3710 Flashcards

3710 cards

0
Q

“A UAS crew member who is deployed aboard a ship may remain in a duty status indefinately, provided he or she has not exceeded an average of _____ flight hours per day for the previous seven days (including days prior to deployment).”

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

3710.1G Questions

A

Answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“If a member has not performed the mission or any periodic training requirements associated with a qualification within the preceeding 6 months, what is required?”

A

The individual shall successfully complete a qualification standardization check before the member is assigned to a mission requiring that qualification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A flight crew member shall not fly as a crewmember more than _____ hours in any seven consecutive days.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“A crewmwmber who is deployed aboard a ship may remain in a duty status indefinately, provided he or she has not exceeded an average of ____ flight hours per day for the previous seven days.”

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

”"”Saving human life”” True or false: When no suitable alternatives exist and the mission has a reasonable chance of success, the risk of damage to or abuse of the aircraft,even though such damage or abuse may render the aircraft unrecoverable is acceptable.”

A

True BUT probable loss of the aircrew is not an acceptable risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Voice recordings are considered a form of personally identifiable information and shall be protected in accordance with?

A

Privacy act of 1974

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Takeoff minimums: Visibility for operational missions

A

1/4 statute mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Takeoff minimums: Visibility for non-operational missions

A

1/2 statute mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Civilian pilots contracted to fly Coast Guard aircraft shall be managed IAW what manual?

A

“Contractor’s Flight and Ground Operations, COMDTINST M13020.3 (series)”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The passenger briefing shall cover AT LEAST: (8 items)

A
  1. Use of flotation equipment 2. Applicable alerting signals in event of emergency 3. Action required in case of ditching or crash landing 4. Location and operation of emergency exits and equipment 5. Seat belt rules and signals 6. Restrictions regarding electronic devices and firearms 7. Location and operation of supplemental oxygen 8. Tobacco use is not allowed aboard CG aircraft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A designation standardization check flight is required for redesignation if a member has no flights within the previous ___.

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Flight personnel shall not perform flight duties for ____ hours after exposure to low pressure chamber flight in excess of 30K ft

A

“12, may fly as a passenger in aircraft where cabin altitude does not exceed 10K ft.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Coast Guard Aviation has 3 separate processed which address mishaps:

A
  1. A mishap analysis board 2. An administrative investigation 3. An aviator evaluator board
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

“When no oxygen equipment is in use, an unpressurized aircraft may ascend to _______ft MSL provided it does not remain above 10,000 ft MSL for more than ____ min.”

A

“12,000ft 30min”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What manual would you reference for procedures on transferring an aircraft between reporting custodians?

A

CGTO PG-85-00-160 Aircraft Transfer Process Guide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Each pilot and aircrew member designated in rotary-wing aircraft shall have completed Underwater Egress Training (dunker) with no critical failures within the preceeding _____

A

75 calendar months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Each pilot of a pressurized aircraft shall have completed low pressure chamber training within the preceeding ____.

A

12 calendar years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

No UAS crew member may fly more than ____ total hours during any 14 consecutive day period.

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RWAI intercept training shall be conducted at a minimum of ___ ft.

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Transporting passengers originating from a headquarters aviation unit (e.g. ALC) requires approval by ______.

A

Commandant (CG-711)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Transporting passengers originating from the National Capitol region (NCR) requires approval by _____.

A

Vice Commandant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“Who amy approve trip-by-trip ““required use”” transportation of Coast Guard personnel when requested in writing and in advance, through the chain of command?”

A

The Judge Advocate General (TJAG) and Deputy Judge Advocate General (DJAG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or False: CO’s may authorize training or operational deployments of the combat rubber raiding craft (CRRC) from Coast Guard C-130 or C-144 aircraft.

A

False- C-130 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

“Units designated by Commandant (CG-DCO) to perform TAC-FR, RWAI and AVF CD are authorized to fly night formation flights for operational missions ONLY.”

A

False- Operational and training missions are authorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Practice autorotations shall be terminated with a power recovery at a minimum altitude of ____ft.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Recovery time is the total elapsed time from the occurrence of a mishap until____.

A

The aircrew is rescued.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

“Prior to a rest flight, the PIC shall signify receipt of the QA briefing and the intention to conduct the required functional checks by______.”

A

Signing and dating the QA briefing blocks in EAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

“Cockpit strategic naps: on an HC-144, naps shall be limited to _______ minutes, and all crew members shall be awakened _____ before a high workload anticipated event.”

A

40 minutes; 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aircraft shall not be taxied at any time within ____ft of obstructions.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Transporting passengers from outside the NCR requires approval by the appropriate ________.

A

Area Commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who approves fly overs/flight demonstrations?

A

The Area or District commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

“Media or general public shall not observe operation of C4ISR controls, displays or indicators without the direct approval of who?”

A

Operational commander & Commandant (CG-41)

33
Q

“Who is responsible to develop guidance and administer security programs and operations to ensure use of aircraft systems comply with OPSEC, INFOSEC, and communications security COMSEC policy?”

A

Operational commanders

34
Q

What classifications are missions flown in support of JIATF-S?

A

Unclassified/FOUO/Law Enforcement sensitive

35
Q

Proposed changes to the 3710.1G shall be submitted______

A

to Commandant (CG-711) via the requesting unit’s CO

36
Q

A flight crewmember shall not fly as a crewmember more than ___ hours during any 30 consecutive days.

A

125

37
Q

“True or False: The sterile cockpit rule is in effect below 3,000 ft AGL, except when in cruise flight.”

A

“False: 5,000 ft”

38
Q

True or False: Approval of Commandant (CG-0922) is required for representatives of the media to participate in operational orientation flights.

A

False: Notification is required but approval is not.

39
Q

Who can authorize aircraft flight without a VFDR?

A

Only the Commanding Officer

40
Q

Who shall provide subject matter experts as directed by Commandant (CG-711) for aircraft analysis?

A

Training Branch

41
Q

“Any transportation of senior Federal officials, their spouses, dependants, and any non-federal travelers during semiannual period shall be reported to Commandant(CG-711) using what form?”

A

GSA 3641

42
Q

“What manual defines specific command, district, area and headquarters responsibilities for the various elements of the salvage/recovery effort.”

A

The Aeronautical Engineering Maintenance Management Manual COMDTINST M13020.1G

43
Q

A flight crew member shall be relieved from all duty (including collateral duties) for not less than 24 consecutive hours at least once during any ___ days.

A

8

44
Q

When SHALL fire retardant flight gloves be worn?

A

“R/W: all ground and flight operations F/W: all ground operations, takeoffs, and landings”

45
Q

Personal protective clothing and equipment issued to aviation personnel shall be inspected _____.

A

annually and when reporting aboard a new unit

46
Q

How many nights are required to shift the body’s clock from 0000 to 0600 bedtime?

A

minimum 4 nights (maximum daily shift 90 minutes)

47
Q

“For operational units, what percent of all F/W and R/W flight hours should be dedicated to training?”

A

20% F/W 40% R/W

48
Q

“All Auxiliary pilots and observers must receive training in __________, __________, and _________ on an annual basis.”

A

“Water survival techniques, Emergency egress procedures, Use of survival equipment.”

49
Q

True or False: A mishap message is required when the oxymetazoline spray in the first aid kit is used.

A

True

50
Q

Who can delay the mission if conditions are not safe?

A

“PIC and CO (either, not both)”

51
Q

Each member shall have completed a designation standardization check in each aircraft type in which a designation is held and CRM refresher training within the preceeding _____months.

A

15

52
Q

A flight crew member shall not fly as a crew member more than ____ total military/civilian hours during any 365 consecutive days.

A

1100

53
Q

Aviation personnel are restricted from aerial flight for ____ hours after last alcohol use and must have no residual effects.

A

12

54
Q

A designation or redesignation syllabus is required if a member has no flights in the aircraft type in which he or she is designated within the preceeding _____.

A

12 months

55
Q

“True or False: If a flight crew member does not complete periodic training requirements or fails an evaluated event, the individual shall not fly except for the purposes of redesignation.”

A

TRUE

56
Q

Who is authorized to establish Environmental and Morale Leave (EML) programs subject to approval by Commandant (CG-DCO)?

A

District Commanders

57
Q

“Commanding Officers of air stations conducting aeromedical transportation flights shall maintain, for a minimum of ___years, a paper record for each aeromedical transportation flight.”

A

7

58
Q

A member must complete a qualification or requalification syllabus if he or she has not performed the mission or any periodic training requirements associated with the qualified within the preceeding _____.

A

12 months

59
Q

What manual outlines the duties of department heads at an air station?

A

3710.1G

60
Q

What are the special restrictions on pilot/aircrew assignment for flight verification checks?

A

None

61
Q

Cargo that is not considered mission essential may or may not be transported as the primary purpose of flight.

A

May

62
Q

Max flight hours in a 24 hour period (fixed wing pressurized)

A

“12, 16 crew mission hours”

63
Q

A near mid air or serious near mid air collision shall be treated as an aviation flight related class ___ mishap for safety reporting requirements.

A

D

64
Q

“What code on mode 3 are we authorized to squawk while on SAR when operating VFR to, from, or withina designated search area?”

A

1277

65
Q

“If flying over environmentally sensitive areas, maintain an altitude of no less than ____ ft AGL except during response or reconnaissance operations.”

A

2000

66
Q

Flight crew members shall have at least _____ hours off duty immediately before assuming alert duty.

A

10

67
Q

True or False: The possibility of recovering evidence and interdicting or apprehending alleged violators of federal law warrants probable damage to or abuse of the aircraft.

A

FALSE

68
Q

Who has primary authority for the operation of aircraft in the Coast Guard?

A

The Commandant 14U.S.C. 88 and 93

69
Q

“True or False: Risk of damage to or sacrifice of the aircraft and crew is acceptable if the gain is the defense of the United States, its citizens, and/or installations.”

A

TRUE

70
Q

“True or False: For SAR missions in which saving life is probable, crew utilization requirements may be waived by commanding officers on a calculated risk basis.”

A

TRUE

71
Q

“A new 24 hour period will begin any time a flight crew or non-crew member has completed ____ hours rest, regardless of duty status.”

A

10

72
Q

Can a crew be launched after being launched between the hours of 0300-sunrise the previous 2 days?

A

“NO, the crew must attain 24 hours of crew rest before assuming alert status from 0000-sunrise.”

73
Q

Anti-Exposure Garment requirements

A

“Water temp at or above 70 degrees F: No dry suit required, Water temp between 60 degrees F and 69 Air temp over 84 degrees F: no dry suit required(air temp below 85 degrees F: required), Water temp below 60 degrees F dry suit required regardless of air temp. “

74
Q

What are acceptable event status outcomes?

A

“Success, Delay, Abort, Cancel”

75
Q

“True or False: An Area, District, Sector, or Group Commander’s overflight reconnaissance of their area of operation for familiarization is a mission requirement.”

A

TRUE

76
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that cargo is loaded and unloaded safely?

A

PIC (Loadmaster should supervise but that does not diminish the PIC’s responsibility)

77
Q

The minimum UAS battery/fuel reserve shall be at least _____ after reaching the alternate recovery location.

A

20 minutes

78
Q

What training is required within a 60-day period after designation?

A
  1. Local Opsec/Comsec training 2. Training in the use of survival equipment and pyrotechnics 3. Operational hazard awareness training 4. Land survival training
79
Q

Alert duty is limited to ____ crew hours UNLESS adequate crew rest facilities are available.

A

12