Gene Expression and Laboratory Techniques Flashcards

1
Q

What is the first step in oncogenesis?

A

Tumor initiation

involves changes that allow a single cell to proliferate abnormally; cell bypasses regulatory steps of cell cycle that normally prevent proliferation

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2
Q

occurs as a cell develops the ability to proliferate even more aggressively as its descendants are preferentially selected for and come to predominate the growing tumor

A

tumor progression

malignant cells often unergo mutations allowing them to secrete growth factors to stimulate their own growth

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3
Q

when cancer cells gain the ability to migrate to other parts of the body

A

metastasis

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4
Q

what enzymes in a cancerous body digests components of the extracellular matrix and favor metastasis?

A

proteases

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5
Q

promotion of growth of new blood vessels

in cancerous body, these vessels feed the growing tumor

A

angiogenesis

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6
Q

mutagenic compounds

A

carcinogens

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7
Q

____ is associated with mutations that occur by random chance, as a result of carcinogens, and/or the dysregulation of gene expression

A
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8
Q

Name the RNA

what type of RNA activity is abnormal in cancerous cells

A

miRNA

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9
Q

induces the growth of proliferative cells by stimulating te activity of proteins involved in growth and division

A

tumor promoters

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10
Q

genes that promote abnormal growth and proliferation

A

oncogenes

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11
Q

genes that function to prevent tumorigenic properties

A

tumor suppressor genes

mutation-induced dysfunction -> cell cannot protect itself

main functions: repressing expression of genes that are essential to cell cycle progression, ensuring cell responds appropriately to DNA damage at cell cycle checkpoints, repairing DNA damage, preventing changes in adhesion & proliferation involved metastasis

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12
Q

What are the two main genes involved in oncogenesis?

A
  1. oncogenes
  2. tumor suppressor genes
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13
Q

a cancer-causing virus

A

tumor virus

e.g Hepatitis B (liver cancer)

many tumor viruses contain retroviral oncogenes, which are reverse-transcribed into the DNA of infected cells. These oncogenes i.e RAS,RAF, and SRC often encode proteins that are key components of signaling pathways that stimulate cell proliferation. Tumor viruses can also hinder the correct function of tumor suppressor genes or promote the function of oncogenes

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14
Q

genes that code for growth factors, receptor tyrosine kinases, transcription factors, and regulatory GTPases. They function as oncogenes after mutation or inapropriately elevated expression

A

proto-oncogenes

turns into oncogene if it mutates in a way that increases its activity

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15
Q

TP53 is a ____ gene that encodes the p53 protein involved in responding appropriately to cell damage

A

tumor suppressor

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16
Q

the ____ gene is implicated in half of human cancers

A

TP53

encodes the p53 protein involved in responding appropriately to cell damage

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17
Q

the ____ genes are responsible for repairing and responding to DNA damage

A

BRCA

implicated in breast and ovarian cancers, have heridary bases

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18
Q

DNA sequence that upregulates

A

enhancer

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19
Q

DNA sequence that downregulates

A

silencer

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20
Q

regulatory proteins

A

transcription factors

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21
Q

covalent modifications of histones that upregulates gene expression

A

acetylation

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22
Q

covalent modifications of nucleotides that downregulates gene expression

A

methylation

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23
Q

non-coding RNA sequences that downregulate gene expression

A

siRNA, and miRNA

24
Q

what’s another name for a restriction enzyme

A

restriction endonuclease

25
enzymes that cleave DNA at specific recognition sites
restriction endonucleases
26
4 to 8 base pair sequences that are recognized by a restriction enzyme to cleave DNA. Have symmetry of palindromic sequences
recognition site
27
when a sequence of nucleotides of complementary strands of DNA read the same in both directions, either from the 5-prime end or the 3-prime end
palindromic sequences
28
describe blunt vs sticky ends in relation to restriction enzymes
blunt ends: when restriction endonucleeases cleaves a DNA sequnce vertically across the recognition site sticky ends: when restriction endonecleases cleaves a DNA sequence in a zig-zag fashion
29
What is the significance of restriction enzymes?
They cut DNA into fragments that can be "tied" back together by DNA ligase w/o necessariy respecting the original location of the sequences (recombination)
30
DNA molecules used to carry genetic material into a cell where it can be replicated or expressed. Used in DNA recombination processes
vectors | plasmids and bacteriophages
31
vectors in the form of viruses that infect bacteria. They strip out non-essential genes to carry recombinant sequences
bacteriophages
32
short circular DNA molecules that can replicate independently in bacteria
plasmids ## Footnote recombinant plasmids carrying human DNA inseerts can be introudiced into E.coli where they replicate along with the bacteria to yield millions of copies of plasmid DNA. The plasmid DNA can then be isolated, generating recombinant molecules containing a single fragment of human DNA that can be analyzed and further manipulated
33
Describe the steps in the DNA cloning process
1. Host plasmid is cleaved by restriction enzyme 2. DNA fragment of interest is inserted into plasmid 3. Plasmid is annealed by DNA ligase 4. Recombinated DNA is introduced to a bacteria 5. Bacteria carrying the plasmid are selected and reproduce 6. Bacteria replicate the plasmid and pass it on to their offspring, making copies of the DNA it contains 7. DNA/protein is eventually harvested and purified for use
34
antibiotic genes that can kill of bacteria cells that did not take up plasmids, so only cells with plasmid remain | during DNA cloning/purifying process
antibiotic resistance gene
35
genes that distinguish betwen recombinant and non-recombinant plasmids | during DNA cloning process
reporter genes ## Footnote these genes code for a product that creates a obvious phenotypic change (i.e change in color) and contains recognition sites for restriction enzymes that is used in restriction. Thus, E.coli with non-recombinant plasmids will express the reprter gene normally, but those with recombinant plasmids will not, **allowing them to be distinguished and subcultured**
36
# Name the process What does this image depict?
DNA recombination via plasmid vector
37
Explain why a researcher may want to use a bacteriophage instead of a plasmid as a vector
bacteriophages can be used for longer sequences. Plasmids generally contain 2-4kb of DNA, bacteriophages can contain up to 15kb
38
RNA sequences can be cloned through the generation of ______
complementary DNA (cDNA)
39
which enzyme can synthesize a DNA copy of RNA?
reverse transcriptase
40
Descripte the steps in RNA cloning
1. synthezize DNA copy of RNA (cDNA) via reverse trancriptase 2. cDNA is ligated to vector DNA
41
an organism whose genome has been modified
transgenic organism | for research purposes
42
organism in which one or more genes have been disabled
knockout organism | for research purposes
43
involves splicing a functional allele into the cells of a patient with nonfunctional alleles, devastating genetic disorders
gene therapy
44
special cells that have the ability to develop into many different cell types, from muscle cells to brain cells
stem cells
45
a laboratory method used to separate mixtures of DNA, RNA, or proteins according to molecular size and/or charge
gel electrophoresis ## Footnote note: nucleic acids have a high degree of negative charge, thus they will migrate from cathode and towards anode note #2: there is an inverse relationship between molecular size and distance migrated
46
molecular-weight size markers that can be run parallel to the DNA of interest in an electrophoresis experiment to identify the approxiate size of the DNA fragments analyzed
ladders
47
the ability of a single strand DNA or RNA to join with complementary base pair sequences
hybridization ## Footnote important for PCR, watch KA video
48
a specific DNA or RNA fragment that can be labeled radioactively. These are used to detect the presence of nucleotide sequences in analyzed RNA or DNA that are complementary to the sequence in the _____
hybridization probe
49
technology used to identify specific **DNA ** sequences
southern blotting ## Footnote [link](https://www.khanacademy.org/test-prep/mcat/biomolecules/dna-technology/v/southern-blot)
50
technology used to identify specific **RNA** sequences
northern blotting ## Footnote p. 118
51
a laboratory technique used to detect a specific **protein **in a blood or tissue sample.
Western blotting
52
microscope slides that are printed with thousands of tiny spots in defined positions, with each spot containing a known DNA sequence or gene
DNA microarray
53
Uses dideoxynucleotides to terminate synthesis ad elecrophoresis to analyze fragment size
Sanger sequencing ## Footnote [link](https://www.khanacademy.org/science/ap-biology/gene-expression-and-regulation/biotechnology/a/dna-sequencing)
54
a short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase
primer
55
used to make exponentially large number sof copies of DNA in a short amount of time using primers
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
56
What are differences between Sanger sequencing and PCR?
Sanger sequencing is used to generate every possible length of DNA up to the full length of the target DNA while PCR is used to duplicate the entire DNA sequence