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Year 3 Exams > General mix > Flashcards

General mix Flashcards

1
Q

is myocardial infarction pain gradual or sudden in nature

A

gradual in nature

  • example of sudden would be a pneumothorax
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2
Q

how to determine if there is left bundle branch block

A

V1 negative - W

V6 positive- M

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3
Q

how to determine if there is right bundle branch block

A

V1- M

V6- W

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4
Q

right axis deviation

A

IIII largest

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5
Q

left axis deviation

A

aVL largest

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6
Q

example of Trifascicular block

A

Prolonged PR interval + RBBB + left axis deviation

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7
Q

describe

A

saddle shaped

  • most sensitive for pericarditis
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8
Q

describe

A

PR depression

  • most specific for pericarditis
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9
Q

investigation for aortic stenosis

A

transthoracic echocardiogram

  • may show left ventricular hypertrophy
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10
Q

investigation for endocarditis

A

transosophogeal echocardiogram- better image of vegetation of valve

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11
Q

signs of pulmonary oedema of x-ray

A
  • Bat wing sign
  • Kerley B lines
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12
Q

infective endocarditis antibiotics: Initial blind therapy

A

Native valve

  • amoxicillin, consider adding low-dose gentamicin

If penicillin allergic, MRSA or severe sepsis

  • vancomycin + low-dose gentamicin
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13
Q

Native valve endocarditis caused by staphylococci

A

Flucloxacillin

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14
Q

Endocarditis caused by fully-sensitive streptococci (e.g. viridans)

A

Benzylpenicillin

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15
Q

PCOS

A
  • Multiple ovarian cysts
  • Infertility
  • Infrequent periods
  • Hyperandrogenism
    • Hirtuism
    • Acne
  • Insulin resistance
  • OBESITY
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16
Q

PCOS test finding

A

Hormonal blood tests typically show:

  • Raised luteinising hormone
  • Raised LH to FSH ratio (high LH compared with FSH)
  • Raised testosterone
  • Raised insulin
  • Normal or raised oestrogen levels

TOM TIP: The key thing to remember for your exams is the raised LH, and the raised LH:FSH ratio.

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17
Q

management of PCOS

A
  • weight loss
  • reduce risk of endometrial cancer
    • mirena coil
    • COCP
  • treat other symptoms normally e.g. for acne
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18
Q

chicken pox virus

A

varicella-zoster virus

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19
Q

HIV is what sort of virus

A

retrograde ssRNA

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20
Q

scabies manageemnt

A
  1. permethrin
  2. second line malathion
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21
Q

croup symptoms

A

barking cough- viral

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22
Q

epliglottis is

A

bacteria

  • a severe sore throat.
  • difficulty and pain when swallowing.
  • leaning forwards.
  • stridor
  • drooling
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23
Q

risks for GA: common

A
  • sore throat
  • PONV
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24
Q

risks for GA: significant

A
  • aspiration
  • dental injury
  • malignant hyperthermia
  • accidental awareness
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25
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

is caused by the constant pulling of the tendon in the knee. It’s seen in growing children and teens. This is an age where the bones are typically growing faster than the muscles and tendons. As a result, the muscles and tendons tend to become tight.

26
Q

what is erythema infectiosum

A

fifth disease

27
Q

fifth disease

A

slapped cheeked- parvovirus

  • lace rash on face
  • general illness
28
Q

viral wheeze management in children

A

salbutamol and prednisolone

29
Q

where are anal fissures most common

A
  • posterior midline of the anal canal.
30
Q

management of anal fissure

A
  • soften stool
    • high fibre
    • laxative
  • Topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is first-line treatment for a chronic anal fissure
31
Q

Sign of PE on ECG

A
  • Sinus tachy
  • RBBB
  • Right axis deviation
32
Q

where does the anaesthetic get injected for epidural

A

epidural space- outside the dura mater

  • An epidural involves inserting a small tube (catheter) into the epidural space in the lower back. This is outside the dura mater, separate from the spinal cord and CSF. Local anaesthetic medications are infused through the catheter into the epidural space, where they diffuse to the surrounding tissues and spinal nerve roots, where they have an analgesic effect. This offers good pain relief during labour. Levobupivacaine is often used, with or without fentanyl.
33
Q

germ cell tumours- most common

A
  • Seminomas
    • Remain localised- very good prognosis
  • Non-seminomatous GCTs (metastasise early)
    • Yolk sac tumours
    • Choriocarcinoma
    • teratoma
34
Q

Non germ cell tumours (NSGCT)

A

A

  • Usually benign
  • Comprise
    • Leydig cell tumour
    • Sertoli cell tumours
35
Q

criteria for inpatient admission- stones

A
  • Post-obstructive acute kidney injury- renal impairment
  • Uncontrollable pain from simple analgesics
  • Evidence of an infected stone(s)
  • Large stones (>5mm)
36
Q

definitive management of renal stones

A
  • Extracorporeal shock with lithotripsy
    • <2mm
  • Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
    • for larger stones e.g. staghorn
37
Q

adverse reaction to dialysis

A
  • septicaemia
  • endocarditis
  • thrombosis
  • AV fistula steal syndrome- causing ischaemic limb
38
Q

risk factor for ectopic pregnancy

A

previous pelvic surgery

PID

intrauterine contraceptive device

39
Q

FeverPAIN score

A
  • Fever
  • Pus on tonsils
  • Attends rapidly
  • Inflamed tonsils
  • No cough

>4 consider abx

40
Q

fungi which causes skin rash

A

Trichophyton rubrum

  • Terbinafine- topical
  • itraconazole
41
Q

CGA

A

comprehensive geriatric assessment

  • problem list
  • medication rveiew
  • nutritional status
  • functional capacity- ADR
  • social
  • home environemnt
  • mental health
42
Q

MUST

A

BMI

%weight loss

effective acute illness

43
Q

UTI in pregnancy

A

Cephalexin safe throughout

  • nitro- safe in first
  • tri- safe in third
44
Q

kawasaki

A
  • aspirin
  • do an echocardiogram
45
Q

features of insulinoma

A
  • Hypoglycaemia: typically early in morning or just before meal, e.g. diplopia, weakness etc
  • rapid weight gain may be seen
  • high insulin, raised proinsulin:insulin ratio
  • high C-peptide

diagnosis: 72 hour fast

46
Q

Blood test findings in acromegaly

A
  • high IGF-1
  • GH will not be suppressed after glucose
47
Q

low cortisol can be split up into

A
  • Primary cortisol insufficiency- Addisons → damage to the adrenal gland
  • Secondary cortisol insufficiency - Damage directly to the pituitary (not enough ATCH)
48
Q

Ottawa rules

A
49
Q

where does lumbar puncture go through

A

L3/L4

inserted through the dura mater and arachnoid mater into a region called the subarachnoid space i.e. deeper than an epidural. This is done to take a sample of the cerebrospinal fluid (that fills that space) for disgnostic purposes, i.e. to test it to find out what is wrong with a patient.

50
Q

Bronchiolitis- auscultation

A

fine inspiratory crackles

respiratory syncytial virus

51
Q

fine inspiratory crackles

A

pulmonary fibrosis

52
Q

coarse inspiratory crackles

A

bronchiectasis

coarse crackles and green phlegm

  • Moxella catarrhalis
  • Haemophalis influenza
  • Strep pneumonia
53
Q

diff between pneumonia and bronchitis

A

will not show up on x-ray

54
Q

management of bacterial bronchitis (although usually viral)

A
  • first choice- doxycycline,
  • second choice amoxicillin
    *
55
Q

Chlamydia psittaci

A

atypical pneumonia- parrott

56
Q

lyme disease treatment

A

doxyxycline

  • bulls eye rash- ticks
57
Q

Contraindication to lumbar puncture

A

raised intracranial pressure e.g. reducing GCS

58
Q

Suspected meningitis in the community- give

A

benzylpenicillin

59
Q

Empyema classic symptom

A

swing fever, complication of pneumonia

60
Q

heard failure on x-ray

A

Empyema – swing fever, complication of pneumonia

Heart failure on x-ray

  • Cardiomegaly
  • Alveolar oedema
  • Kerley B
61
Q

antibodies for hashimotos

A

ant-Thyroid peroxidase

62
Q

antibodies in graves

A

anti TSH receptor

Year 3 Exams (25 decks)

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