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Tower CTO > FTM Chapters 5+6 Emergencies/ Local Area Information > Flashcards

FTM Chapters 5+6 Emergencies/ Local Area Information Flashcards

1
Q

Available equipment during an emergency

A

Ambulance
Firefighting equipment
Rescue equipment
Chief officers

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2
Q

Rescue equipment: helicopters

A

MEDEVAC located at hanger 6 and is equipped w/ medical evacuation aircraft.

Vehicles: Rescue 90

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3
Q

ATCT flight data: emergencies

A

1) activate the PCAS alarm (on installation) or 911 (off base) and ensures each station responds before providing all available information on the situation

2) obtain operating initials of each station on the crash circuit prior to hanging up

3) log time and pertinent info

4) notify weather of an emergency in progress

5) notify other ATC facilities that may be affected

6) answer facility phones

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4
Q

Why is it important for ATC to notify weather during an emergency

A

The weather station is required to intensify the weather watch to ensure that the aircraft in distress receives the maximum weather support.

A “local observation” is taken in this instance

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5
Q

Emergencies: ground control

A

1) Restrict the movement of ground traffic to emergency aircraft and vehicles as necessary.

2) Monitor the ALMRS radio for coordination w/ emergency vehicles.

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6
Q

Emergencies: local control

A

1) Shall start assistance as soon as enough information has been obtained upon which to act.

2) Alert other traffic to the emergency.

3) Give priority to search and rescue aircraft as needed.

4) Have airborne traffic remain clear of the traffic pattern if warranted

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7
Q

PCAS

A

Primary Crash Alarm System

If possible, obtain at least the following information prior to activating PCAS:
- aircraft ID/ type
- nature of emergency
- Pilots desires

PCAS is activated by ATCT personnel to notify:
-DES Dispatch
- base operations

• base operations will activate the secondary crash alarm system to notify other agencies of the emergency

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8
Q

Emergencies: GCA flight data

A

Will notify ATCT of an emergency in progress and relay all information obtained to the tower

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9
Q

Emergencies: arrival control/final control

A

1) Will vector the aircraft in the most expeditious and safe manner to the final approach course.

2) Continue to provide a PAR or ASR approach to the emergency aircraft.

-If pilot wishes to terminate the approach and proceed visually, AR/FC will relay the information to FD

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10
Q

Closure of airfield during an emergency

A

The airfield or any portion thereof may be closed in the event of an emergency.

Can only be re-opened by authority of the airfield manager or his representative

Da form 3502 shall be used to record all pertinent information

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11
Q

Foaming of the runway:

A

Only after all other possibilities have been exhausted will the runway be foamed. The fire station will not begin foaming until authorized to do so by the airfield manager or his representative.

All pertinent information logged on DA Form 3502

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12
Q

Fire fighting personnel is alerted by whom?

A

The dispatcher at directorate of emergency services (DES) will sound the alarm upon notification of an emergency to alert firefighting personnel

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13
Q

Medical personnel and equipment

A

Automatically respond w/ firefighters

Rescue helicopters dispatched by base ops as necessary

Aircraft requested to respond to an off-airfield accident will check for damages and injuries, will report to ATCT who will relay info to base ops.

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14
Q

Charlie Company MEDEVAC, 1st Battalion, 52nd -

A

Provides tactical aero medical evacuation support to Division, Brigade, and Special Operations Forces within the Pacific AOR.

Also provides uninterrupted MEDEVAC and MAST services to the interior region of Alaska

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15
Q

Military police

A

Will provide security and order, and prevent pilferage of wreckage

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16
Q

Incidents/accidents: on the airfield

A

Any emergency that occurs on Ft. Wainwright, tower will initiate emergency services via the PCAS

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17
Q

Incidents/accidents: off the airfield

A

Ladd towers will initiate emergency services by dealing 911 through the IVSR

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18
Q

Sources of information of an emergency

A

Most common is the
- aircraft involved
- other aircraft in the vicinity
- ATC facilities
- eyewitnesses

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19
Q

Primary emergency reporting procedures

A

Controllers shall call the ATC Chief immediately

Give verbal report on accident/incident

Followed by a written statement from all controllers

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20
Q

Minimum information to be entered on DA Form 3502

A

1) time of accident/ incident

2) aircraft ID/ type

3) nature of emergency

4) landing or accident site

5) time emergency terminated

6) local weather observation

7) other details of significance

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21
Q

Procedures for implementation of ESCAT

A

Emergency Security Control of Air Traffic

Ladd ATCT/GCA shall implement restrictions to air traffic as directed by Anchorage ARTCC directly or relayed through Fairbanks approach control

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22
Q

Civil and military ATC responsibilities

A

Current info regarding flight info and restrictions shall be annotated on DA Form 3502 and briefed to oncoming shift, ATC Chief, and ATCT/GCA Facility Chiefs.

Flight plans shall be processed in accordance w/ the current instructions received from Anchorage ARTCC to ensure flight restrictions are adhered to

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23
Q

Air Traffic Priority List

A

As directed by ZAN or relayed through FAI.

In the absence of directives from ZAN or FAI, follow EATPL in TC 3-04.15 (8 priorities)

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24
Q

TRSA

A

Terminal Radar Service Area

Ladd Class D/E airspace falls within Fairbanks TRSA

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25
Q

Ladd Class D Surface Area

A

Ladd Class D Surface Area is defined as airspace within 5NM of the geographical center of the airport extending upward from the surface up to and including 2,900ft MSL;

Except where Ladd’s Surface Area joins Fairbanks’ Surface Area to the West.

This boundary begins where the 5NM arc meets the Steese Highway to the North, Then South via the Steese Highway to the Chena River,
Then West via the Chena River to the Cushman Street Bridge,
Then South via Cushman Street to the point where Cushman Street meets the 5NM arc.

26
Q

PPR / CALP

A

Prior Permission Request

Civil Aircraft Landing Permit

27
Q

Ladds Class E Airspace

A

Ladd surface area has an instrument approach extension defined as:

That airspace which extends from the 5NM arc to the East via lines parallel to, and 2.5NM either side of the CUN 089° bearing to a point 5NM East of CUN NDB.

  • NOT subject to the restrictions of class D airspace
28
Q

Ladd GCA boundaries

A

Categorized as class E airspace. The arrival/ final controller shall ensure aircraft handed off by FAI approach control or aircraft remaining VFR with GCA, remain within 4NM of the final approach course and within 12NM of the landing runway

29
Q

Who may use FBK airspace?

A

All aircraft may use FBK airspace

General
Commercial
Military flying clubs
Bureau of land management (BLM)
Aircraft are permitted to use LANDING SURFACES with a PPR or CALP

30
Q

BLM

A

Bureau of Land Management

31
Q

Adjacent airspace

A

Fairbanks International Class D/E

32
Q

Navigational aids: type

A

Chena NDB

Fairbanks VORTAC

33
Q

Navigational aids: location

A

1) Chena NDB located 2.4 NM Northeast of Ladd AAF.
- used for the NDB-A approach to Ladd AAF

2) Fairbanks VORTAC is located 10.4 NM Southwest from the departure end of Runway 25

34
Q

NAVAID- Chena NDB

A

Identifier: CUN

Frequency: 257

Channel: N/A

35
Q

NAVAID: Fairbanks VORTAC

A

Identifier: FAI

Frequency: 108.6

Channel: 23

36
Q

Prominent objects and obstructions: birch hill

A

Bearing: 330° NW

Distance: 2 NM

Height: 1,138’ MSL

37
Q

Prominent objects and obstructions: approach hill

A

Bearing: 060° NE

Distance: 1.5 NM

Height: 538’ MSL

38
Q

Prominent objects and obstructions: KFAR Antenna

A

Bearing: 305° NW

Distance:6.5 NM

Height: 835’ MSL

39
Q

Prominent objects and obstructions: KJNP Antenna

A

Bearing: 090° E

Distance: 11 NM

Height: 921’ MSL

40
Q

Special use airspace: R-2205 A-K Fairbanks

A

Location: approximately 3ONM East of Ladd AAF (center of RA)

Altitude: surface to 20,000 feet MSL

Times: 0700 - 1900L, Monday - Friday

Controlling agency: FAA, Fairbanks Approach Control

Using agency: U.S. Army, AK (USARAK), Commanding General, Joint Base Elemendorf-Richardson (JBER), AK

Use: military live fire training

41
Q

Special use airspace: R-2211 Blair Lakes, AK

A

Location: approximately 28 NM South of Ladd AAF (center of RA)

Altitude: surface to FL 310

Times: 0700 - 1900L, Monday - Friday

Controlling agency: FAA, Fairbanks Approach Control

Using agency: U.S. Air Force, 354th Fighter Wing, Eielson AFB, AK

Use: military live fire training

42
Q

Grey Eagle

A

MQ-1C Grey Eagle UAS
•transits via The green Route to R-2205
•surface to 3,500 feet MSL
•Army helicopter escort required to/from R-2205
•authorized local traffic pattern work at LAAF
• operations only conducted in VMC

Black Hornet sUAS operate at the CACTF

43
Q

Night Vision System

A

NVG/ NVS aircraft are not restricted to local area.

Must adhere to external lighting requirements.

Aircraft that are not lit in accordance w/ the SOP shall be advised to comply.

44
Q

Corridors

A

1) Nordale- 2 way corridor; OUTBOUND-1,500ft MSL, INBOUND-1,800ft MSL

2) River- 1 way corridor; OUTBOUND 1,200ft MSL

3) Salchaket- 1 way corridor; INBOUND 1,200ft MSL

45
Q

Airstrips

A

3 tactical airstrips exist within the Ladd local flying area.
Primarily used by rotorcraft
Not maintained
For military use only

• Clear Creek Strip: 23 miles South of Ladd
• Blair Lakes Strip: 28.5 miles South of Ladd
• Firebird Strip: approximately 28 miles East of Ladd

46
Q

VFR training areas

A

1) Tanana Flats

2) Yukon

3) Donnelly Dome

4) North Training Area (NTA)
- along the South ridge of Birch Hill North of the tower and Eastward to approximately Sage Hill

47
Q

What airstrips lie within Ladd Class D airspace?

A

1) Lakloey Air Park

2) Dalrymple Airstrip

Aircraft departing /arriving will utilize FBK CTAF, as well as calling FBK ATCT for transitions when the tower is open

48
Q

ANC

A

Anchorage

49
Q

BIG

A

Allen AAF

50
Q

SCC

A

Dead Horse

51
Q

EIL

A

Eielson

52
Q

EDF

A

Elmendorf AFB

53
Q

FYU

A

Fort Yukon

54
Q

Fairbanks 2L/20R

A

Distance: 6.5 NM

Direction: WSW

Runways: 2L / 20R

Length: 11,800’

55
Q

Fairbanks 2R / 20L

A

Distance: 6.5 NM

Direction: WSW

Runways: 2R / 20L

Length: 6,501’

56
Q

Adjacent airports: Eielson AFB

A

Distance: 17 NM

Direction: E

Runways: 14 / 32

Length: 14,530’

57
Q

Adjacent airports: Metro Field

A

Distance: 4 NM

Direction: SW

Runways: 6 / 24

Length: 4,600’

58
Q

Adjacent airports: Bradley Skyranch

A

Distance: 7 NM

Direction: SE

Runways: 15 / 33

Length: 3,400’

59
Q

Adjacent airports: Lakloey Air Park

A

Distance: 2 NM

Direction: ESE

Runways: 6 / 24

Length: 4,000’

60
Q

Adjacent airports: Dalrymple

A

Distance: 4 NM

Direction: NE

Runways: 6 / 24

Length: 2,400’

61
Q

Paradrop requests

A

All paradrop requests for jumps within Ft. Wainwright installation boundaries will be coordinated through base ops and approved by airfield manager.

ATCT will be open when jumps are being conducted.

Aircraft will have positive communications with ATCT.

ATCT will be notified 5 minutes prior to the jump.

62
Q

BLM Jumper remaining within/directly above FBK class D airspace and maintaining communications with FBK tower

A

1) FBK Tower will call FAI APPROACH and “APREQ” parachute drops to include location and altitude.
EXAMPLE- “ Fairbanks Approach, Ladd Tower, APREQ.” “Jumper12, C-212, parachute drops over Birch Hill at or below 4,500ft.”

2) Ladd tower will instruct jumper aircraft to report 1 minute priorto jumpers away.

3) FAI approach shall be notified 1 minute to jumpers via “PJ” lag on the aircraft target on the TDW

4) controllers will issue advisory info to the jump aircraft and nonparticipating aircraft as necessary for the safe conduct of the jump operations

5) FAI shall be notified once all jumpers are on the ground and jump operations are complete

6) all other jumper aircraft departing the surface area for parachute drops will be coordinated as an, “advisory departure”

Tower CTO (19 decks)

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