AIRSTA SAV Standing Orders

Question 0

OPERATIONAL FLIGHT related reasons to call OPS include:

Answer 0

Any time a CG (incl Aux) aircraft:

(1) PELS or declares an emergency
(2) gets a flight violation
(3) goes lost comms
(4) lands with less than 200#
(5) after landing during cross country or remain over stops

Question 1

Call OPS when you have less than ______ aircraft.

Answer 1

Three Bravo

Question 2

FLIGHT PLANNING reasons to call OPS include:

Answer 2

Any unscheduled flights
Changes to mission or pilot assignment
Unable to meet readiness requirements for any reason
When the unit cannot or will not meet a mission request
Anytime you must delay a mission or are unable to complete it for whatever reason.
Short notice operational exercises.

Question 3

ADMIN reasons to call OPS

Answer 3

Less than 3 BRAVO aircraft
Injury to duty crew or personnel at the unit or damage to the station.
Changes to DEFCON, THREATCON, HURCON, or heavy weather bill is set.
Any complaints or criticisms of the unit
Disagreements between unit and outside agencies.

Question 4

Aircrews SHALL NOT takeoff for missions __________ without explicit approval from the OPERATIONS OFFICER

Answer 4

.8+ HAT score

Question 5

Aircrews SHALL NOT takeoff for missions __________ without explicit approval from the COMMANDING OFFICER

Answer 5

.95+ HAT score

Question 6

Unscheduled aircraft movement ______, at the least, be approved by ________.

Answer 6

SHALL be approved by the Operations Officer. CO, Sector, D7 are to be notified as soon as possible.

Question 7

For SAR diversion requests from units outside the CG, the diversion shall be approved no lower than ______.

Answer 7

OPS; notify CO/SECTOR/D7 as soon as possible

Question 8

The PIC _______ notify _______ prior to unscheduled missions. If mission urgency dictates, the HAT score is low or moderate, and _____ cannot be reached, the PIC may launch and the OWS will notify _____ as soon as possible.

Answer 8

The PIC SHALL notify OPS prior to unscheduled missions. If OPS cannot be reached, and score is below .8, PIC may launch and have OWS notify OPS as soon as possible.

Question 9

The “ready” aircraft requires a Flight Mech and Rescue Swimmer for flights that intend to go further than _____ from the Airsta/Airfac.

Answer 9

15 minutes

Question 10

Approval for passengers shall be given by no lower than _______.

Answer 10

OPS

Question 11

MEDEVACS require approval by ______.

Answer 11

D7

Question 12

The aircrew may/may not launch for MEDEVACs prior to D7 Flight Surgeon approval.

Answer 12

MAY, however, Flight Surgeon recommendation SHOULD be obtained prior to hoisting any patient.

Question 13

A phone conference between _____ should be made prior to MEDEVAC missions.

Answer 13

PIC, SAR Controller, and the Flight Surgeon.

Question 14

Whenever possible, the _____ should be brought for all MEDEVAC missions.

Answer 14

Rescue litter.

Question 15

Unless otherwise directed, plan to arrive _______ for first light searches.

Answer 15

ON SCENE AT SUNRISE

Question 16

For operations beyond ______ offshore, ______ must specifically authorize the mission.

Answer 16

75 NM offshore, CO/OPS or their acting representative.

Question 17

Initial flight planning for operations beyond ____ nautical miles offshore _____ assume a _____ fuel reserve.

Answer 17

Beyond 75 NM offshore SHALL assume a 400 pound fuel reserve; may lower on-scene

Question 18

For operations beyond 75 NM offshore, fixed/rotary wing cover _____ be requested. However, waiting for an escort _______ not delay launch.

Answer 18

SHOULD be requested; SHALL NOT delay the launch awaiting cover.

Question 19

Responsibility for the deconfliction of Warning/Restricted/ADIZ airspace rests with _______.

Answer 19

The Air Station

Question 20

OPS approval is required for training flights with weather below/forecast below:

Answer 20

500’ ceiling
2 SM visibility
30+ knot sustained winds
15+ knot gust spread

Question 21

Minimum air temperature for practice Rescue Swimmer operations is _____.

Answer 21

32 degrees Farenheight

Question 22

Practice night approaches to the water require:

Answer 22

Visual contact with the cover asset prior to commencing the approach.

Question 23

Daytime practice approaches to the water require:

Answer 23

Aircrew shall pass DATUM and final approach course to station maintaining your radio guard.

Question 24

Practice approaches to the water in IMC are ______.

Answer 24

PROHIBITED

Question 25

Right Seat Skills flights ______ not be conducted to Auxiliary vessels.

Answer 25

SHALL NOT

Question 26

Live survivors _____ not be hoisted in a litter for training.

Answer 26

SHALL NOT

Question 27

An _______ is required to be in the right seat for aircrew upgrade hoist training.

Answer 27

First Pilot or Aircraft Commander

Question 28

On all SAR flights, the PIC shall contact _____ upon any stop overs.

Answer 28

The SMC, OPS and the Airsta OPCEN.

Question 29

Following any unscheduled sortie, contact:

Answer 29

OPS and OPCEN

Question 30

For hotseat/hot gas to oncoming JZI crew, plan to be on deck at ______.

Answer 30

1215L; the off-going PIC shall notify SECTOR/D7 of any temporary gap in SAR coverage.

Question 31

Unless approved by ______, JZI aircrews _____ be on deck by_____.

Answer 31

Unless approved by OPS, JZI aircrews SHOULD be on deck by 2100L.

Question 32

If current or forecasted weather conditions are below ________, contact ________.

Answer 32

500’ ceiling
2 SM visibility
30+ KIAS sustained winds
15+ KIAS gust spread

Off-going and on-coming should contact OPS to discuss swap options

Question 33

________ is responsible for calling OPS for all JZI diversions.

Answer 33

The Air Station duty crew.

Question 34

Keep the JZI fuel bowser above ______.

Answer 34

2’ 6”
or
2:30

Question 35

For noise abatement, when conducting multiple practice instrument approaches and/or closed traffic patterns at Hunter AAF, fly through _______ on runway heading prior to making turns.

Answer 35

700’ AGL

Question 36

“SVFR clearance is required prior to operating in Class D and E surface areas if weather is less than _____. SVFR is not authorized if reported weather is less than _______.

Answer 36

1000’ ceiling
3 SM visibility

Not authorized (Day): 300' - 1/2 SM vis
                        (Night): 600' - 1 SM vis