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LDCE MGMT > GeM, CPPP, eOffice, procurement > Flashcards

GeM, CPPP, eOffice, procurement Flashcards

1
Q

GAR stands for

A

GeM Availability Report (GAR)

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2
Q

For Custom Bid, the buyer has to generate __________ report

A

GeM Availability Report (GAR)

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3
Q

GeMARPTS stands for

A

GeM Availability Report and Past Transaction Summary

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4
Q

Payment for all orders must be processed through _________

A

GPA or PFMS only

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5
Q

the price available on GeM marketplace is not reasonable or is substantially higher than e-commerce sites or LPP, the GeM Portal provides tools for ___________

A

online bidding or reverse auction

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6
Q

Provide the necessary details of Eligibility Criteria which will be verified by the buyer at the time of
_________________

A

Technical Evaluation of the Bidders

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7
Q

Buyer can select the available mode of evaluation: ______.
1) QCBS
2) LCS

A

QCBS and LCS
(Quality-cum-Cost Based Selection and
Least Cost Bbased Selection)

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8
Q

QCB stands for

A

Quality-cum-Cost Based Selection

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9
Q

LCS stands for

A

Least Cost based Selection

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10
Q

EXT: four main methods are used by the clients for evaluating the proposals.

A

Quality Cost Based Selection (QCBS)

Quality Based Selection (QBS)

Least Cost Based Selection (LCS)

Fixed Budget Based Selection (FBS)

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11
Q

In e-Office, the different modules in FIle management system (FMS) are
1) Receipts
2) Files
3) Dispatch
4) Notifications, Settings and etc

A

all of them

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12
Q

In e-Office, once a DAK/ letter is diarized and a unique receipt/ diary number is allocated then it becomes
1) notification
2) dispatch file
3) Receipt

A

Receipt

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13
Q

In e-Office, once the unique number for the DAK is generated by the system, further
processing of the receipt can be ________ in nature
1) physical (manual)
2) electronic

A

either 1 or 2

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14
Q

In e-Office, It is used to track the set of action(s) taken on any receipt.
1) action
2) initiate action
3) send

A

initiate action
The receipt can be tracked even after it is put in file

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15
Q

w.r.t digital India, GATI stands for

A

Governance with Accountability, Transparency and Innovation (GATI)

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16
Q

e-Office is based on
1) Central Secretariat Manual of e-office Procedure (CSMeOP)
2) NIC Manual of e-office Procedure (CSMeOP)
3) Central Secretariat Manual of GATI
4) NIC Manual of GATI

A

Central Secretariat Manual of e-office Procedure (CSMeOP)

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17
Q

e-Office
1) initiated in 2009
2) developed by NIC
3) LDAP based authentication
4) role based authorization

A

all of them
LDAP: Lightweight directory access protocol

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18
Q

e-Office has ____ based authentication and ______ based authorization
1) role, role
2) role, LDAP
3) LDAP, role
4) LDAP, LDAP

A

LDAP, role
LDAP: Lightweight directory access protocol

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19
Q

In e-Office, DFA stands for

A

Draft For Approval

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20
Q

In e-Office, Each editing of the draft will
create _______ of the draft
1) a new version
2) a modified version

A

a new version

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21
Q

E-Sign: To sign the approved DFA with digital signature using ___________
1) Aadhaar authentication
2) DSC token device

A

Aadhaar authentication

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22
Q

In e-Office, noting includes
1) Yellow note
2) Green note

A

both

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23
Q

In e-Office, _________ is to add a draft note in a file for taking approvals from reporting before finalizing
1) Yellow note
2) Green note

A

Yellow note
Once the yellow note is confirmed, it changes to green note sheet.

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24
Q

In e-Office, ________ is the document in file on which all decision making/ major facts/ approvals are recorded
1) Yellow note
2) Green note

A

Green note
Anything recorded on green note of file stays permanently on file if the file is moved at least once

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25
Q

In e-Office, an explicit MIS-Report application has been integrated in the pre-existing e-Office application suite

A

T

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26
Q

In e-Office, ______ is an application in eOffice which helps building the organization structure and the employee data in the eOffice product
1) CBIC
2) EMD

A

EMD: Employee Master Details

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27
Q

In e-Office, Administrator at the entire eOffice instance level (CBIC)
1) Super Administrator
2) EMD Manager

A

Super Administrator
Super Administrator creates EMD managers

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28
Q

In e-Office, Administrator at the level of
the respective organization/department
1) Super Administrator
2) EMD Manager

A

EMD Manager
(also known as Local Administrator)

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29
Q

In e-Office, ________ is mainly responsible for creating the organization units (list of Offices/Sections), employees, assigning employees post and etc. to get the end-user accounts created in eOffice.

A

EMD Manager
(also known as Local Administrator)

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30
Q

Complete Tendering Platform (IPR with Govt.) adhering to guidelines/rules of Government as well as Multilateral Development Banks

A

CPPP: Central Public Procurement Portal

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31
Q

Procurement facility available for Global Tender Enquiry, Tender cum Auction, Quality Cost Based Selection, Non-Disclosure Agreement,
Two Stage Tendering and many more.

A

CPPP: Central Public Procurement Portal

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32
Q

All tenders published in the portal tenders.gov.in will appear in this _____ portal
automatically

A

CPPP: Central Public Procurement Portal

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33
Q

in CPPP, the assigned role can be for Tender Creator, Tender Publisher, Tender Opener, Tender Evaluator, Auditor, etc. At ePublishing stage, only ___ and ___ roles are required
1) Tender Creator
2) Tender Publisher
3) Tender Opener
4) Tender Evaluator

A

Tender Creator and Tender Publisher

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34
Q

Bid validity period implies that the Tender Inviting Authority will complete the ______ during this period
1) bid opening
2) tender evaluation
3) contract award
4) all the above

A

all the above

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35
Q

in CPPP the main tender document has to be a _____ file
1) PDF
2) JPG
3) DOC
4) RAR/ZIP

A

PDF file
(RAR / JPG files as Additional Documents for a given Tender)
Notice Inviting Tender in pdf is mandatory

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36
Q

In CPPP, ________ does not have any functionality of on line receipt of bids or evaluation
1) ePublishing
2 eProcurement

A

ePublishing
(eProcurement is the complete process of eTendering from publishing of tenders online,
inviting online bids , evaluation and award of contract)

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37
Q

____________ is the complete process of eTendering from publishing of tenders online, inviting online bids, evaluation and award of contract
1) ePublishing
2 eProcurement

A

eProcurement

38
Q

Government eMarketplace (GeM) has been merged with the ________ for the creation of a Unified Procurement System.

A

Central Public Procurement Portal (CPPP)

39
Q

Ministries/Departments, which are already carrying out e-Procurement through other service
providers or have developed e-Procurement solutions in house, may _____
1) stop the process and use CPPP
2) continue to do so

A

continue to do so, ensuring that conditions/guidelines provided in the above OMs of DoE / GFRs are fulfilled. They may publish tender related information on CPPP using XML data transfer

40
Q

Under the e-Procurement module, ______ is authorized to upload the results of the various stages of bid Evaluation and award of contract on the CPP Portal
1) Bid opener
2) Bid evaluator

A

Bid evaluator / Procurement Officer Evaluator

41
Q

Under the e-Procurement module, Minimum of __ Bid openers must be configured against each tender to avoid any issues in tender opening
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

A

4 Bid openers

42
Q

Under the e-Procurement module, it is suggested to have minimum ___ Digital Signature Certificates to start with
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

A

5 Digital Signature Certificates

43
Q

User can login to ePublishing module by
1) login ID & password
2) DSC Digital Signature Certificate
3) both

A

login ID & password
(DSC is required for e-Procurement module only)

44
Q

Under the e-Publishing module, _________ is responsible for filling up and uploading the details of a tender enquiry / corrigenda / award of
Contract on the CPP Portal
1) Tender creator/Procurement officer
2) Tender Publisher

A

Tender creator/Procurement officer admin
(Tender publisher publishes the data entered by Tender creator)

45
Q

__________ would manage user accounts of concerned user organisation in the eProcurement module
1) head of office
2) nodal officer

A

nodal officer nominated by the organization

46
Q

Each User Organisation must provide its organisational structure / hierarchy (of tender
floating locations only) for mapping under e-Procurement Module. The organizational structure of a User Organisation may be provided up to max __ levels
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

A

max 4 levels
- LEVEL 0 - Parent Ministry
- LEVEL 1 - Organization (Department/CPSE / Autonomous/Statutory Body)
- LEVEL 2 - Functional/ Zonal/ Regional Offices etc.
- LEVEL 3 - Division/ District level offices etc.
- LEVEL 4 - Sub-Division/Block level offices etc

47
Q

In CPPP, Procurement Officer Admin is same as
1) Tender creator
2) Tender Publisher
3) Tender Opener
4) Tender Evaluator

A

Tender creator

48
Q

Under the e-Publishing module, ________ is authorised to decrypt and download the bids
received from the bidders in response to a tender document
1) Tender Creator
2) Tender Publisher
3) Tender Opener
4) Tender Evaluator

A

Tender Opener / Procurement Officer Opener

49
Q

BSNL procurement is done by calling for limited tenders if the cost of the material being procured was within Rupees _______

A

Two Lakh
- through open tenders if exceeding Rupees Two Lakh

50
Q

requirement is of an immediate nature, to
ensure continued supplies, to place repeat orders up to 100%
1) Negotiation
2) Limited tender
3) Open tender
4) Expression of Interest (EoI)

A

Negotiation
Depending upon the total value of additional procurement, the negotiation committee can be constituted
- resorted to in exceptional circumstances

51
Q

to ensure that equipments are of sufficient quality level, only to those parties who have proven expertise
1) Negotiation
2) Limited tender
3) Open tender
4) Expression of Interest (EoI)

A

Limited tender
- the reasons for limiting the tenders to
proven suppliers needs to be brought out in the NIT itself
- should have the concurrence of Financial Advisor
and personal approval by the head of the unit

52
Q

open to all qualified bidders and where the sealed bids are opened usually in public
1) Negotiation
2) Limited tender
3) Open tender
4) Expression of Interest (EoI)

A

Open tender
- also called competitive tender or public tender

53
Q

to induct new technology/equipment/new service
and the specifications of the new technology/equipment/new service are not firmed up
1) Negotiation
2) Limited tender
3) Open tender
4) Expression of Interest (EoI)

A

Expression of Interest (EoI)

54
Q

bidder can request clarification on bid documents in writing or by FAX. purchaser should respond not later than _______ days prior to the date of opening of the Tenders
1) 7
2) 14
3) 21
4) 30

A

14 days
- Copies of the query (without identifying the source) and clarifications by the Purchaser shall be sent to all the prospective bidders who have received the bid documents
- Any clarification issued by BSNL in response to query raised by prospective bidders shall
form an integral part of bid documents

55
Q

At any time, prior to the date of submission of Bids, the Purchaser may modify bid documents by amendments
1) at its own initiative
2) in response to a clarification requested by bidder

A

any of them
- The amendments shall be notified in writing or by FAX to all prospective bidders
- these amendments will be binding on them

56
Q

The bidders (small scale units) who are
registered with National Small Scale Industries Corporation UNDER SINGLE POINT REGISTRATION SCHEME are exempted from payment of bid security up to the amount equal to their monetary limit

A

In case of bidders having monetary limit as “NO LIMIT”, the exemption will be limited to Rs.50,00,000/- (Rupees Fifty Lakhs) only

57
Q

The bid security shall be in the form of a bank Guarantee/DD issued by a scheduled bank in favor of the purchaser, valid for a period of ___ from the date of tender opening.
1) 60 days
2) 90 days
3) 180 days
4) 1 year

A

180 days

58
Q

The bid security of the unsuccessful bidder will be discharged/returned as promptly as possible as but not later than ___ days after the expiry of the period of the bid validity
1) 7
2) 14
3) 21
4) 30

A

30 days

59
Q

The successful bidder’s bid security will be discharged upon the bidder’s acceptance of the advance purchase order satisfactorily and furnishing the performance security

A

The bid security may be forfeited if the bidder fails to furnish performance security

60
Q

Bid shall remain valid for ___ from the date of opening of bids
1) 60 days
2) 90 days
3) 150 days
4) 1 year

A

150 days
A bid valid for a shorter period shall be rejected by the purchaser being non-responsive

61
Q

The purchaser may request the consent of the
bidder for an extension to the period of bid validity

A

A bidder accepting the request and granting extension will not be permitted to modify his bid.

62
Q

The bid should be submitted in two covers
1) original and four copies of the bid
2) __________

A

bidder‟s eligibility as per Clause 2

63
Q

The bidder may modify or withdraw his bid after submission. T/F

A

True provided that the written notice of the modification or withdrawal is received by the purchaser prior to the deadline prescribed for submission of bids

64
Q

A maximum of ___ representatives of any bidder shall be authorized and permitted to attend the bid opening
1) one
2) two
3) three
4) four

A

two

65
Q

After bid opening, the purchaser may ask the bidder for the clarification of its bid. T/F

A

True, However, no post bid clarification at the initiative of the bidder shall be entertained.

66
Q

In tender bid, If discrepancy between the unit price and total price, the _______ price shall prevail
1) unit price
2) total price

A

unit price

67
Q

Evaluation and comparison bids
1) inclusive of Levies & Taxes
2) exclusive of Levies & Taxes
3) inclusive of octroi / entry tax
4) exclusive of octroi / entry tax

A

1) inclusive of Levies & Taxes
4) exclusive of octroi / entry tax

68
Q

The officer nominated for the bid opening is normally _________ the officer who has to process the procurement case.
1) same as
2) different from

A

different from

69
Q

Bid opening officer is DE if estimated value is above ___ crore
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5

A

3 crore

70
Q

if the person representing the company is not satisfied with the decision of the Bid opening team, he/they can submit the representation to Bid-opening team ____________
1) immediately
2) within 24hrs
3) within 1 week

A

immediately
but in no case after closing of the tender process

71
Q

it should be ensured that the bid opening is completed on the same calendar day

A

True

72
Q

it should be ensured that the bid opening is completed
1) on the same calendar day
2) the next day to the bid opening
3) either 1 or 2

A

In case the minutes are issued the next day, the reason should be recorded by the Bid Opening Officer for examination and acceptance by his superior officer.

73
Q

preparation of the minutes can be on the next day to the bid opening, in case ____

A

the bid opening extend well beyond the closing hours of the office.

74
Q

w.r.t tender, CET stands for

A

Committee for Evaluation of Tender

75
Q

Depending upon the nature of the tender, officer(s) from TEC/Operation Branch could also form part of the Committee for Evaluation of Tender

A

True

76
Q

w.r.t tender, The technical evaluation and preparation of comparative statement of value of bids is to be carried out by the technical branch representative(s) on the CET.

A

Vetting of such comparative list will be done by the Finance representative on CET.
CET: Committee for Evaluation of Tender

77
Q

w.r.t tender, The CET should hold a preliminary meeting within ___ of handing over of the tender Documents
1) within 1 day
2) within 3 days
3) within 1 week
4) within 1 month

A

within 1 week
Only responsive bids should be evaluated in detail.
CET: Committee for Evaluation of Tender

78
Q

w.r.t tender, Commercial Evaluation is to be carried out by the MM Cell representative in CET

A

Vetting of the comparative statements of bids and commercial evaluation statement is to be done by the Finance representative on the CET
CET: Committee for Evaluation of Tender

79
Q

w.r.t tender, CET may finalize its recommendations within further ______.
1) within 1 day
2) within 3 days
3) within 10 days
4) within 1 week

A

ten days
CET: Committee for Evaluation of Tender

80
Q

w.r.t tender, the distribution of orders therefore should normally be restricted to the bidders who are within _________ of the lowest bid
1) 30 to 40%
2) 40 to 50%
3) 50 to 60%
4) 60 to 70%

A

50 to 60%
In case no mention is made in the documents then, it should be in the inverse ratio of their price quotation.

81
Q

The recommendations of the Committee for Evaluation of Tender are ___________.
1) internal document
2) external document

A

internal document
The confidentiality of the CET document from outsider is, therefore, to be maintained.

82
Q

The Chairman/Convener of the Committee for Evaluation of Tender should formally submit the report of the committee to the _____

A

MM Branch
The CET recommendations in duplicate should be received in MM Cell within 4 to 6 weeks of handing over the documents to the CET members.
The responsibility for ensuring these vests with Chairman / Convener of the CET.

83
Q

no post-tender negotiations with L-1, except in certain exceptional situations. This is insisted because

A

As post tender negotiations could often be a source of corruption.
negotiations would be permitted with L-1 bidder(s) for the supply of a bare minimum quantity.
The balance quantity should, however, be procured expeditiously through a re-tender, following the normal tendering process.

84
Q

time taken for according requisite approvals for the entire process of award of tenders does not exceed _____________ from the date of submission of recommendations.
1) 10 days
2) 15 days
3) 20 days
4) 1 month

A

one month
In cases where the proposal is to be approved at higher levels, a maximum of 15 days should be assigned for clearance at each level.

85
Q

Secondary user in CeM portal is created by
O NIC
O Primary user
O Secondary user
O Tertiory user

A

Primary user

86
Q

The generated contract can be verified with the
O OTP
O e-sign
O DSC
O All the above

A

All the above

87
Q

The upper limit for the Direct Purchasing method is Rs.
0 10,000
0 15,000
0 20,000
0 25,000

A

25,000

88
Q

Payment authority will be
O HOD
O Consignee
O Pay & Account officer or DDO
O Primary User

A

Pay & Account officer or DDO

89
Q

The buyer needs to upload additional documents related to the bid in the placeholder provided. The mandatory documents are
1) Scope of Work
2) Service Level Agreement (SLA)
3) Payment Terms
4) GEM Availability Report
5) Quantifiable Specification
6) Pre-Qualification Criteria

A

1 to 4 only

90
Q

If a bid does not have reference price from the market and buyer has to enter the estimated price for the bid

A

T

91
Q

The EMD and e-PBG details can be provided in GeM

A

T

LDCE MGMT (16 decks)

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