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MCAT Study > FULL LENGTH REVIEW > Flashcards

FULL LENGTH REVIEW Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the only AA that isn’t optically active and why?

A

Glycine, because it doesnt have a chiril center

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2
Q

The rate determining step with be between?

A

Only two molecules

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3
Q

What is the formula for torque?

A

Torque=Frsin0

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4
Q

How do intermolecular bonds and intramolecular bonds affect solubility?

A

Higher solubility and higher melting point=higher intERmolecular bonds and lower intRAmolecular bonds

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5
Q

Entropy _________ when a solvation layer is formed.

A

Entropy decreases when a solvation layer is formed.

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6
Q

is denaturation endothermic or exothermic?

A

denaturation is endothermic, while renaturation is exothermic

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7
Q

Stomach secretion is regulated by?

A

the CNS and medulla oblongata

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8
Q

What is the function of HCL in the stomach, and what cells secrete these?

A

functions to turn pepsinogen into pepsin
makes ph~2
secreted by parietal cells

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9
Q

What secrets and what is the function of pepsin?

A

Secreted by chief cells

digests proteins within the stomach

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10
Q

What secrets and what is the function of gastric lipase?

A

Secreted by chief cells

digests lipids

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11
Q

What secrets and what is the function of intrinsic factor?

A

secreted by parietal cells

binds to vitamin B12 for absorption

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12
Q

Gastrin is secreted by?

A

endocrine cells

stimulates release of HCL

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13
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

% of total blood volume composed of red blood cells

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14
Q

What are the portions of the small intestine from stomach to large intestine?

A

DJILLEST
duodenum
jejunum
illium

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15
Q

The two major sites for nutrient absorption in the small intestine are?

A

duodenum and jejunum

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16
Q

the arterial end of a capillary has ____ blood pressure and _____ osmosis, while the venous end of a capillary has ____ blood pressure and _____ osmosis.

A

the arterial end of a capillary has high blood pressure and low osmosis, while the venous end of a capillary has low blood pressure and high osmosis.

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17
Q

The renin-angeotensin-aldosterone mechanism does what?

A

regulated blood pressure by changing peripherial resistance and blood volume

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18
Q

The renin-angeotensin-aldosterone mechanism is stimulated by?

A

low blood flow

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19
Q

A high Km and non-altered Vmax indicates what type of inhibition?

A

competitive

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20
Q

Which type of enzyme inhibition binds at active site?

A

competitive

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21
Q

Competitive inhibition can be overcome by?

A

adding more substrate

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22
Q

A non-altered Km and low Vmax indicates what type of inhibition?

A

Non-competitive

Enzyme binds to both enzyme and enzyme substrate complex

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23
Q

Where do non-competitive inhibitors bind?

A

the allosteric site

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24
Q

A lower Vmax, and high Km if bound to enzyme but low Km if bound to substrate enzyme complex is what type of inhibtion?

A

Mixed inhibition

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25
Q

Where do mixed inhibitiors bind?

A

the allosteric site

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26
Q

A low Km and Low vmax indicates?

A

uncompetitive inhibition

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27
Q

Uncompetitive inhibitors bind?

A

to ES complex and allosteric site

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28
Q

All autosomal cells are _________, while all eurkaryotic cells are ________.

A

All autosomal cells are diploid (containing all chromosomes) but all eukaryotic cells are haploid (containing 1/2 chromosomes before fertilization)

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29
Q

The net products of Glycolysis are?

A

2 NADH and 2 ATP

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30
Q

The final and net products of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex are?

A

1 NADH per mol of glucose

2 NADH net

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31
Q

The final and net products of the TCA cycle are?

A

3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 GTP per mol of glucose

NET: 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, and 2 GTP

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32
Q

How many ATP do you get from 1 mol of NADH?

A

2.5 ATP per mol of NADH

NET after TCA: 10 mol NADH=25 ATP

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33
Q

How many ATP do you get from 1 mol of FADH2?

A

1.5 ATP per mol of FADH

NET after TCA: 2 mol FADH2=3 ATP

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34
Q

Colustrum, which is milk produced pre-milk let down is high in _________ but low in _______.

A

High in protein but low in carbohydrates

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35
Q

What level of protein structure contains the active site for enzymes?

A

Tertiary structure

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36
Q

While Tertiary structure in monomeric, quaternary structure is?

A

polymeric

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37
Q

Nuclear splicesomes remove _______ and can?

A

remove introns, and therefor can process transcripts several different ways

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38
Q

Exons are?

A

the sequence that codes for ultimate protein

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39
Q

How do nuclear spliceosomes work?

A

they bind on either side of intron, looping intron into a circle, then cleaves it off while lipases bind two sides of the transcript back together

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40
Q

The 5’ cap is made of?

A

Phosphates

FIVE PRIME=FOSPHATE

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41
Q

The 3’ poly a tail is made of?

A

~250 Polyadenated adenine bases to protect and aid in transcript termination

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42
Q

If a genetic disorder is described as hemizygous in males, it means it is?

A

An x-linked disorder-male only has one X chromosome therefor hemi-zygous

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43
Q

Where are the ‘normal gut flora’ located?

A

the cecum where small and large intestine meet

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44
Q

What are the three subunits of a Gprotien?

A

alpha, beta and gamma

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45
Q

In the inactive state of a G-protein, what is bound to the alpha subunit?

A

GDP

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46
Q

When a hormone binds to a receptor that uses secondary messengers like G proteins, what occurs?

A

The receptor undergoes a conformational change, and G-protein binds with receptor.

This binding causes GDP to release and GTP binds

The alpha subunit then seperates from beta and gamma

Alpha subunit then can alter activity of molecules inside the cell (cellular response to hormone)

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47
Q

How is a G-protein deactivated?

A

The phosphorylation of GTP on the alpha subunit causes it to return with the beta and gamma subunits.

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48
Q

In addition to altering cellular activitied, some activated alpha subunits can?

A

open or close ion channels

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49
Q

What are some examples of G-protein hormones?

A

LH, FSH, TSH, Adrenocorticotropin, Oxytocin, ADH, Calictonin, parathyroid hormone, glucagon, epinephrine and norepinenphrine

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50
Q

What is the function of adenylate cyclase?

A

Converts ATP to cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and 2 organic phosphate groups

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51
Q

What is the function of cAMP?

A

intercellular mediator that binds to protein kinases and activates them.

***kinases regulate the activity of other enzymes by attaching phosphates to them.

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52
Q

What breaks down cAMP?

A

Phosphoesterase

breaks down cAMP to just AMP

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53
Q

An example of a cAMP activator is?

A

Gluacagon-uses cAMP to increase glucose release in liver

LH-uses cAMP to stimulate ovulation

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54
Q

What is always the last step in DNA repair?

A

a DNA ligase to to re-link repaired section

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55
Q

Pyrimidines are?

A

CT

CTs are PYROS

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56
Q

Purines are?

A

A G

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57
Q

A transition mutation is when?

A

when a purine is substituted for a purine
or
pyrimidine with pyrimidine

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58
Q

A Transversion mutation is when?

A

when a purine is substituted for a pyrimidine or vice versa

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59
Q

Silent mutations are?

A

Mutations that have no effect due to ‘wobble’ or because of multiple codons for AA

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60
Q

Nonsense mutations are?

A

produce a stop codon prematurely

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61
Q

Missense mutations are?

A

mutation that causes codon to code for a different amino acid

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62
Q

Deletion mutation are serious when?

A

if 1 or 2 base pairs are lost and it causes a frameshift mutation.

if 3 are lost it leaves reading frame intact

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63
Q

What are the 3 stop codons?

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

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64
Q

How many ATP are produced per molecule of Acetyl Coa in the TCA cycle?

A

10 ATP

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65
Q

Beta oxidation occurs in the?

A

Mitochondrial matrix

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66
Q

Activation of FA for transport to the Mitochondrial matrix involves two enzymes, what are they?

A

Acyl-Synthetase and Carnitine Acyl-Transferase 1

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67
Q

Carnitine Acyl-Transferase 2 does what?

A

It removes the carnitine from the Acyl-CoA once inside the mitochondrial matrix

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68
Q

Acyl-Carnitine Translocase does what?

A

Facilitates the import of Acyl-Carnitine and export of carnitine-OH

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69
Q

The regulation of B oxidation is which enzyme?

What is it’s inhibitor?

A

Carnitine Acyl Transferase 1

Malonyl-CoA (from FA syn) is allosteric inhibitor

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70
Q

What is the hormone that controls Na+ absorption in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Aldosterone

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71
Q

What is the hormone that controls H2O absorption in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

ADH

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72
Q

Nuclear fusion involves?

A

A small nuclei combining to form a larger nuclei

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73
Q

Nuclear fission involves?

A

A large nuclei splitting into smaller nuclei

*Nuclear power is this

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74
Q

Alpha particle emission means?

A

the atomic number of the daughter nucleus will be 2 less of parent nucleus

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75
Q

Beta partical emmision is the emmission of what?

A

an electron

Atomic number of daughter nucleus is 1 lower than parent nucleus

** Beta decay is more penetrating than alpha particle decay

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76
Q

Gamma particle emmision is>

A

a photon release

Parent nucleus is just lower energy with no change in number

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77
Q

What forces blood into the pulmonary trunk?

A

The force of contration of the right ventricle pushes blood through the semi-lunar valve into trunk

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78
Q

Blood pressure is higher in _______ circulation than in _________ circulation.

A

Blood pressure is higher in systemic circulation than in pulmonary circulation.

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79
Q

What is boyle’s law?

A

V1P1=V2P2

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80
Q

Inspiration involves?

A

the contraction of the diaphram lowering the volume of thoracic cavity

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81
Q

Expiration involves?

A

the relaxation of diaphram causing passive decrease in thoracic volume

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82
Q

What is Tital volume?

A

Volume inspired or expired

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83
Q

What is vital compacity?

A

Maximum amount of air that can be expelled from respiratory tract after maximum inhalation

(Amt of air that can be inspired FORCEFULLY after inspiration)+ (Amt of air that can be expired forcefully after expiration) + Tital volume

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84
Q

For an amino acid to migrate to a cathode, it’s net charge needs to be?

A

positive

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85
Q

Periodic table trends:

Acidity increases as we?

A

Move DOWN a column

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86
Q

The prefix Levo and Dextro mean?

A

Levo-amino acid=L-AA

Dextro=amino acid=D-AA

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87
Q

What is the continuity equation?

A

p2A2V2=p2A1V1

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88
Q

The structures of the ear are designed to do what to sound waves travelling through?

A

amplify the sound waves

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89
Q

How is the intensity of a sound wave related to area?

A

Intensity is INVERSELY proportional to area

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90
Q

Electromagnetic waves, Visible light, microwaves and x-rays are all examples of what type of wave?

A

Transverse waves

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91
Q

Transverse waves are when?

A

the particles ossilate perpendicular to direction of enery transfer

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92
Q

Longitudinal waves are when?

What is an example?

A

the particles ossilate parallel to the direction of energy transfer

sound waves

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93
Q

Wavelength is a measure of?

A

the distance from maximum (crest) to the next

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94
Q

Frequency is a measure of?

A

the number of wavelengths passing through a fixed point per sec

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95
Q

Propogation of a wave is?

A

the measure of frequency and wavelength

V=(frequency)(wavelength)

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96
Q

Amplitude is?

A

the maximum magnitude of displacement in a wave

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97
Q

The speed of sound travels?

A

Fastest in solids with low density, medium in liquids and slowest in gas with high density

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98
Q

How can you tell which harmonic is occuring in a closed pipe?

A

by counting the number of antinodes

1st: Wavelength=2Length
2nd: Wavelength=L
3rd: Wavelength=2L/3

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99
Q

What are the harmonic for an open piple

A

1st: Length=Wavelength/4
3rd: Length=3Wavelength/4
5th: Length=4Wavelength/5

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100
Q

If a reaction has less moles of product then reactant, what occurs to the entropy?

A

it decreases

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101
Q

If light is in the products side of a reaction, one can reasonably assume that the?

A

reaction is endothermic

postive entropy

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102
Q

Enthalpy, or delta H for a reaction can be determined by?

A

Delta H=H(products)-H(reactants)

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103
Q

Efficiency is measured by?

A

(Load x Distance)/(effort x Effort distance)

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104
Q

Which is sponatenous/non spontaneous?

Galvanic Cells
Electrolytic Cells
Concentration cells

A

Galvanic Cells-spontaneous
Electrolytic Cells-Nonspontaneous
Concentration cells-spontaenous

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105
Q

An ox and a red cat describes?

A

oxidation occurs at anode

Reduction occurs at cathode

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106
Q

Cells that contain salt bridges that prevent charge build up by releasing anions and cations into seperate 1/2 cells are?

A

galvanic cells

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107
Q

Chromotography seperates compounds based on?

A

stationary phase

a low affinity for stationary phase will make them be eluted faster

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108
Q

A pyran is?

A

a 6 member ring

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109
Q

A furan is?

A

a 5 membered ring

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110
Q

What occurs with temperature during a phase change?

A

Temperature remains constant until all of material has completed the phase change.
If heat is still added THEN the temp will change

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111
Q

An Acetic annhydride is formed via?

A

Removal of H2O from two carboxylic acids

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112
Q

Acetic annhydrides are soluble or insoluble?

A

insoluble because they will just go back to Carboxylic acids

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113
Q

Vapor pressure depression is?

A

As a solute is added to a solvent, the vapor pressure decreases proportionatly

Pa=(mole fraction)(Vapor pressure in pure state)

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114
Q

Boiling point elevation is?

A

When a non-volitile solute is dissolved into solvent to create solution, the boiling point will be greater than that of pure solvent

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115
Q

What is the formula for osmotic pressure?

A

(pie)=iMRT

i=Van hoff factor
M=molarity
R=ideal gas constant
T=temp

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116
Q

Alpa hydrogens are?

A

the hydrogens attached to the alpha carbon

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117
Q

Self-serving bias is?

A

the over-value of dispositional/personality based traits for behavior while undervaluing role of external circumstances

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118
Q

Which type of memory is involved in reasoning and comprehension?

A

Working mem

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119
Q

Humanistic perspective of personality focuses on?

A

self-actualization and helping patients become more complete and full individuals

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120
Q

Trait perspective of personality focuses on?

A

Measures aspects of personality that are grouped into patterns of though and behavior

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121
Q

Behavioral perspective of personality focuses on?

A

Focuses on more ACTION than cognition

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122
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect?

A

People tend to behave differently when being observed

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123
Q

The symbolic interactionist perspective focuses on?

A

The effects of social constructs on labels and how those contructs affects the roles individuals take on in society

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124
Q

What is Belief Perserverance?

A

when presented with varying opionions, more people are likely to believe information that confirms there opinion and discount evidence that refutes their opinion

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125
Q

systemic desensation is?

A

the use of high proximal stimuli to gradually de-sensitize individual

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126
Q

Lamarian inheritance is used to describe?

A

culture

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127
Q

Expressivity is used to?

A

describe the severity of disease

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128
Q

What is penetrance?

A

measure of # of people with the allele for condition that display condition

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129
Q

Restriction Length Polymorphisms have?

A

complementary sequence to DNA of interest

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130
Q

What is the difference between lysosomes and perioxisomes?

A

Lysosomes=break down proteins

Perioxisomes=break down lipids

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131
Q

What is the founder effect?

A

Evolutionary phenomenon where certain areas of world show high frequency of paticular alleles

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132
Q

What is the bottleneck effect?

A

low numbers in gene pool due to natural disaster/overhunting

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133
Q

A persistant virus is going to _________ the number of mRNA transcripts coding for whatever specialized functions the cell is made for.

A

decrease

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134
Q

Microfilaments are?

A

polymerized rods of actin that play a role in cytokinesis in the cleavage furrow

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135
Q

Microtubules are?

A

hollow polymers of tubulin protein exhibiting a 9+2 structure

cilia and flagella are example

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136
Q

Intermediate filaments are?

A

Keratin, desmin, vimentin and lamins
involved in cell to cell adhesion
helps anchor other organelles

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137
Q

Why would an RIA be flawed if it had been made with the precursor to a hormone?

A

the RIA would detect GREATER amounts then actual active hormone because it would bind to active hormone + precursor

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138
Q

Interphase consists of?

A

G1, S and G2 phases

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139
Q

In skeletal muscle, what participates is direct phosphorylation?

A

creatine phosphate transfers a phosphate group to ADP forming ATP

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140
Q

What are the 3 post transcriptional modifications?

A

Addition of 5’cap
Splicing of introns and exons
3’Poly-A tail

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141
Q

What are the two types of non-coding RNA?

A

tRNA

rRNA

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142
Q

S, or sedimentation units are?

A

the unit for size, molecular shape and density of molecules

high S=Large mol

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143
Q

Where is trypsinogen produced?

A

The pancreas

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144
Q

Trypsinogen is a precursor to ________ that does?

A

Trypsin, a protease that hydrolyzes proteins
cleaves peptide at carboxyl end of arginine and lysine
except when followed by proline

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145
Q

Stenosis is a condition where?

A

the heart valves adhere to each other, creating pressure in atriums

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146
Q

What is Ohm’s law?

A

V=IR
V=voltage drop
I=Current
R=resistance

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147
Q

Current is?

A

the amount of charge per unit time

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148
Q

A longer length would mean what in terms of resistance?

A

higher resistance

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149
Q

A large cross section would mean what to resistance?

A

lower resistance

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150
Q

Conductivity is related to Resistivity how?

A

Inverse

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151
Q

What are diols?

A

Compounds containing OH groups

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152
Q

Ketones react with _________ to form cyclic ketals

A

diols

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153
Q

________________ requires energy, and is endothermic, which ___________ releases energy so thus is exothermic.

A

Bond breaking

Bond forming

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154
Q

A photon is released when?

A

Excited electrons at a higher energy level return to their ground state.

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155
Q

A logarithmic graph drawn on a linear scale will produce?

A

A straight line

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156
Q

log(2)=
log(3)=
log(5)=

A

log(2)=0.3
log(3)=0.5
log(5)=0.7

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157
Q

ln(x)=

A

ln(x)=2.3log(x)

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158
Q

The formula for intensity is?

A

intensity=Power/Area

159
Q

The surface area of a sphere is?

A

4pier^2

160
Q

The greater the density of a medium is related to the speed of sound how?

A

the greater the density of medium, the slower the speed of sound

161
Q

How are the speed of sound, frequency and wavelength related?

A

speed of sound=frequency x wavelength

162
Q

Atomic radius increases?

A

to the left and down

163
Q

Electronegativity increases?

A

to the right and up

164
Q

Ionization energy increases?

A

to the right and down

165
Q

Zeff increases?

A

to the right

166
Q

What is Zeff?

A

the effective nuclear charge

167
Q

Electron affinity increases?

A

to the right and up

168
Q

When doing the Quantum number for ions-a cation will take the?

A

removal of electrons from the highest principle quantum number

169
Q

A Lewis acid is?

A lewis base?

A

Lewis acid=any substance that can accept a pair of non-bonding electrons
Lewis base=and substance that can donate a pair of non-bonding electrons

170
Q

Bronstead Acid is?

Bronstead Base is?

A

and H+ acceptor

An OH acceptor

171
Q

If more common ions are added to a saturated solution, what will occur?

A

a precipatate

172
Q

What is Ksp?

A

The solubility constant, high Ksp=high solubility

173
Q

What is the equation for delta G of rxn?

A

Delta G=DeltaH-TDeltaS

174
Q

What is keq?

A

The thermodynamic equilibrium constant

175
Q

Standard Gibbs free energy equation is?

A

Standard delta G=-RTlnkeq

176
Q

To find the Keq of a rxn, the formula is?

A

lnkeq=Standard delta G/RT

177
Q

What is the difference between a morula and a blastocyst?

A

Morula=ball of 12 or more cells

Blastocyst=hollow sphere surrounded by single layer of cells (occurs after morula)

178
Q

What causes the foramen ovale to close?

A

increase in pressure in the left atrium and decreased pressure in the right upon breathing

179
Q

What is the relationship between cross sectional area, resistance, and blood flow?

A

Decrease in cross sectional area, increased resistance of blood, blood flow decreases

180
Q

Rate (velocity) varies inversely with?

A

Total cross sectional area

181
Q

What is the formula for mole fractions?

How can this be applied to pressure?

A

(moles of A)/(total moles)

(pressure of A)/(total pressure

182
Q

Proteins only function in tertiary stucture except for?

A

insulin

183
Q

What are the strong acids?

A

HCL, HNO3, H2SO4, HBR, HI, HCLO4, HCLO3

184
Q

Visible light-

Name the colors going from low energy to high energy?

A

Low En./High frequency-

Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet-High En, and high frequency

185
Q

A carboxylase enzyme does what?

A

adds a carboxyl group onto substituent

186
Q

Which type of FA aids in membrane solubility?

A

Unsaturated

187
Q

1 watt=___J/s

A

1 watt=1J/s

188
Q

The formula for power when dealing with watts is?

A

energy/time

189
Q

Name the Erickson’s stages of development

A

Trust vs. Mistrust (Birth-18m) Hope
Autonomy vs. Shame (18m-3yrs)Will
Initiative vs. Guilt (3-5 yrs)Peer Relationships
Industry vs. Inferiority (6-12) Competence
Identity vs. Role confustion (12-18) Fidelity
Intimacy vs. Solidarity (18-35)Love
Generativity vs. Self (35-55)Care
Integrity vs. Despair (55-death)Wisdom

190
Q

What is escape reinforcement?

A

Behavior that is performed to eliminate existing consequence

191
Q

A heuristic is?

A

A mental shortcut

192
Q

Social Facilitation is?

A

A person is more likely to perform better in the company of others

193
Q

What is group think?

A

When a individual participates in a group, consensus is always desired result

194
Q

Visual parallel processing is?

A

ones ability to simultaneously analyze and combine information about the enviroment

195
Q

Socialization is the process in which?

A

an individual learns social norms

196
Q

What organ functions as the ‘bridge’ between cerebrum and cerebellum?

A

the pons

197
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Focusing on one part of the sensory enviroment and not others

198
Q

What is divided attention?

A

Ability to process multiple (2 or more) different demands simultaneously

199
Q

The eigth round of Beta oxidation on a C4 acid produces?

A

2 acetyl-coA

200
Q

Insulators are _____ conductors of electrical signals/

A

insulators are poor conductors

201
Q

What is Pousielle’s law?

A

V/T=(Change in Pressure x pie x r^4)/(8 x viscosity x length)

202
Q

Renold’s number represents?

A

Where laminar flow becomes turbulent

V(critical)=(Rx viscosity)/(2pr)

203
Q

The closeness of an electron withdrawing group to a carbonyl effects acidity how?

A

It increases the acidity.

An Alpha carbon withdrawing group with be more acidic then a beta carbon withdrawing group

204
Q

A high frequency means?

A

a short wavelength

205
Q

ATP stands for?

A

Adenine Triphosphate

206
Q

The formation of crystals or dissolution depends on?

A

The solubility of the species

207
Q

If the moles of a solution stay the same, but the volume increases, what occurs to the concetration?

A

The concentration decreases

208
Q

A lower concentration of solutes will affect the saturation of solutes (thus possibly forming a precipate) how?

A

A lower concentration of solutes DECREASES the likelyhood of a solution becoming saturated

209
Q

What is Bertolli’s equation?

A

P1+pgh+(1/2)pv^2=P2+pgh2+(1/2)pv^22

210
Q

Name the types of waves increasing in wavelength but decreasing in Frequency-

A 
Small Wavelength/High Freq:
Gamma
X-rays
UV rays 
Visible Light
Infrared 
Microwave
Radiowave
Large wavelength/low freq:
211
Q

The formula for magnetic charge is?

A

Force of Magnetic charge=Velocity x Charge x Magnetic Field sin 0

212
Q

A saturated Fatty acid will have__________ while a unsaturated fatty acid will have?

A

No double bonds- saturated FA

Double bonds present-unsaturated FA

213
Q

A protic solvent has?

A

Hydrogens attached to a electronegative atom (FON)

214
Q

Acetone exists in two forms, what are they?

A

A keto form (double bond on O) and an enol form (double bond on carbon)

215
Q

What occurs in a fisher esterification?

A

A carboxylic acid is esterfied by heating alcohol with a strong catalyst such as H2SO4

216
Q

If two molecules are exactly the same, except for their dashes and wedges, what type of stereoisomer are they?

A

if they differ in their dashes and wedges, they are diastereomers NOT enantomers

217
Q

If trying to figure out whether something is an enantomer, a key to look for is?

A

the R, S designations-enantomers will always have different R, S des

218
Q

In a chromotography column:
AA with a low net positive charge are eluted at?
AA with a high net postitive charge are eluted at?

A

Low net positive charge=low pH

high net postive charge=high pH

219
Q

The difference between an amide and amine is?

A

An amide MUST have a carboxyl group

An amine does not

220
Q

NAD+ is the _________ from of NAD and acts as a?

A

NAD+ is the oxidized from of NAD and acts as a reducing agent

221
Q

NADH is the ______ form of NAD and acts as a?

A

NADH is the reduced from of NAD and acts as a oxidixizing agent

222
Q

Loss of H=

Gain of H=

A

Loss of H=Gain of electrons

Gain of H=Loss of electrons

223
Q

Cytochrome p450 system is?

A

A drug detoxification enzyme that also assist in oxidation of steriods, fats and xenobiotics in liver tissue

224
Q

Cholesterol metabolism is located in?

A

the liver

225
Q

Respiratory acidiosis is?

A

the buildup of too much CO2 in the body

226
Q

Insoluble molecules such as Ag(OH)2 can become soluble by dissociation when?

A

the pH becomes to acidic

227
Q

Dissociated metal ions such as Ag3+ can interfere with cellular functions how?

A

They can replace normal cofactors for enzymes, such as Fe3+

228
Q

The golgi is responsible for?

A

protein maturation and modification

229
Q

Tight junctions are?

A

tightly sealed junctions between cells-so tight that the plasma membranes are sealed.

230
Q

Cadherin is seen in which type of cell junction and what is it’s function?

A

Caderhin is in adjacent junctions (zona adherins) and acts as a ‘zipper’ to adhere cells together

231
Q

Desmosomes are?

A

A type of connecting junction in epithelia that needs to withstand abrasion

232
Q

Hemidesmisomes are?

A

Cell junctions that connect the basal surface of epithelia via intermediate filaments to basal lamina

233
Q

Integrin is in what type of cell junction?

A

It is a transmembrane hemidesmosome protein

234
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

Gap junctions are formed by a protein called connexins, and these form stucture called connexon.

When two connexons from adjacent cells combine, they form a continuous channel between them

235
Q

What do gap junctions allow to be passed?

A

inorganic ions, small water soluble molecules

NO proteins, nucleic acids or sugars

236
Q

Which hormone passes through cell membrane and mitochondrial membrane to exert a portion of it’s influence on metabolism?

A

Thyroid hormone

237
Q

Aldosterone is?

A 
A mineral corticol produced in adrenal cortex which acts on collecting ducts and distal tubule of kidney to: 
Conserve Na+
Secrete K+
Increase water retention
Increase blood pressure
238
Q

Cortisol is?

A

A steroid hormone in glucocorticoid family produced in adrenal cortex which is released in times of stress low and blood glucose concentrations.

Increases blood sugar through gluconeogenesis
Supresses immune system
Decreases bone formation
counteracts insulin

239
Q

How does cortisol counteract insulin?

A

By decreasing translocation of glucose transporters (especially GLUT 4)

240
Q

TSH is?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone produced in anterior pituitary, which stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiiodothyronine (T3)

241
Q

Somatostatin is?

A

Growth inhibiting hormone that counteracts GH and TSH

242
Q

Growth Hormone is?

A

Somatotropin peptide hormone produced in anterior pituitary, stimulated by sex hormones and inhibited by glucocorticoids

243
Q

Glucagon is?

A

A peptide hormone secreted by alpha cells of pancreas which raises concentrations of glucose and FA in the bloodstream

244
Q

Insulin is?

A

a peptide hormone secreted by the Beta cells of pancreas by lowering blood glucose levels

245
Q

A peptide hormone requires what to enter the membrane?

A

A specific receptor, such as a G-protein

246
Q

Acetylcholine is what?

A

A neurotransmitter released via exocytosis by motor neurons to activate mucles

247
Q

Acetylcholinesterase is a enzyme that does what?

A

catalyzes the breakdown of Acetylcholine by terminating the transmission of acetylcholine at the synapse

248
Q

Acetylcholine functions in what parts of the nervous system?

A

Autonomic, Parts of CNS, and the parasympathetic ns

249
Q

Where are glucose, proteins, amino acids and toxins absorbed in the kidneys?

A

The proximal convoluted tubule

250
Q

Which parts of the nephron are responsible for concentrating urine before excretion?

A

the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

251
Q

Which part of the kidney is responsible for the adjustments of solutes in the urine?

A

loop of henle

252
Q

Which metabolic pathway produces the precursor to nucleotide synthesis?

A

The pentose-phosphate pathway

253
Q

What is the only pathway that uses NADPH and NADP+

A

pentose phosphate pathway

254
Q

What are the only cells that have a nucleus?

A

Eukaryotic cells

IF ANY PASSAGES MENTION CELLS WITH A NUCLEUS THEY ARE EUKARYOTES DING DONG

255
Q

What are cytokines?

A

intercellular messengers that are concerned with inflamatory and immune responses

256
Q

From what tissue does the CNS derive from?

A

the ectoderm

257
Q

Blood, arteries and pericytes all derive from the?

A

mesoderm

258
Q

Capillaries, having no muscular tunic have what type of pressure?

A

very low pressure

259
Q

What type of virus enters the nucleus via fusion with cell membrane or receptor mediated endocytosis that is relient on host’s DNA synthesizing machinery and and RNA processing machinery

A

DNA viruses

260
Q

Which type of virus replicates in the cytoplasm using it’s own RNA replicase?

A

RNA viruses

261
Q

Which type of virus carries either ssRNA or ddDNA, and must go through an intermediate to replicate.

A

retrovirus

262
Q

Retroviruses use what to carry out nucleic acid conversion?

A

Reverse transcriptase

263
Q

A sphinomyelin is?

A

one of the few membrane phosphlipids NOT sythesized from glycerol, synthesized in ER and finished in Golgi.
They protect the cell surface against harmful enviromental factors by forming a mechanically stable and chemically resistant outer leaftlet

A phosphocholine head group is main identifier as most glycolipids have a sugar head group

264
Q

What is the function of Aspartate Transaminase?

A

It is an enzyme that catalyzes the reversible transfer of an amino group between aspertate and glutamate

Converts L-Aspartate and alphaketoglutarate to oxaloacetate and L-glutamate

mainly found in liver and heart

265
Q

A leaflet is?

A

1/2 of the lipid bilayer

266
Q

Floppases are?

A

Transport proteins that move lipids FROM inside leaflet to outside leaflet

267
Q

Flippases are?

A

Transport proteins that move lipids FROM outside leaftlet to inside leaflet

268
Q

Transferases are?

A

Enzymes that transfer AA groups from one mol to another

DO NOT TRANSFER ENTIRE MOLECULES

269
Q

What is stabilizing selection?

A

When a phenotype is maintained

270
Q

What is disruptive selection?

A

When multiple phenotypes are produced

271
Q

What is the mneumonic for the Polar amino acids?

A

See The New Queen Come

272
Q

What is the mneumonic for the Non-polar amino acids?

A

Great Actions Very Likely Indicate Mastery

273
Q

What is the mneumonic for the Hydrophobic AA?

A

Amazing Lucifer Videoed Good Iodine Factually Alot.

274
Q

When centrifuging DNA that has been tagged with a ‘heavy’ and ‘light’ isotope, what would you expect to see?

A

the light DNA will be on the top

the heavy DNA will be on the bottom

275
Q

In the Meselson-Stahl Experiement, the 2nd generation (after light and heavy were mixed), the results were?

A

50% light and 50% heavy

276
Q

How does bacteria divide?

A

Binary fission

MITOSIS AND MEOISIS ARE ONLY EUKARYOTIC

277
Q

If something were to occur to a tight junction, what would you expect to see?

A

Extracellular fluid leaking in between the cells

278
Q

What are the two AA that can be converted to ketones but NOT glucose?

A

Leucine and Lysine

279
Q

What are the amino acids that are both glucogenic and ketogenic?

A

Funny Irishmen Teased Rabid Yetis

Phenylalanine, Isoleucine, Threonine, Tyrosine, and tryptophan

280
Q

An indication in the inviablity of hybrid offspring would be?

A

A different number of chromosomes

281
Q

In a phylogenetic tree, the possibility of an ancient common ancestor could be determined by?

A

Following the branch points, the closer the branch point is, the more possibility

282
Q

How many kcal per gram of?
Glucose
Ethanol

A

Glucose-3.8kcal per gram

Ethanol-7kcal per gram

283
Q

A muscle protein that is used for contraction but also functions as an ATPase is?

A

Myosin

284
Q

When ATP binds to the myosin head it?

A

releases from actin

285
Q

After myosin the releases from actin, the ATP is hydrolysed from ATP to ADP and Pi, and this reaction?

A

‘cocks’ the myosin head

286
Q

When the phosphate group is released from the myosin head what occurs?

A

POWER STROKE

myosin pushes along actin, effectively moving the muscle, then ADP is released

287
Q

Tropomyosin is?

A

a protein that curls around the actin filament

288
Q

Troponin is?

A

“the nails” in actin that hold tropomyosin in place

Blocks myosin from crawling up actin or sliding down

289
Q

How are troponin and Ca ion content related?

A

When the Ca+ ion content in sarcomere is increased, the calcium ion binds to troponin, moving the configuration of tropomyosin out of the way so myosin can move

290
Q

The ions that bind with troponin come from the?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

If ATPases pump enough calicum into the muscle to activate it, the sarcoplasmic reticulum will dump its CA into cytoplasm to bind with troponin

291
Q

How is acetylcholine released?

A

When the action potiental depolarizes the motor neuron, it opens calicum gated voltage channels that bind to the protein docking vessicles containing neurotransmitters
causing exocytosis

292
Q

What hold myosin in place?

A

Titin

293
Q

Recombination frequency will never be over?

A

50%, because 3 crossovers result in same alleles as 1st crossover

294
Q

Mitochondrial DNA accumulates mutations at ________ times the rate of nuclear DNA

A

10x the rate of nuclear DNA

295
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

in the intermembrane space of mitochondria

296
Q

Porins in the mitochondria are?

A

Small ion channels on the membrane that allow the passage of small molecules such as ions

297
Q

Prions are?

A

misfolded proteins not containing amino acids, that reproduce by inducing benign proteins to misfold

298
Q

What is the anatomy of a virus?

A

A core of nucleic acids surrounded by a protein called a capsid

299
Q

If a the patellar reflex arc activates an inhibitory neuron, where would that act upon?

A

the muscle opposing the quad

300
Q

What is the start codon?

A

AUG coding for methonine

301
Q

What is the initiation phase of protein synthesis?

A

IF3 facilitates binding of mRNA to 30s (small ribosomal) subunit
IF1 binds in A site where tRNA normally binds
tRNA binds in P site, guided by IF2, which kicks off IF3
IF3 leaving prompts 50s (Large) ribosomal subunit to bind to 30s subunit
Docking of Large subunit prompts GTP hydrolysis and releasing transcription factors

302
Q

What are the 3 binding sites on the ribosome? From left to right?

A

EPA

303
Q

What are the steps of elongation?

A

EF-TU binds to free charges Aminoacyl-tRNA and complex enters A site
GTP is hydrolyzed by Peptidyl-trasnferase and creates peptide bond between P and A sites GDP, Pi and EF-TU are kicked off

Ef-G and GTP bind to ribosome. GTP hydrolyzed and this provides power to “ratchet” 50s and 30s subunits ahead 1 codon

New tRNA bind to A site, and induce confirmational change that ejects the uncharged tRNA out of ribosome

Steps continue

304
Q

The termination phase of protein synthesis is?

A

Steps of elongation continue until stop codon is reached.

RF1 or 2 (release factors) then enter A site
The binding of RF1/2 activates peptidyltransferase function of ribosome to cut bond tethering completed peptide to tRNA in the P site
RF3 then triggers RF1/2 to depart ribosome
RF along with EF-G bind at A site and accompanying GTP hydrolysis undocks the two subunits

305
Q

CD4 receptors are attracted to?

A

MHCII

Most helper Tcells

306
Q

CD8 receptors are attracted to?

A

MHCI

Most cytotoxic T cells

307
Q

B cells are produced in ?

A

bone marrow

308
Q

T-cells are produced in?

A

Thymus

309
Q

What are the two sections of an antibody receptor?

A

The fixed and variable portion

Variable portion determined by DNA

310
Q

the receptor on viruses is called the?

A

Epitope

311
Q

What is the function of effector B cells?

A

Turn into antibody factories after activation from helper T cells (Cannot do this until after specific T cell has bound)
~2000 per second. These antibodies will bind with antigen and mark them for destruction

B-cells will also engulf antigen and present it as a MHCII receptor

312
Q

What is the function of helper T cells?

A

Respond to MHCII receptors, once bound to MHCII receptor, the T cell becomes activated and differentiates into effector T cells and memory T cells

313
Q

Effector T cells?

A

RAISE THE ALARM-by releasing cytokines that will activate cytotoxic t cells

314
Q

Effector cytoxic T cells?

A

Latches on the cell marked for destruction, and releases perferins to lyse the cell

315
Q

What are the steps in blister formation to scar tissue?

A

fluid buildup in epidermis, tissue dehydration, epithelial growth and collagen infiltration

316
Q

When hearing the word necrosis one should think?

A

unnatural unplanned cell death

317
Q

The more a DNA strand travels down a cell, the?

A

shorter it is

318
Q

on gel electrophoriesis, the 3’ end of DNA will be closer to the ___________ while the 5’ end of DNA will be closer to the _________.

A

the 3’ end of DNA will be closer to the cathode (-) while the 5’ end of DNA will be closer to the anode (+)

319
Q

The F1 subunit of ATPase is where?

The Fo subunit of ATPase is where?

A

F1-Phosphorylation of ADP to ATP

Fo-creates energy via exergonic reaction of protons flowing through

320
Q

The repressor will always bind to the?

A

operator

321
Q

RNA polymerase will always bind to what in operons?

A

the promoter

322
Q

When no glucose is available and lactose is present, what occurs?

A

With low glucose, there is high cAMP-therefore cAMP binds to the Catabolic Activator protein complex on the lac operon which INCREASES the trate of transcription

323
Q

What is an epimer?

A

Two sugars that only differ around one carbon

Glucose and Galactose are examples

324
Q

Lactose is less preferred as an energy source by the cell because?

A

It is a diasacchride, and therefor must be cleaved before processing

325
Q

A high mitochondrial cell count would allow us to infer what about glucose consumption?

A

A high mitochondrial cell count would allow us to infer that there is high glucose consumption and high energy need for cell.

If a cell’s function is to deliver glucose-it would indicate a LOW mitochondrial count

326
Q

How do Standard delta G and Standard E Relate?

A

Standard Delta G<0=Standard E>0

327
Q

How do standard delta G and K relate

A

Standard Delta G<0=K>1

328
Q

What are the two enzymes in the glycolytic pathway that USE ATP?

A

hexokinase and PFK1

329
Q

What is the enzymes in the glycolytic pathway that PRODUCES ATP?

A

Phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase

330
Q

Which enzyme in the glycolytic pathway reduces NAD+ to NADH?

A

Glyceraldehyde 3-Phophate Dehydrogenase

331
Q

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase reduces?

A

NAD+ to NADH

332
Q

Which enzymes in the TCA cyle reduce Nad+ to NADH?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, Malate dehydrogenase

333
Q

What enzyme in the TCA cycle reduces FAD+ to FADH?

A

Succinate-dehydrogenase

334
Q

Which enzyme in the TCA cyle creates GTP

A

Succinyl-CoA synthetase

In the
Succinyl-Coa -> Succinate formation

335
Q

the irreversable binding to an enzyme would involve?

A

a strong bond such as a covalent disulfide bond

336
Q

3’ to 5’ endonuclease repair by DNA polymerase is?

A

Proofreading

337
Q

ADH would _______ collecting duct permeability and _____ blood pressure.

A

Increase both collecting duct permeability and increase blood pressure

338
Q

Both proline and glycine are found in?

A

beta turns

339
Q

Beta hairpin turns have which AA?

A

proline and tryptophan

340
Q

The expansion of a gas will result in what to both temp and density?

A

lower both temp and density

341
Q

Conduction is heat transfer by?

A

direct contact such as pipes with water cooling an engine

342
Q

Convection is?

A

movement of heat by actual movement of molecules, such as steam released into atmosphere

343
Q

Radiation is?

A

the release of energy through electromagnetic waves, and every object does this unless is has 0k.

344
Q

What is charles’s law?

A

Volume of a fixed mass of gas is directly proportional to temperature.
V1T1=V2T2

345
Q

To figure out the isotope created in a nuclear reaction, what do you do?

A

Atomic mass of reactants-atomic pass of products

Mass # of reactants-Mass# of products

346
Q

Nucleus have what kind of charge?

A

positive

347
Q

A wedge indicates that the substiuent is?

A

“into” the page (away from you)

348
Q

A dash indicates that the substiuent is?

A

“out of” the page (towards you)

349
Q

What is the equation for relating Enthalpy, Change in Enthapy, and Entropy?

A

Delta G=DeltaH-TDeltaS

350
Q

If a pKA is negative, it means that as the temperature rises, the pka of the AA will go?

A

down

351
Q

If a pka is low but a Ka is high, what will occur if temperature is raised?

A

more dissociation

352
Q

If the dissociation is high, what does that mean for Enthalpy?

A

Enthalpy>0

353
Q

The higher electronegativity an atom has, the better?

A

electron withdrawing group it is

354
Q

What is the weakest intermolecular force?

A

dispersion forces

*temporary attractive force that results when two adjacent atoms form temporary dipoles

355
Q

In a hydration synthesis reaction, the alkene will always?

A

be turned into a primary OH group

356
Q

What is the formula for Vo with Kcat?

A

Vo=(Kcat [E]{s])/(km+[s])

357
Q

What is the formula for Kcat?

A

Kcat=Vmax/[E]

358
Q

What is the formula for Vmax?

A

Vo=(Vmax[S])/(km+[s])

359
Q

According to Pousielle’s Law of Flow, if a pipe’s radius is cut in half, what will occur to the volumetric flow?

A

it will go down by a factor of 16

Q=(Change in Pressure x pie x r^4)/(8 x viscosity x Length)

360
Q

Primary structure of proteins can only be broken by?

A

Amide hydrolysis

361
Q

Secondary structure of proteins can only be broken by?

A

Anything that can break hydrogen bonds like heat or alcohol

362
Q

Tertiary structure can be affected by?

A

Acid-Bases: Can disrupt salt bridges
Heavy Metal salts: Both salt bridges and disulfide bonds
Reducing agents: disulfide bonds

363
Q

How are energy and frequency related?

A

E=f

directly proportional

364
Q

How are frequency and wavelength related

A

f=1/wavelength

Inversely proportional

365
Q

How are energy and wavelength related?

A

E=1/wavelength

inversely proportional

366
Q

D and L conventions are related only to?

A

the configuration of groups around central carbon-or alpha carbon in AA

367
Q

(+), (-) designations are used for?

A

optically active compounds

+=clockwise
-=counterclockwise

368
Q

Myopia is also called _________. And results from?

A

Nearsightedness

Results from lens being too strong or eye too long, light connects before retina

369
Q

Hyperopia or ___________ results from?

A

Farsightenness results from lens being too weak or eye too short and light connects far after retina

370
Q

Were does tempory hyperopia occur and why?

A

temporary hyperopia occurs in water because the refractive indexes of H2O and eyes media are too similar.

371
Q

What is the formula for Ka?

A

Ka=([H3O+][A-])/[HA]

Products/reactants (not including water)

372
Q

What is the formula for Kb?

A

Kb=([BH+][OH-})/[B]

373
Q

The atomic number is?

A

the number of protons

374
Q

Ka is the?

A

dissociation constant

375
Q

A stable conjugate base indicates what about the acidity?

A

A stronger acid

376
Q

Why are aromatic rings more stable conjugate bases?

A

they are more stable due to resonance

377
Q

Which one is a better reducing agent?

A tertiary alcohol or primary alcohol?

A

A tertiary alcohol CANNOT BE OXIDZED. so therefor a primary alcohol

378
Q

Ka x Kb=

A

10^-4

379
Q

pKa + pKb=

A

14

380
Q

Which is higher, first or second ionization energies?

A

SECOND IS ALWAYS HIGHER

381
Q

How would urine osmolarity react to low blood pressure and volume?

A

increase in urine osmolarity

382
Q

What is the social cognitive theory?

A

people learn through observation

383
Q

James-Lang theory of emotion is?

A

sensory data triggers physiological symptoms which leads to emotional state

384
Q

The Schachter-Singer theory of emotion is?

A

Two factor theory: The combination of the state of arousal and cognition results in emotion

when aroused people look for cues on why they are

385
Q

The cannon-bard theory of emtion is?

A

The feelings and response to emotion are independent physiological and simultaneous events

386
Q

What is the cognitive appraisal theory?

A

Process by which an idividual emotionally reacts after evaluating a situation

387
Q

In developed nations, how are relative and absolute poverty related?

A

Relative poverty is MUCH higher

388
Q

What are Piaget’s stages of development?

A

Birth-2yr: Sensory-motor (object permanence)
2-7yr: Pre-operational (Selfish)
7-11 yr: Concrete operational (Conservation understood)
12-up:Formal Operationsal (Abstract ideas understood)

389
Q

Broca’s area is located where?

What would occur if damage happened here?

A

Left frontal lobe

Can’t speak but can understand

390
Q

Wernicke’s area is located where?

What would occur if damage happened here?

A

Left temporal gyrus

Can speak but can’t understand

391
Q

What is the dramaturgical approach?

A

Individuals are actors on a stage, effected by time, place, circumstance, race and themselves

392
Q

What is the developmental approach?

A

Looks at how thinking, feeling, and behavior can change throughout life.

393
Q

What is social constructionism?

A

how groups of people come to assign meaning or value to objects or concepts

MCAT Study (16 decks)

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