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LDCE MGMT > Contract Mgmt > Flashcards

Contract Mgmt Flashcards

1
Q

An agreement enforceable by low
1) contract
2) promise
3) guarantee

A

contract

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2
Q

A Person, firm, company (or any other legal person) who has submitted an offer in response to a notice inviting tender
1) contractor
2) bidder
3) supplier

A

Bidder

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3
Q

The bidder whose tender (offer) has been accepted, and who has entered into a valid agreement
1) contractor
2) bidder
3) supplier

A

Contractor

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4
Q

the individual or firm supplying the goods on contract
1) contractor
2) bidder
3) supplier

A

Supplier

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5
Q

all the equipment, machinery or other material which the supplier is required to supply under the contract
1) Work order list
2) Goods
3) Purchase order list

A

Goods

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6
Q

the intention of purchaser to place the purchase order
on the bidder
1) Purchase Order
2) Advance purchase Order
3) Work order
4) Contract

A

Advance purchase Order

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7
Q

the order placed by the purchaser on the supplier signed by the purchaser including all attachments and appendices thereto and all documents incorporated by reference therein
1) Purchase Order
2) Advance purchase Order
3) Work order
4) Contract

A

Purchase Order

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8
Q

The purchase order shall be deemed as _______
1) Agreement
2) Promise
3) Contract

A

Contract

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9
Q

the order issued to the contractor by the officer in charge of the
works
1) Purchase Order
2) Advance purchase Order
3) Work order
4) Contract

A

Work Order

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10
Q

the price payable to the supplier under the purchase order for the full and proper performance of its contractual obligations
1) Bid price
2) Bid Security
3) Contract Price
4) EMD

A

Contract Price

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11
Q

All the documents of 1.Specifications of the materials or work 2. Terms and conditions of the contract 3. Plans and detailed diagrams if any and other related documents forming part of contract
1) Bid documents/ Tender documents
2) Notice Inviting Tender

A

Bid documents/ Tender documents

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12
Q

any publication or notice issued to the public through website or otherwise expressing the intention of the corporation to get the supplies or work done and requesting the bidder to make offers
1) Bid documents/ Tender documents
2) Notice Inviting Tender

A

Notice Inviting Tender (NIT)

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13
Q

an amount required to be deposited by the bidder/ tenderer along with his offer as a security against his default of entering into contract
1) Security Deposit/ Performance Guarantee
2) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)/ Bid Security

A

Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)/ Bid Security

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14
Q

an amount fixed as security for ensuring the performance of the contract and compliance to the other conditions of contract by the contractor
1) Security Deposit/ Performance Guarantee
2) Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)/ Bid Security

A

Security Deposit/ Performance Guarantee

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15
Q

Procurement Policy Division (PPD) in Department of ________; Ministry of ______

A

Department of Expenditure; Ministry of Finance

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16
Q

Intended purpose of creation of Procurement Policy Division (PPD)
1) Centralization of procurement
2) Involvement in procurement processes
3) to encourage uniformity and harmonization in public procurement processes
4) All the above

A

3) to encourage uniformity and harmonization in public procurement processes by making policies.

Centralization of procurement or involvement in procurement processes is not the intended purpose of creation of PPD

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17
Q

____________ has been created to encourage uniformity and harmonization in public procurement processes by setting guidelines, dissemination of best practices, providing guidance, oversight and capacity building and issuing of procurement manuals.
1) PPD
2) GeM

A

Procurement Policy Division (PPD)

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18
Q

The primary objective of ____________ is to provide a single point access to the information on procurements made across various Ministries and the Departments
1) CPPP
2) GeM

A

the Central Public Procurement portal

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19
Q

The CPPP has ______ and________ modules
1) e-publishing
2) e-tender
3) e-procurement
4) e-bidding

A

The CPPP has e-publishing and e-procurement modules

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20
Q

It is mandatory for all Ministries/ Departments of the Central Government, Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) and Autonomous and Statutory Bodies to publish on the _______ all their tender enquiries and information about the resulting contracts
1) CPPP
2) GeM

A

CPPP

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21
Q

_________ provides access to information such as documents relating to pre-qualification, Bidders’ enlistment, Bidding documents; details of bidders, their pre-qualification, enlistment, exclusions/ debarments; decisions taken regarding
prequalification and selection of successful bid
1) CPPP
2) GeM

A

CPPP

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22
Q

GFR ___ (Rule ___) makes it mandatory for
Ministries/ Departments to receive all bids through e-procurement portals in respect of all procurements.
1) GFR 2019 (Rule 140)
2) GFR 2017 (Rule 160)
3) GFR 2017 (Rule 140)
3) GFR 2019 (Rule 160)

A

GFR 2017 (Rule 160)

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23
Q

To ensure better transparency and higher efficiency ________ has been developed for common use goods and services
1) CPPP
2) GeM

A

an online Government eMarketplace (GeM– an e-commerce marketplace)

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24
Q

The registration of suppliers on GeM is
1) online and automatic based on ID authentication
2) offline based on ID authentication

A

online and automatic based on ID authentication

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25
Q

Tools of ____________ are also available which can be utilized for the procurement of bulk quantities in GeM
choose correct item(s)
1) reverse bidding
2) e-procurement
3) e-auction
4) all of the above

A

1) reverse bidding
3) e-auction

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26
Q

The requirement of compulsory advertisement in Newspapers as per GFR 2005 has been dispensed with vide Department of Expenditure OM T/F

A

True

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27
Q

In case of orders for any additional quantities required to be issued as per tender provisions,
1) additional orders can only be placed strictly after prior approval of the competent authority with appropriate security cover
2) by covering approval
3) either 1 or 2
4) none

A

only 1
practice of seeking covering approval may be dispensed with

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28
Q

_________ may be taken as a security cover against the approved
additional work as per tender provision
1) Additional performance security deposit
2) Additional purchase receipt
3) Additional EMD deposit

A

Additional performance security deposit

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29
Q

Advance Purchase order APO is
1) only a letter of intent
2) contract
3) firm purchase order
4) promise of purchase order

A

1
APO is only a letter of intent and is neither a contract nor the firm purchase order and to be converted in the firm purchase order only through separate purchase order.

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30
Q

Two bid system (2 packets - _______in 1st envelope and _________ in
2nd envelope)
1) Price/ Financial bid, Techno-commercial
2) Techno-commercial, Price/ Financial bid

A

2
Techno-commercial,
Price/ Financial bid

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31
Q

_______________ shall not be accepted against requirement of security deposits like EMD, Performance security or any other security Deposit in BSNL tenders.
1) Corporate Guarantee
2) Government Guarantee

A

Corporate Guarantee

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32
Q

When one person signifies to another his willingness to do something, with a view to obtain the assent of another person, he is said to make
1) promise
2) proposal
3) consideration
4) agreement

A

proposal

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33
Q

A proposal, when accepted, becomes________
1) promise
2) proposal
3) consideration
4) agreement

A

promise

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34
Q

The person making the proposal is called________
1) promisor
2) promisee

A

PROMISOR (Contractor)

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35
Q

The person accepting the proposal is called _______
1) promisor
2) promisee

A

Promisee

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36
Q

When, at the desire of Promisor, the Promisee has done something or promises to do something, such act of promise is called________
1) promise
2) proposal
3) consideration
4) agreement

A

Consideration

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37
Q

Every promise or set of promises forming the consideration for each other is_________
1) promise
2) proposal
3) consideration
4) agreement

A

Agreement

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38
Q

Promises which form the consideration for each other are called_______
1) Reciprocal Promises
2) Mutual Promises

A

Reciprocal Promises

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39
Q

An Agreement enforceable by Law is a Contract. An agreement not enforceable by Law is said to be ______
1) proposal
2) void
3) consideration

A

void

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40
Q

INDIAN CONTRACT ACT, 1872 Applicable from______

A

the first day of September, 1872

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41
Q

The communication of a proposal is complete when __________
1) it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
2) when it is put in a course of transmission, so as to be
out of the power of the acceptor
3) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
4) when it comes to the knowledge acceptor

A

it comes to the knowledge of the
person to whom it is made

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42
Q

The Communication of an acceptance is Complete:-
– as against the proposer, ___________
1) it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
2) when it is put in a course of transmission, so as to be
out of the power of the acceptor
3) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
4) when it comes to the knowledge acceptor

A

when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be
out of the power of the acceptor

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43
Q

The Communication of an acceptance is Complete:-
– as against the acceptor, ___________
1) it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
2) when it is put in a course of transmission, so as to be
out of the power of the acceptor
3) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
4) when it comes to the knowledge acceptor

A

when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

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44
Q

A proposal may be revoked at any time before________
1) the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards
2) the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards

A

1
the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards

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45
Q

An acceptance may be revoked at any time before ________
1) the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards
2) the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards

A

2
the communication of the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards

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46
Q

The communication of a revocation is complete
– as against the person who makes it, ________
1) it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
2) when it is put in a course of transmission, so as to be
out of the power of the person who makes it
3) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
4) when it comes to the knowledge proposer

A

2
when it is put into a course of transmission to the person to whom it is made, so as to be out of the power of the person who makes it

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47
Q

The communication of a revocation is complete
– as against the person to whom it is made, ________
1) it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made
2) when it is put in a course of transmission, so as to be
out of the power of the person who makes it
3) when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
4) when it comes to the knowledge proposer

A

1
when it comes to his knowledge

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48
Q

Performance of the conditions of a proposal, or the acceptance of any consideration for a reciprocal promise which may be offered with a proposal, is _________
1) an acceptance of the proposal
2) a consideration of the proposal

A

an acceptance of the proposal

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49
Q

If proposal or acceptance of promise is made in words, the promise said to be ________
1) express
2) implied

A

Express

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50
Q

If proposal or acceptance of promise is made otherwise than in words, the promise is said to be ___________
1) express
2) implied

A

implied

51
Q

Two or more persons are said to consent when _______
1) they consider each other
2) they agree upon the same thing in the same sense
3) they agree upon the same thing in any sense

A

they agree upon the same thing in the same sense

52
Q

If a person promises to pay a debt which is time barred by Limitation Law, agreement without consideration is void.
1) valid
2) void

A

void

53
Q

It is a promise to compensate a person who has done something for the Promisor, agreement without consideration is void.
1) valid
2) void

A

valid

54
Q

It is expressed in writing and registered under the law and is made on account of natural love and affection between the parties standing in near relation to each other, agreement without consideration is __
1) valid
2) void

A

valid

55
Q

Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are ________
1) valid
2) void

A

void

56
Q

Promises bind the representatives of the promisor in case of death of such promisor before performance, ______
1) unless a contrary intention appears from the contract.
2) in all circumstances

A

a contrary intention appears from the contract.

57
Q

If it was not the intention of the parties that time should be of the essence of the contract, the contract (does not/does) become voidable by the failure to do such thing at or before the specified time; but the Promisee is (entitled/not entitled )to compensation

A

does not,
entitled
(If time is the essence of the contract, it can become voidable at the option of the Promisee)

58
Q

Notice under section 55____________ is must before granting any provisional Extension of Time at the request of contractor
1) before expiry of stipulated period
2) after expiry of stipulated period
3) not related to expiry of stipulated period

A

before expiry of stipulated period

59
Q

Such compensation (for breach of contract) is (not to be/to be) given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach.

A

not to be

60
Q

_________ has increasingly become a preferred option to settle commercial disputes globally for quick enforcement of contracts & settlement of monetary claims
1) Grievance redressal
2) Arbitration
3) Agreement

A

Arbitration

61
Q

Arbitration & Conciliation Act came into effect from ______ and was amended by Act 3 of ____. It was further amended by Act 33
of ________with effect from _________

A

25.01.1996, 2016, 2019 , 9th August 2019

62
Q

Arbitration & Conciliation Act refers Establishment of an independent body called _________
1) Department of Arbitration & Conciliation
2) Arbitration Council of India
3) Department of Public Grievance Redressal

A

the Arbitration Council of India

63
Q

Appointment of arbitrators by _________
1) complaining party
2) respondent
3) arbitral institutions
4) Arbitration Council of India

A

arbitral institutions

64
Q

The time restriction for arbitral tribunals to make their award within a period of _________ is removed for _________.
1) 6 months, domestic commercial arbitrations
1) 12 months, domestic commercial arbitrations
1) 6 months, international commercial arbitrations
1) 12 months, international commercial arbitrations

A

12 months, international commercial arbitrations

65
Q

“Arbitration” means
1) administered by permanent arbitral institution
2) other than administered by permanent arbitral institution
3) both
4) none

A

both
any arbitration whether or not administered by permanent arbitral institution

66
Q

An arbitration agreement must be in writing. T/F

A

T

67
Q

An arbitration agreement may be in the form of _____________ or in the form of _________
1) an Agreement Clause in the contract, same agreement
1) an Agreement Clause in the contract, separate agreement
1) an Arbitration Clause in the contract, same agreement
1) an Arbitration Clause in the contract, separate agreement

A

an Arbitration Clause in the contract, separate agreement

68
Q

The time limit to file written claim and the defense to the claim before an arbitral tribunal has been fixed as __________
1) three months
2) six months
3) twelve months
4) two years

A

six months

69
Q

A person of any nationality may be an arbitrator, unless otherwise agreed by the parties. T/F

A

T

70
Q

parties can agree for a sole arbitrator as arbitral tribunal. T/F

A

T
Only requirement is odd number

71
Q

Each party shall appoint one arbitrator. The two appointed arbitrators shall appoint the third arbitrator who shall act as ____________
1) the chief arbitrator
2) the presiding arbitrator
3) the head arbitrator

A

the presiding arbitrator

72
Q

As per Sec-11, an arbitrator should be
appointed within _____ days from the date of receipt of request
1) 15
2) 30
3) 45
4) 60

A

thirty

73
Q

Any arbitrator so appointed is required
to disclose in writing, in the form specified in the _____ Schedule for impartiality and ability

A

Sixth

74
Q

The arbitral tribunal shall not be bound by the
1) Code of Civil Procedure
2) The Indian Evidence Act
3) both

A

both

75
Q

The arbitral tribunal shall not be bound by the
1) Code of Civil Procedure
2) The Indian Evidence Act

A

both

76
Q

Parties are free to agree on the place of Arbitration. if no agreement, place shall be determined by _____.
1) Arbitration tribunal
2) Arbitrator
3) Toss

A

Arbitrator

77
Q

Arbitration: claimant shall submit __________ and respondent shall submit
_______________

A

claimant shall submit statement of facts supporting his claim and relief sought and respondent shall submit his statement of defense

78
Q

Arbitration: The respondent may also
1) submit a counterclaim
2) plead a set-off
3) either 1 or 2

A

either 1 or 2

79
Q

Arbitration: Either party may amend or supplement his claim or defense during the course of proceedings, unless __________

A

the tribunal considers it inappropriate to allow having regard to the delay
in making it

80
Q

Arbitral tribunal may impose costs including exemplary costs on the party
seeking adjournment _______
1) without any sufficient cause
2) with any sufficient cause
3) both

A

without any sufficient cause

81
Q

Arbitration: Parties ______ (shall be/shall not be) given sufficient advance notice of any hearing or inspection of records, goods or property.

A

shall be

82
Q

All statements, documents or applications made to Arbitrator by one party ______ (shall be/shall not be) communicated to other party.

A

shall be

83
Q

If without sufficient cause, claimant fails to communicate his statement of claim,
Arbitrator shall _____________
1) adjourn the Proceedings
2) terminate the Proceedings
3) continue the proceedings

A

Terminate the Proceedings

84
Q

If respondent fail to communicate his statement of defense, Arbitrator shall ___________
1) adjourn the Proceedings
2) terminate the Proceedings
3) continue the proceedings

A

continue the proceedings without treating failure in itself as on admission of the allegation by the claimant and shall have the discretion to treat the right of the respondent to file such
statement of defense as having been forfeited.

85
Q

If a party fails to appear at an oral hearing or to produce documentary evidence, Arbitrator may _____________
1) adjourn the Proceedings
2) terminate the Proceedings
3) continue the proceedings

A

continue the proceedings and make the arbitral award on the evidence before
it.

86
Q

If so authorized by the parties or all the members of the arbitral tribunal, questions of procedure may be decided by _____________.
1) any arbitrator
2) the presiding arbitrator

A

presiding arbitrator

87
Q

The statement of claim and defense under section 23 shall be completed within a period of _________ months from the date the arbitrator or all the arbitrators received notice, in writing of their appointment.
1) 1
2) 3
3) 6
4) 12

A

six months

88
Q

The award in matters other than international commercial arbitration shall be made by the arbitral tribunal within a period of ___________ months from the date of completion of pleadings.
1) 1
2) 3
3) 6
4) 12

A

twelve months

89
Q

Arbitration: While extending the period, if the Court finds that the proceedings have been delayed for the reasons attributable to the arbitral tribunal, it may order
1) reduction of fees of arbitrator(s)
2) substitute any or all arbitrators
3) dismiss arbitrator(s)

A

1 and 2
reduction of fees of arbitrator(s) by not exceeding five per cent for each month of such delay T/F

90
Q

Arbitrator may use _______ during arbitral proceedings to encourage settlement
1) pleading
2) mediation
3) conciliation
4) consolation

A

2 and 3
mediation or conciliation

91
Q

An Arbitration award on ______ shall have the same status and effect as any other arbitral award. T/F
1) settled terms
2) agreed terms
3) proposed terms

A

agreed terms

92
Q

Arbitrator ______ (may/may not) make an interim arbitral award.

A

may make

93
Q

Arbitration award shall carry interest at the rate of __ per cent higher than the
current rate of interest prevalent on the date of award
1) 1%
2) 2%
3) 3%
4) 4%

A

two percent

94
Q

Arbitration: the general rule is that the unsuccessful party _______ (shall be/shall not be) ordered to pay the costs of the successful party.

A

shal be ordered
or the Court or arbitral tribunal may make a different order for reasons to be recorded in writing

95
Q

The arbitral proceedings shall be terminated by _________
1) court proceedings
2) termination of arbitration
3) the final arbitration award

A

the Final Arbitration Award

96
Q

In accounting, reconciliation is the process of ensuring that __________
1) two sets of records are related
2) two sets of records are in agreement

A

two sets of records are in agreement

97
Q

A party, with notice to _________, may request the arbitral tribunal to correct
any computational error, any clerical or typographical errors or any other errors of similar nature occurring in the award
1) court
2) the other party

A

the other party

98
Q

A party, with notice to the other party, may request the arbitral tribunal to give an interpretation of a specific point or part of the award. If the arbitral tribunal considers such request to be justified, it shall make the correction or give the interpretation within ________ days from the receipt of the request and the interpretation shall form part of the arbitral award.
1) 15
2) 30
3) 45
4) 60

A

thirty days

99
Q

A party with notice to the other party may request, within ______ days from the receipt of the arbitral award, the arbitral tribunal to make an additional arbitral award as to claims presented in the arbitral proceedings but omitted from the arbitral award. If the arbitral tribunal considers such request to be justified, it shall make the additional arbitral award within ________ days from the receipt of such request
1) 15, 30
2) 30, 60
3) 45, 60
4) 60, 90

A

thirty days, sixty days

100
Q

The arbitral tribunal may extend, if necessary, the period of time within which it shall
1) make a correction
2) give an interpretation
3) make an additional arbitral award
4) any of them

A

any of them

101
Q

An arbitral award may be set aside by the Court only if__________

A

(a) The party making the application establishes on the basis of the record of the arbitral tribunal that—
(i) A party was under some incapacity; or
(ii) The arbitration agreement is not valid under the law
(iii) The party making the application was not given proper notice of the appointment of an arbitrator or of the arbitral proceedings or was otherwise unable to present his case; or
(iv) the arbitral award deals with a dispute not contemplated by or not falling within the terms of the submission to arbitration, or it contains decisions on matters beyond the scope of the submission to arbitration: or
(v) The composition of the arbitral Tribunal or the arbitral procedure was not in accordance with the agreement of the parties

102
Q

An application for setting aside may not be made after__________ have elapsed
from the date on which the party making that application had received the arbitral award or the case is disposed.
If the Court is satisfied that the applicant was prevented by sufficient cause from making the application within the period of three months it may entertain the application within a further period of __________, but not thereafter

A

three months, thirty days

103
Q

Where an application to set aside the arbitral award has been filed in the Court under section 34, the filing of such an application shall not by itself render that award unenforceable, unless ________

A

the Court grants an order of stay of the operation of the said arbitral award on a separate application made for that purpose

104
Q

An arbitration agreement _____ (shall be / shall not be) discharged by the death of any party thereto either, but ________

A

An arbitration agreement shall not be discharged by the death of any party thereto either, but shall in such event be enforceable by or against the legal representative of the deceased

105
Q

The arbitrator, the arbitral institution and the parties to the arbitration agreement shall maintain confidentiality of all arbitral proceedings except _____ where its disclosure is necessary
1) written proceedings
2) arbitration award

A

award

106
Q

The party initiating conciliation shall send to the other party ______ to conciliate
1) a written invitation
2) an oral invitation
3) any othe above

A

a written invitation to conciliate.

107
Q

Conciliation proceedings shall commence when _________
1) the other party accepts in writing the invitation to conciliate
2) the other party receives the written invitation to conciliate.

A

the other party accepts in writing the invitation to conciliate.

108
Q

If the other party rejects the invitation for conciliation, _________
1) first party can proceed with conciliation
2) there will be no conciliation
proceedings

A

there will be no conciliation
proceedings.

109
Q

If the party initiating conciliation does not receive a reply within _________ days from the date on which he sends the invitation, he may elect to treat this as a rejection of the invitation to conciliate
1) 15
2) 30
3) 45
4) 60

A

thirty days

110
Q

The conciliator is not bound by Code of Civil Procedure or the Indian Evidence Act.
1) Code of Civil Procedure
2) The Indian Evidence Act
3) both

A

both

111
Q

The conciliator may, at any stage of the conciliation proceedings, make proposals for a settlement of the dispute. Such proposals __________
1) should be in writing
2) need not be in writing

A

Such proposals need not be in writing and need not be accompanied by a statement of the reasons thereof

112
Q

The settlement agreement shall have the same status and effect as if it is _______ on agreed terms on the substance of the dispute rendered by an arbitral Tribunal under section 30.
1) an arbitral award
2) a court order

A

an arbitral award

113
Q

The conciliation proceedings shall be terminated

A

(a) by the signing of the settlement agreement by the parties on the date of agreement;
or
(b) by a written declaration of the conciliator, after consultation with the parties, to the effect that further efforts at conciliation are no longer justified, on the date of the declaration;
or
(c) by a written declaration of the parties addressed to the conciliator to the effect that the conciliation proceedings are terminated, on the date of the declaration;
or
(d) by a written declaration of a party to the other party and the conciliator, if
appointed, to the effect that the conciliation proceedings are terminated, on the date of the declaration.

114
Q

The parties _______(may/shall not) initiate, during the conciliation proceedings, any arbitral or judicial proceedings in respect of a dispute that is the subject-matter of the conciliation proceedings

A

shall not initiate

115
Q

What are the objective of contract labour Act
A) To regulate the employment of Contract Labour in certain establishments
B) To provide for its abolishment in certain circumstances and for matters connected therewith.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

A

Both A and B

116
Q

Which of the following entities the contract labour act applies to
A) To every establishment where 20 or more workmen are / were employed on any day of preceding 12 months as contract labour.
B) To every contractor who employs 20 or more workmen on any day of preceding 12 months as contract labour.
C) Both A and B
D) None of the above

A

Both A and B

117
Q

What is appropriate Government under Contract labour Act.
A) Central Government
B) State Government
C) Village Panchyat
D) A and B

A

A and B

118
Q

Who is principal Employer under Contract labour Act.
A) In r/o Govt.: Office / Department/ Local body , the head of the office or Department.
B) In a Factory: Owner or Occupier or a person named as Manager under Factories Act-1948.
C) In other establishments: Any person responsible for the supervision and control.
D) All of the above

A

All of the above

119
Q

A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is ____ to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfillment of the contract
1) entitled
2) not entitled

A

entitled

120
Q

The parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators, provided that
1) the number should be even
2) the number should not be even

A

the number should not be even.
(They can agree for a sole arbitrator also)

121
Q

The parties may, at any stage either before or at the time of appointment of the arbitral tribunal, agree in writing to have their dispute resolved by fast track procedure which involves ___ number of arbitrators

A

arbitral tribunal shall consist of a sole arbitrator for resolution of dispute by fast track procedure.
The award under this section shall be made within a period of six months

122
Q

The arbitral tribunal may dispense with any technical formalities, if an oral hearing is
held, and adopt such procedure as deemed appropriate for expeditious disposal of the case in fast track procedure

A

true

123
Q

The award under ‘fast track procedure’ shall be made within a period of ___ months
1) 3
2) 6
3) 9
4) 12

A

six months

124
Q

Where the time for making an application to set aside the arbitral award under section 34 has expired, the award shall be enforced under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (5 of 1908) in the same manner as if it were a decree of the Court

A

filing an application for ‘set aside’ shall not by itself render that award unenforceable, unless the Court grants an order of stay of the operation of the said arbitral award on a separate application made for that purpose

LDCE MGMT (16 decks)

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