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USCG MH-65D ZDB > FP/AC Procedures ZDB > Flashcards

FP/AC Procedures ZDB Flashcards

1
Q

For SRR helicopter flights, the minimum pilot assignment requirements are:

Under daylight VMC:

A

An AC or an FP.

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2
Q

For SRR helicopter flights, the minimum pilot assignment requirements are:

Under night VMC:

A

An AC and a CP, or 2 FPs

When mission urgency dictates, an AC alone may be authorized by the CO; this authority may not be delegated.

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3
Q

For SRR helicopter flights, the minimum pilot assignment requirements are:

Under IMC:

A

An AC and CP or 2 FPs

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4
Q

IFR departures which require _______ are not authorized for ________.

A

a departure alternate

training flights or flights with a FP in command

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5
Q

On difficult or unusual missions, ______ shall be assigned as PIC.

A

An AC

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6
Q

Flights scheduled to carry passengers require a pilot with a(n) _____ designation to serve as PIC.

A

an AC

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7
Q

For maintenance flights, at least a(n) ______ designation is required.

A

AC. When practicable, an aeronautical engineering office shall be assigned to test flights of unit aircraft, though not necessary to serve as PIC.

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8
Q

For ferry flights, at least a(n) ______ is/are required.

A

An AC and a CP.

The Commanding Officer may authorize a single pilot ferry flight in day VMC if the mission is conducted within the units AOR or point to point on one sortie. The PIC must be AC qualified and current in model for the aircraft.

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9
Q

For all missions, the PIC shall hold:

A

The appropriate qualification for the mission to be performed.

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10
Q

For all missions, the PIC shall hold the appropriate qualification for the mission to be performed.

A second pilot shall be assigned that is qualified for the mission to be performed with the following exceptions:

For operational or training SAR:

A

A second pilot in a SRR is not required to hold a SAR qualification and single pilot operations may be performed.

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11
Q

Checklist use is _______ in all CG aircraft.

A

Mandatory

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12
Q

If a CG-711 approved electronic checklist is used, there must be ___________.

A

A paper copy within arm’s reach ready for immediate availability.

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13
Q

The Sterile Cockpit critical flight phases include:

A

BATH 1,000 ANY and ALL

All ground operations involving moving aircraft
Takeoff, approach, and landing.
Anytime a checklist is performed.
1,000 ft prior to racing an assigned altitude during climb or descent under IFR.
Hover operations
Below 300’ AGL/AWL during approach or departure from a hover.
As directed by the PIC.

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14
Q

When an aircraft is being taxied within ______ of obstructions, a _______ is required. Aircraft shall not be taxied within _____ of an obstruction at any time.

A

25 feet
Two person taxi crew; signaling wing walker and wing walker.
5 feet

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15
Q

Simulated instrument flight is prohibited unless:

A

Another pilot (other than the PF) qualified in type is in the cockpit monitoring the evolution.

In addition, a lookout having direct communications with the PM shall be so stationed that he or she can scan the sector normally observed by the pilot simulating instrument conditions.

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16
Q

When single pilot and the aircraft is static, the _______ shall will reference the Checklist and verbalize the following: Before Starting Engines, Engine Start, Systems/Equipment, Taxi, Secure, and Hot Refueling.

A

PAC or FM

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17
Q

When single pilot and during aircraft movement or flight, the ______ should conduct the challenge portion of the following Checklist: Takeoff, Level Off, Landing/Hover, and After Landing.

A

aircrew member

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18
Q

While single pilot, the PAC shall verbalize FD _________ for the benefit of other aircrew members.

A

Mode engagement

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19
Q

Practice engine malfunctions can be initiated:

A

Only with two pilots, one an AC

AT OR BELOW 8,900 lbs

Any time at or above 40 KIAS

Below 40 KIAS, follow High Hover or Low Hover procedure.

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20
Q

Practice High Hover Single Engine Procedure requires:

A

Two pilots, one of them an AC
At or below 8,900 pounds
Nr - HI
10 knots relative wind within 45 degrees of the nose
If it is to be practiced to a landing, a smooth, hard surface is required.

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21
Q

Practice tailor rotor malfunctions require:

A

Two pilots, one of them an AC
Day VMC only
Hard surface runway with crash equipment available.

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22
Q

Special VFR weather mins

A

Day: ceiling 300 ft, visibility 1/2 mile.
Night: ceiling 600 ft, visibility 1 mile.

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23
Q

VFR weather mins

A

3 SM visibility

1,000 ft ceiling

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24
Q

Rotor brake limits

A 
Less than 170 rpm
13 seconds 
3 applications
5 mins cooling between applications
10 mins after the 3rd
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25
Q

Min Emergency Transient Nr

A

295 RPM

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26
Q

Min Stabilized Nr

A

320 RPM

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27
Q

Nr Min Operating Range

A

320-345 RPM

28
Q

Nr Continuous Operating Range

A

345-360 RPM

29
Q

Nr Restricted Power-On Operating Range

A

360-365 RPM

30
Q

Max Power Off Nr Range

A

360-395 RPM

31
Q

Max Power Off Nr

A

395 RPM

32
Q

Max Transient Nr

A

420 RPM

33
Q

Low Nr Horn Range

A

Less than 345 RPM

34
Q

Nr Overspeed Horn Range

A

Greater than 380 RPM

35
Q

Per the ORGMAN, MEDEVACs must be approved by ______ and should be have a conference call with _____.

A

District OPCEN/Flight Surgeon

Should involve PIC, flight surgeon, and SMC watcher stander.

37
Q

Flights beyond _____ miles offshore SHALL be:

A

75 NM

Specifically authorized by the Commanding Officer, Operations Officer or their acting representative.

38
Q

Flights beyond _____ NM offshore should:

A

75 NM

Request helicopter or fixed wing escorts. The launch, however, shall not be delayed for an escort.

39
Q

Local weather training mins:

A

500’ ceiling and 2 SM of visibility.

Less than 30 knots of wind/15 knot gust spread.

40
Q

Warranted risk for SAR: Saving human life

A

If a mission is likely to save a human life, it warrants the maximum effort. When no suitable alternative exists and the mission has a reasonable chance of success, the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft is acceptable even though such damage may render the aircraft unrecoverable. Probable loss of the aircrew is not acceptable risk.”

41
Q

Warranted risk for SAR: Preventing or relieving intense pain or suffering

A

If a mission is likely to prevent or relieve intense pain or suffering, or it may result in the possibility of saving human life, it warrants the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft if recovery of the aircraft can be reasonably expected.

42
Q

Warranted risk for SAR: Saving Property

A

If a mission is likely to save property of the United States or its citizens, it warrants the risk of damage to the aircraft if the value of the property to be saved is unquestionably greater than the cost of aircraft damage and the aircraft is fully expected to be recoverable.

43
Q

Warranted risk for Law Enforcement

A

The possibility of recovering evidence and interdicting or apprehending alleged violators of federal law does not warrant probable damage to or abuse of the aircraft. This guidance applies to flight activities performed during missions such as: Drug and Migrant Interdictions, routine PWCS, routine Defense Readiness, Marine Environmental Protection, Living Marine Resources, and other Law Enforcement missions.

44
Q

Warranted risk for Logistics and Other Missions

A

Logistics or other missions having little or no urgency shall not be prosecuted if they expose the aircraft to hazards greater than those encountered during the course of routine training missions. This guidance applies to flight activities performed during missions such as: Marine Safety, Ice Operations, ATON, and Waterways Management missions.

45
Q

The term LAND OR DITCH IMMEDIATELY is defined as:

A

Executing a landing or ditching without delay due to the seriousness of the malfunction. The primary consideration is to assure the survival of the occupants of the aircraft.

Warning: The potential loss of the airframe after aircrew egress is not sufficient cause to continue flight.

46
Q

The term LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE is defined as:

A

Executing a landing at the first site at which a safe landing can be made. The primary consideration is the urgency of the emergency.

47
Q

The term LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE means:

A

Extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight is at the discretion of the Pilot-in-Command.

48
Q

The term ABORT MISSION means:

A

That the aircraft shall not proceed on its assigned mission and should return to its desired recovery base.

The ABORT MISSION defining tin states an aircraft shall not proceed. However, given the urgency and foreseeable results, if the gain clearly outweighs the risk for a short duration, the crew may continue that portion of the mission.

49
Q

The term CONTINUE FLIGHT AS APPROPRIATE means:

A

Acknowledges that the aircraft is performing in a degraded mode. The PIC should consider mission urgency and the impact of the malfunction on safe aircraft operation when determining whether to proceed on an assigned mission.

50
Q

BINGO calculation is predicated on:

A

—81WOG—
8.0 on FLI
1,000’ PA
Wind (current)
OAT (current)
Gross Weight (current)

Direct to last waypoint in flight plan

51
Q

MRANGE calculation is based on:

A

—81WOG—
8.0 on FLI
1,000’ PA
Wind (current)
OAT (current)
Gross Weight (current)

Along current course

52
Q

RANGE is predicated on:

A

–WO FAG–
Wind (current)
OAT (current)

Fuel consumption rate (current)
Altitude (current)
Gross Weight (current)

Along present course

53
Q

MK-25 burn time:

A

10-20 mins

54
Q

MK-58 burn time:

A

40-60 mins

55
Q

The “ready” aircraft requires a flight mech and rescue swimmer be on board for flights:

A

Beyond 15 minutes from the AIRFAC/air station

56
Q

Passengers shall be approved:

A

By no lower than OPS

57
Q

For first-light searches, unless otherwise directed by the SMC, plan to:

A

Arrive on scene the search area AT SUNRISE.

58
Q

Operations beyond _____ miles offshore must:

Should:

A

Must be specifically authorized by CO/OPS or their acting representative.

Should request a fixed or rotary wing cover asset. However, you SHALL NOT delay for such cover.

59
Q

OPS approval is required for training flights with weather below:

A

500’ ceiling, 2 miles of vis

Winds: sustained greater than 30, gust spread greater than 15 knots.

60
Q

You shall _______ if you exceed a limit without an associated EP.

A

Land as soon as practicable.

Further flight is not authorized until an inspection is made by competent maintenance personnel and the aircraft has been cleared for further flight by the CO.

61
Q

Standard SAR call checklist:

A

“Fuck women and cool cats”

Fuel (do we have the gas, where can we refuel?)
Weather (do we have VFR/approaches available?)
Asset (are we the best platform? Alternatives?)
Comms (how are we gonna talk to vsl/SMC)
Call (OPS/CO/Huntress/Flight Surgeon)

62
Q

Practice approaches to the water in IMC require:

A

They’re prohibited yo!

63
Q

A practice single engine failure in forward flight may be completed to:

A

Running landing or continued flight

64
Q

Single engine failure in a low hover shall be:

A

From a hover not exceeding 10’ RADALT
w/ NR-HI
Over a smooth, hard surface with relative wind within 45 degrees of the nose.

65
Q

Prohibited maneuvers above 8,900 pounds

A

Shipboard landings
All RWAI and AUF training maneuvers
Practice single-engine maneuvers utilizing the training switch

66
Q

Prohibited maneuvers above 9,200 pounds

A

Prolonged hover operations (>1 min)

Operational AUF maneuvers

67
Q

Angle of bank limits

A 
At or above 110 KIAS, 45*
Below 110 KIAS, 60*
External load, 30*
With NR-HI, 40*
Takeoff and landing, 10*
68
Q

Dewatering pump deployment height

A

Below 25’ AWL (indirect method only)

USCG MH-65D ZDB (18 decks)

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