B/B Review Flashcards

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1
Q

When the heart muscle contracts, pushing blood out

A

systole

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2
Q

Enzymes that catalyze the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides or single amino acids

A

protease

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3
Q

ssDNA is held together by what type of bond?

A

phosphodiester bonds

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4
Q

How is ssDNA denatured?

A

When the nucleases break apart their phosphodiester bonds that hold the individual nucleotides

note: Slight increases in heat would NOT break apart these bonds. They would for hydrogen bonds in dsDNA though

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5
Q

DNA renaturation involves the formation of base pairs. This is an [exothermic/endothermic] process

A

exothermic process

heat is released

forming bonds is ALWAYS exothermic

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6
Q

Bond breaking is an [endothermic/exothermic] process

A

endothermic process

because it REQUIRES energy

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7
Q

adds nucleotides to growing DNA chains and participates in DNA replication

A

DNA polymerase

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8
Q

True or False

Proteins lose 3D shape when they’re denatured, but not their amino acid (primary) formation

A

True

this breaks the hydrogen bonds

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9
Q

myelinating cells of the central nervous system (CNS)

A

oligondendrocyte

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10
Q

Signals from neurons that have myelin degredation would disspiate [faster/slower] than healthy neurons

A

faster

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11
Q

genetic regulatory system found in bacteria and their viruses in which genes coding for functionally related proteins are clustered along the DNA

A

operon

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12
Q

a region of DNA upstream of a gene where relevant proteins (such as RNA polymerase and transcription factors) bind to initiate transcription of that gene

A

promoter

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13
Q

a gene involved in controlling the expression of one or more other genes

A

regulator gene

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14
Q

genes that code for proteins and RNAs except regulatory factors

A

structural genes

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15
Q

a series of three genes in bacteria that produce the necessary enzymes to obtain energy from lactose.

A

lac operon

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16
Q

organic compounds without a benzene ring

A

aliphatic compounds

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17
Q

catalyse the transfer of phosphate groups from ATP molecules to a specific substate.

A

kinase

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18
Q

catalyze the decomposition of ATP into ADP and a free phosphate ion.

A

ATPase

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19
Q

use water molecules to dephosphorylate a substrate

A

phosphatase

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20
Q

Presence of the Effector
enables transcription

A

inducible regulation

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21
Q

Presence of the Effector
blocks transcription

A

repressible regulation

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22
Q

The Repressor binds
to the Operator
to block transcription

A

Negative Regulation

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23
Q

The Activator binds
to the Operator
to enable transcription

A

Positive Regulation

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24
Q

True or False

Cellular components like lymphocytes, antibodies, proteins, etc are a lot larger than ions and glucose. Unless otherwise stated, don’t assume they can diffuse through membranes

A

true

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25
Q

True or false

a single mutation event is almost always more likely than multiple events

A

True

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26
Q

having only one sex chromosome

A

monosomy

Monosomy’s are usually unviable; they tend to result in a plethora of health problems that cause infantile death

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27
Q

True or False

Multiple mutation events are just as likely as a single mutation event

A

False. A single mutation event is almost always more likely than multiple events

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28
Q

Paternal nondisjunction conferring two copies of a gene would result in what genetic condition?

A

trisomy

two copies from the father, and one from the mother

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29
Q

the failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally during nuclear division, usually resulting in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei

A

nondisjunction

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30
Q

another name for amino acids.

A

Monomeric proteins

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31
Q

the fatty acid chains of triglycerides contain ____ fatty acids

A

the fatty acid chains of triglycerides contain 18 fatty acids

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32
Q

glycogen breaksdown into glucose-1-phosphate and glucose

A

glycogenolysis

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33
Q

An increase in glycogenolysis would lead to a [increase/decrease] in glycogen levels

A

An increase in glycogenolysis would lead to a decrease in glycogen levels

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34
Q

used as an energy source during the elongation and translocation steps of translation

A

GTP

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35
Q

increases the MW of a molecule (because it is becoming a macromolecule of repeating segments)

A

oligomerization

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36
Q

First step in gene expression. It involves copying a gene’s DNA sequence to make an RNA molecule.

A

transcription

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37
Q

mRNA is “decoded” to build a protein (or a chunk/subunit of a protein) that contains a specific series of amino acids.

A

translation

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38
Q

The three steps of translation (in order) are…

A
  1. initiation
  2. elongation
  3. termination
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39
Q

in this stage of translation, the ribosome gets together with the mRNA and the first tRNA so translation can begin.

A

initiation

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40
Q

in this stage of translation, amino acids are brought to the ribosome by tRNAs and linked together to form a chain.

A

elongation

41
Q

in the stage of translation, the finished polypeptide is released to go and do its job in the cell.

A

termination

42
Q

small organic molecules that allow enzymes to be effective

A

coenzyme

43
Q

generally non-protein inorganic molecules that allow enzymes to be effective

A

cofactor

44
Q

Elements that can insert and remove themselves from the genome. In prokaryotes, they can act as a “stress response: system, allowing for rapid inactivation of genes in response to alteration in environmental conditions.

A

transposons

45
Q

Cell-surface components or appendages of bacteria that facilitate adhesion or adherence to other cells or to surfaces, usually in the host they are infecting or living in. ____ are a type of virulence factor.

A

surface adhesins

46
Q

an activator protein is unable to bind to the gene and no transcription takes place until an inducer binds to the activator protein

A

positive inducible operons

47
Q

allows filtration (movement from the circulation into the nephron tubule) of small molecules while blocking the filtration of plasma proteins)

A

glomerulus

48
Q

Name the kidney structure

reabsorption of water, which serves to concentrate the filtrate.

A

descending loop of Henle

49
Q

Capillaries that supply nutrients to the nephron. Not part of filtration process itself as they are not apart of the nephron

A

vasa recta

50
Q

True or False

Salt is PASSIVELY filtered into Bowman’s capsule at the glomerulus and does not require active sectretion to become a part of the filtrate.

A

True

51
Q

Amount of solute per kg of solution. requires reabsoprtion and secretion to be regulated and controlled by the kidney.

A

blood osmolality

52
Q

How is sugar filtered through the glomerulus and proximal convuluted tubule?

A

Sugar is passively filtered at the glomerulus and then ACTIVELY reabsorbed in proximal convulated tubule

53
Q

Occur when the binding properties of a macromolecule change as a consequence of a second. ligand binding to the macromolecule and altering its affinity towards the first, or primary, ligand. In Hb, the binding of oxygen to one of the subunits is affected by its interactions with the other subunit

A

allosteric effects

54
Q

If less water is reabsorbed through the loop of Henle, [more/less] water is eventually excreted in urine

A

If less water is reabsorbed through the loop of Henle, more water is eventually excreted in urine

One of many causes of this could be glucose being trapped in the nephron isntead of being reabsorbed

55
Q

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be [higher/lower] than the partial pressure of oxygen in the capillaries. This is b/c oxygen difussed from the aveoli to the alveolar capillaries

A

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli must be higher than the partial pressure of oxygen in the capillaries.

56
Q

begins when the morula develops a fluid-filled cavity, which by the fourth day of development becomes a hollow sphere of cells called the blastula

A

blastulation

57
Q

the avg molecular weight of an amino acid is…

A

110daltons

58
Q

How do you figure out how many amino acids are in a protein given the protein’s molecular weight?

A

Divide the protein’s weight by the avg weight of an amino acid (110) e.x a protein whose weight is 15 kDa / 110 daltons = 140 aa’s in the protein

59
Q

**β-adrenergic receptors are predominant postsynaptic receptors in which division of the nervous system?

A

The sympathetic nervous system

remember, adrenaline = epinephrine, a key neurotransmitter/hormone in the sympathetic nervous system

60
Q

The concentration of ligand at which half the receptors are occupied

A

Kd

Kd for receptors and their ligands is analogous to Km in enzyme-substrate interactions

61
Q

A competitive receptor antagonist (inhibitor) is something that….

A

Bind to the same sites on the receptor as a ligand and (unlie non-competitive and other allosteric inhibitors) can be displaced with suffiecient quantaties of ligand

62
Q

Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction by stabilizing the ____

A

transition state

63
Q

The balance point of catalysis. The state corresponding to the highest potential energy along this reaction coordinate

A

Transition state

64
Q

Acidic amino acids have ____ charges at physiological pH

A

Negative

Acidic amino acids are those amino acids that have a carboxylic acid group on their side chains at neutral pH, resulting in acidic properties in the molecule. The aqueous solution of these amino acids at physiological pH results in the ionization of the three functional groups present on the amino acids. This results in the** overall charge of -1.**

65
Q

The attractive or repulsive interaction between objects having electric charges

A

electrostatic interactions

aka Van der Waals

66
Q

A protein that is 118 amino acids long has how many peptide bonds?

A

117

There is always one less peptide bond than there is amino acids

67
Q

Process where a metabolite produced early in a pathway activates an enzyme that catalyze a reaction further down the pathway.

A

feed-forward activation/stimulation

Ex: pyruvate kinase being stimulated by fructose-1,6-biphosphate in glycolysis

68
Q

True or False

Hyperinflated lungs occur when air gets trapped in the lungs and causes them to overinflate. Hyperinflated lungs can be caused by blockages in the air passages or by air sacs that are less elastic, which interferes with the expulsion of air from the lungs.

A

True

69
Q

The diaphram has ____ muscle

A

skeletal

70
Q

The effector neurotransmitter of the diaphram is ….

A

acetylcholine

when you think muscle contraction NT, think acth!

71
Q

Organisms that undergo a fair amount of cellular activity must use a fair amount of ATP. What cellular process would best support this ATP production?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

whenever a MCAT question asks about an organism that is complex enough to have a good amount of cellular actrivity, think significant ATP levels, and think oxidative phosphorylation

72
Q

Produces essential precursor ribose-5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis, necessary for both DNA replication and RNA transcription

A

pentose phosphate pathway

73
Q

cAMP mediated protein kinase activity is increased when ____ are bound and activated

A

G protein coupled receptors

74
Q

Largest family of membrane proteins and mediate most cellular responses to hormones and neurotransmitters, as well as being responsible for vision, olfaction and taste.

A

GPCRs

75
Q

The most destructive mutations are ….

A

frameshift mutations

move stuff around

76
Q

mutation causes the substitution of one amino acid for another

A

missense mutation

does not always cause mutations, is possible though

77
Q

Involves a single alteration to the DNA base pair that results in the production of a stop codon, thereby terminating protein synthesis prematurely. Results in a shortened protein that may function, but also may not.

A

nonsense mutation

78
Q

Three-nucleotide deletion in the gene would result in the loss of one amino acid. Is this as devastating as a framseshift mutation?

A

No. A 3-nucleotide deletion could affect the three-dimensional structure of the resulting protein, but this is not as devastating an effect as is a reading frame shift

79
Q

Do intermediates count as products in pathways?

A

Yes

80
Q

True or False

If something in a reaction is reduced, then another thing is oxidized

A

True, this is why they are called reduction-oxidation reactions

81
Q

True or False

Mitosis involves double-stranded DNA breaks during recombination

A

False. MEIOSIS features recombination and crossing over, not mitosis

82
Q

What’s the mnenonic for southern, western, and northern blots?

A
83
Q

uses fluorescent DNA probes to bind to chromosomes and could detect a translocation by detecting a gene on an unexpected chromosome

A

fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)

84
Q

generally short peptides that act as a signal fragment that mediates the transport of proteins from the cytoplasm into the nucleus.

A

nuclear localization signal

85
Q

Rroteins involved in the process of converting, DNA into RNA; bind DNAs and must have DNA binding motifs

A

transcription factors

86
Q

What is the final acceptor in the ETC

A

oxygen

87
Q

When the electron transport chain is not available to make energy (ATP) the cells will rely solely on anaerobic respiration. What is another name for this process?

A

Glycolysis

This process needs to be amped up by the body increasing glucose consumption in order for ATP levels to be normal

88
Q

The process of separating compounds in a mixture by injecting a gaseous or liquid sample into a mobile phase, typically called the carrier gas, and passing the gas through a stationary phase

A

gas chromatography

shorter retention times = more volatile

89
Q

Long retention times on the size-exclusion chromatography column mean that the oligomers are [large/small], which also means they are more volatile. The converse is also true: short SEC retention times mean the oligomers are [large/small] and less volatile

A

Long retention times on the SEC column mean that the oligomers are small, which also means they are more volatile. Short SEC retention times mean the oligomers are large and less volatile

90
Q

Vitamin D functions to [increase/decrease] serum calcium and ____ levels when they are low

A

Vitamin D increases serum calcium and phosphate levels when they are low

91
Q

Antibodies are secreted by ____ into the blood and are classified as ____ immunity

A

B-cells, classified as humoral immunity

92
Q

T-cell mediated response is classified as ____ immunity. nnate immunity refers to the general, non-specific protection the body provides (e.g., tears, skin, complement system)

A

cell-mediated immunity

cell-mediated immunity involve the destruction of infected cells by cytotoxic T cells, or the destruction of intracellular pathogens by macrophages

93
Q

The term exogenous (wrt hormones) refers to any hormones entering the organism that are ….

A

not produced by the patient’s own endocrine glands.

94
Q

antigen presenting cells (APCs) express which class of MHC proteins?

A

Both MHC class I and II

95
Q

True or False

All nucleated cells express MHC I

A

True

96
Q

High citric acid levels suggest increased substrate supply (acetyl-CoA) to the Krebs cycle. This would [postively/negatively] regulate PFK in order to [slow down/speed up] glycolysis, thus [reducing/increasing] the availability of acetyl-CoA to the Krebs cycle

A

High citric acid levels suggest increased substrate supply (acetyl-CoA) to the Krebs cycle. This would negatively regulate PFK in order to slow down glycolysis, thus reducing the availability of acetyl-CoA to the Krebs cycle

97
Q

Low ATP/ADP and NADH/NAD+ ratios suggest that the energy levels of the cell are ….

A

Low

atp/adp ratio also determines if cell metabolism is predominantly oxidative or glycolytic

98
Q

RT-PCR is performed on RNA, to….

A

give information on gene expression

RT-PCR is reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction

99
Q

Each round of beta-oxidation produces….

A

1 acetyl-CoA, 1 NADH, 1 FADH2, decreasing the fatty acid chain length by two carbons