin and musculature of the upper limb. It begins in the root of the neck, passes through the axilla, and runs through the entire upper extremity.

The plexus is formed by the anterior rami (divisions) of cervical spinal nerves C5, C6, C7 and C8, and the first thoracic spinal nerve, T1.

Acronyms

Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer- roots, trunks, divisions, cords, branches

Men Are Mean Really Usually- musculocutaneous, axially, median, radial, ulnar

3 Musketeers (C5, C6, C7)

2 Assassinations (C5, C6)

4 Mice (C6, C7, C8, T1)

5 Rats (C5, C6, C7, T1)

2 Unicorns (C8, T1)

25
Q

what do you need to give if someone has a compound fractures

A

tetanus jab

26
Q

which organism causes epiglottis

A

HiB

27
Q

gustiloo anderson for open fractures: who needs to be involved

A
  • Type 1: <1cm wound and clean
  • Type 2: 1-10cm wound and clean
  • Type 3A: >10cm wound and high-energy, but with adequate soft tissue coverage
  • Type 3B: >10cm wound and high-energy, but with inadequate soft tissue coverage
  • Type 3C: All injuries with vascular injury

A simple summary in how this can help to guide management is: 3A can be managed by orthopaedics alone, 3B requires plastics input, and 3C requires vascular input

28
Q

cervical screening

A

25-49 every 3 years

29
Q

breast screening

A

50-70 every 5 years

30
Q

colon screening

A

60-74 every 2 year

FIT

  • looking for human HB
31
Q

vascular screening

A

65th year

32
Q

FeverPAIN

A

fever

Purulent tonsils

Attending within 3 days

Inflammation (severe)

No cough

>4 points for PENICILLIN V

33
Q

most common thyroud cancer

A

papillary

34
Q

good prognosis for thyroid

A

papillary and follicular

35
Q

bad prognosis for thyroid

A

anaplastic

36
Q

which thyroid causes high calcitonin

A

medullary→ cause low calcium

37
Q

how to lose weight safely

A
  • reduce calories by 600lcal/day
  • 150 mod exercise a week
38
Q

how many units of alcohol

A

14 units over 3 days

39
Q

alcohol abstinence.. appropriate for

A

people with alcohol dependence

40
Q

alcohol moderation… appropriate for

A

for harmful drinking or mild dependence, without significant comorbidity

41
Q

CAGE questionaire

A

alcohol

  • Cut down
  • Annoyed
  • Guilty
  • Eyeopener
42
Q

hypokalaemia c=goes hand in hand with

A

alkalosis - think hyperaldosteronism

potassium moves into cells and hydrogen moves out

43
Q

SIADH treatment

A

tolvaptan (ADH antagonist) and fluid restrict

44
Q

how to look for evidence of recent Group A B-streptococcal infection

A

anti-streptolysin O titres

45
Q

bulk forming laxative

A

ispaghula husk

46
Q

stimulant laxative

A

senna

47
Q

osmotic

A

macrogel

movicol

lactulose

Year 3 Exams (25 decks)

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