FO CLASS #9 - Week of 40719 FFP–Missing Member in Distress MMID, ICS Ch 1,T.B.–Tools28,30,31&32,CFR-D Ch2,RegsCh12,13&15InstructorBC Ken Ruggiero.pdf

Question 1

1. BC Question - E99 and L100 are responding to a phone alarm for a report of an alarm ringing in a private dwelling. Upon arrival fire is blowing out one window on the 2nd floor of the 2 story private dwelling. Capt. Kanden of L100 transmits a 10-75 and proceeds to the front door of the dwelling with his inside team. Lt. Corrpez of E99 orders his members to start a 1 3⁄4” line to the front of the house. The roof firefighter proceeds to the roof, the LCC is in the front setting up the tower ladder, and the OV has made his way to the rear of the building. When the OV gets to the rear he sees a victim at a window on the second floor. The victim then falls to the floor inside the window as he is overcome by smoke. The OV immediately puts up a ladder, notifies his captain, and enters the building alone to make the rescue of the victim. While the OV is rescuing the victim the LCC starts to make his way to the rear but when he arrives the OV is already bringing the victim down the ladder. The OV transmits a 10-45 to the IC, B99, who has now arrived on the scene. After the rescue the fire is quickly extinguished, searches were conducted, and operations are concluded. The Deputy Chief, D9, never arrived as they were involved in an accident enroute to the scene. At this incident, who is responsible to complete a report since the OV entered the building alone to address a known life hazard? This report must be sent to whom? MMID Chapter 1 1.4 A. The Captain of L100 / Chief of the Department. B. The BC in B99 / Chief of Operations. C. The Captain of L100 / Chief of Operations. D. The BC in B99 / Chief of Department.

Answer 1

B - Note: In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted.

Question 2

2. When an understaffed Engine or Ladder Company, a unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters, is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position. However, if a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a known life hazard, not for standard search and rescue activity. E99 is understaffed and has just arrived at a fire on the 1st floor of a 3 story multiple dwelling. There is no indication of a life hazard, however the 1st floor hallway and stairway is charged with smoke. E99, the only unit on the scene, would be correct to take all but which of the actions listed below? MMID Ch. 1 2.1 A. Check and hook up to a hydrant. B. Conduct a size up of the scene. C. Transmit the appropriate radio signals. D. Position and raise a portable ladder. E. Stretch a hoseline to the hallway on the 1st floor near the entrance to the fire apartment.

Answer 2

E -  Stretching a hoseline to outside the IDLH atmosphere

Question 3

3. A Safety Team must be available at all times and shall normally be made up of the Backup and Control firefighters of the second arriving engine. However, there will be times when entry into an IDLH atmosphere is necessary prior to the arrival of the first two engine companies. Listed below are four different situations where units operated alone at fires prior to the arrival of the 1st two Engine companies and the FAST Unit. Which safety team was composed of the wrong members? MMID Ch. 1 2.1.1 A. The Officer of L100, staffed with 5 firefighters, designated the safety team as the LCC and the Roof Firefighter. B. The Officer of L99, staffed with 4 firefighters, designated the safety team as the LCC and the Roof firefighter. C. The Officer of E99, staffed with 5 firefighters, designated the safety team as the Control and Door firefighters. D. The Officers of E98 and L101, both staffed with 5 firefighters, designated the safety team as the Control firefighter and the LCC.

Answer 3

A - 5 FF Ladder-The Safety Team is composed of the LCC firefighter and the OV firefighter.

Question 4

4. BC Question - BC Bongino is working a day tour in B99 and responded to two fires at which he was the 1st due Chief. At which fire(s) did BC Bongino not operate in accordance with FDNY procedures? 2.2, 2.3 Fire 1: Fire 2: The fire started in the kitchen on the 1st floor of a 2 story private dwelling, was quickly extinguished, and there was no extension. The 1st due truck called for relief and the FAST Unit Officer told BC Bongino that they were ready to go. BC Bongino special called an additional truck and ordered the FAST Unit to continue to operate as the FAST unit since the fire was not yet declared under control. The fire started in a rear bedroom of apartment 2A on the 2nd floor of a 3 story MD. The fire was quickly extinguished and there was no extension. When the FAST Unit arrived, they informed BC Bongino that they were staffed with 4 firefighters. BC Bongino immediately called for an additional FAST truck to replace the original FAST unit since that unit was not fully staffed. A. BC Bongino operated correctly at both fires. B. BC Bongino operated incorrectly at both fires. C. BC Bongino operated incorrectly at Fire 1 only. D. BC Bongino operated incorrectly at Fire 2 only.

Answer 4

C - In some situations, a ladder company staffed with four firefighters may be assigned as a FAST unit.

Question 5

5. The purpose of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) is to be immediately available to assist a member who becomes trapped, distressed, or involved in other serious life threatening situations. Which point about the FAST unit is not correct? 2.1, 3 A. The dispatcher shall allocate a ladder company which shall be designated as the FAST Unit, upon transmission of signals 10-60, 10-66, 10-75, 10-76, and 10-77. The dispatcher will notify the assigned unit that it is designated as the FAST Unit and notify the IC of the identity of the responding FAST Unit. B. Upon arrival, the FAST unit officer shall verify that the IC is aware of the unit’s presence and designation as the FAST unit. If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall REMIND the IC of their FAST designation. C. The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post (ICP), within visual contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed. An EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit shall report to a Division vehicle on the scene to monitor the EFAS and the FAST Radio. D. The FAST officer should bring an up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include any CIDS information that is available. The officer of the FAST Unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP, unless otherwise directed by the IC.

Answer 5

C - The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the Incident Command Post (ICP), within verbal contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed.

Question 6

6. L100 was operating as the FAST unit at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 2 story private dwelling when they were deployed to help remove the control firefighter from the 1st due Engine, E99. The control firefighter slipped and fell on the staircase leading to the second floor and may have broken his ankle. Which transmission given by members of the FAST unit, L100, was incorrect? 4.3, 4.4 A. “L100 FAST to Command, we are at the location of the downed firefighter”. B. “L100 FAST Roof to L100 FAST, I have the FAST Pak ready if you need it”. C. “L100 FAST to E99, we have your control firefighter and are removing him now” D. “L100 FAST OV to command, be advised there is still fire blowing out 1 window in the rear”.

Answer 6

B - Communication between FAST Unit members does not require the use of the word FAST after the unit designation. Ex: “Ladder 157 CAN to Ladder 157”

Question 7

7. In addition to the normally assigned ladder company tools, the FAST Unit shall report to the ICP, in all situations, with all of the following equipment except which one? 8 A. Life Saving Rope and the Life Belt. B. FAST Pak. C. Pak-Tracker. D. Stokes Basket with long backboard. E. Search Rope

Answer 7

A -  FAST Pak  Search Rope  Stokes Basket with long backboard  2:1 Rope  Pak-Tracker Note: A member other than the member monitoring EFAS will monitor the Pak-Tracker. “PQRST” P-FAST Pak Q- Normal eQuipment R- search Rope S- Stokes Basket w/ long board T- Two to one rope

Question 8

8. All members of the FAST Unit should be fully prepared to operate upon arrival and must be ready for immediate deployment as directed by the IC. Which point about the operation of the FAST unit is incorrect? 5.1, 5.2 A. A member must be assigned the FAST Pak and is responsible to manage the air supply of the distressed member, if needed. B. If a member is EFAS trained, upon arrival, he/she must report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. This FAST Unit member shall remain in the Battalion vehicle and monitor both EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Radio for the duration of the incident, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment. C. If a member is not EFAS trained, upon arrival, he/she must report to the Battalion vehicle on scene to monitor both EFAS and the FAST Radio Board. This FAST Unit member shall remain in the Battalion vehicle and monitor both EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Radio for the duration of the incident, unless the FAST Unit is given an assignment. D. A survey of the fire building should be done by the FAST unit to determine the following: Access for portable ladders, presence of fire escapes and party wall balconies, the type and location of stairs and elevators, and any obstructions that would hinder access to any side of the structure.

Answer 8

C - If the member is not EFAS trained, upon arrival, report to a Battalion vehicle on scene to monitor the FAST Radio Board. The member assigned the FAST Radio shall remain in the Battalion vehicle and monitor the FAST Radio for the duration of the incident, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment. Note: Whether EFAS trained or not, the FAST Unit member assigned to monitor EFAS and/or the FAST Radio shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment, until relieved.

Question 9

9. During a drill at the Rock regarding FAST unit operations, members of L100 made the following three points and were correct in all but which? A. When the FAST Unit operation requires the use of a ladder, avoid repositioning ladders already in place against a fire building unless it is a life threatening situation and a notification is made to the members operating in that area. Ladders in place may be providing a means of egress for operating firefighters. B. When the FAST Unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting member of the FAST Unit shall depress the EAB on the downed member’s handie-talkie. This will identify the member of the FAST Unit transmitting the emergency message on EFAS and the FAST Radio and will also ensure the message is transmitted at the maximum wattage. C. When the FAST unit arrives at the location of a downed member they should assess fire, air, immediate medical care, and removal. D. The FAST Unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings.

Answer 9

B -  If possible, depress the EAB of the member in distress.

Question 10

10. Which suffix designations listed below are correctly indicated? (More than one correct). Comm. Man. Ch. 2, 2.12.3 A. “K” indicates Rescue Task Force on a 10-66 signal. B. “G” indicates FAST Group Supervisor. C. “L” indicates Firefighter Locator Officer. D. “S” indicates Staging Area Manager assigned on a 10-66.

Answer 10

B, C

Question 11

11. When a member needs to be rescued, all other members on the scene must be well versed in the proper use, care, and limitations of the equipment used to rescue the downed member. Which point below is not entirely correct about this lifesaving equipment? MMID Ch. 3 Add 2 and 3

A. The DRD can be deployed to assist in the removal of a non-ambulatory injured or unconscious member. The DRD is designed for horizontal drags and can be used to pull members up a stairway.
B. Nylon tubular webbing comes in 20’ lengths, has a breaking strength 4000 lbs., has a knotted breaking strength 3000 lbs., and must be made into a continuous loop before use by using a water knot.

C. Nylon tubular webbing shall only be used for dragging victims; no vertical lifts should be attempted. Each Officer and member will be issued a length of webbing which will become part of the member’s personal equipment.
D. To requisition replacement lengths of webbing the Officer on Duty should forward an RT-2 to the tool room. The webbing can be cleaned with mild soap and water, allowed to dry naturally avoiding direct sunlight, and should be inspected monthly and after each use.

Answer 11

A - NOTE: Any attempt to use the device for other than a horizontal drag could result in the member slipping out of their bunker coat. In addition, serious injury could occur to member’s upper torso. Members should not be dragged up stairs utilizing the DRD.

Question 12

12. When a mayday is transmitted for a firefighter that is lost, missing, trapped, or in distress time will not be on your side. This is why it is essential that units follow department procedures regarding firefighter removal. Which point about firefighter removal is not correct? MMID Ch.3, 2.1, 3.1, 4.1, 5.3

A. It is important to emphasize that the operating units continue to fight the fire when a mayday/urgent is transmitted for a distressed firefighter. The abandonment of Engine or Ladder company operations places the trapped member and the rescuing firefighters in severe danger.
B. The Company Officer of the FAST unit should never get physically involved in the firefighter removal operation. It is the responsibility of the officer to supervise the operation and keep the members focused with the job at hand.

C. When the member has been located, the appropriate radio transmissions must be made. Whether or not the removal involves a conscious or unconscious member, the priorities will be fire/environment, air, immediate medical care, and removal.
D. It is important to transmit a clear and concise message with the appropriate information. An unclear message will only cause confusion and delays. When wearing the facepiece, the microphone must be placed directly on the voicemitter.

Answer 12

B - Unless there is no one else available the Company Officer should not get physically involved in the operation.

Question 13

13. Lt. Beck is working a day tour in L100 and has just arrived with his unit at a fire on the 1st floor of a 2 story flat roof private dwelling. L100 is the FAST unit and after reporting into the command post they hear a mayday from the Irons FF from L99. The member who gave the mayday says he is having chest pains and can’t walk out of the building. The IC quickly deploys L100 to go remove the Irons FF from L99. Lt. Beck and his can FF quickly locate the Irons FF from L99 and begin to assess his condition. Lt. Beck calls the other members of his FAST Team and says they just need the Stokes Basket and removal will be quick. The Roof FF from L100 calls Lt. Beck and asks if he wants the FAST Pak in addition to the Stokes Basket. Lt. Beck says they only need the Stokes Basket as the Irons FF from L99 has plenty of air left in his cylinder. Do you agree or disagree with Lt. Beck’s actions at this fire? A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 13

D - 7.2 Once the member is located, a FAST Pak must be called for immediately, regardless of whether the member has air or not.

Question 14

14. When members arrive at the location of a downed firefighter it is of critical importance to determine if the member has air or not. Listed below are four ways to determine if the unconscious member has air or not. Which two are not described correctly? (More than one correct). MMID Ch. 3, 7.6

Turn the purge valve. If there is air, the flow will be heard.

If the facepiece is on, remove the regulator from the facepiece and listen for air escaping.

Look at the remote gauge of the downed member.

Look at the cylinder gauge of the downed member.

Answer 14

B & D -

7.6 If unable to determine if an unconscious member has air or not, supply the member with air. There are three ways to determine whether the member has air:

 Turn the purge valve. If there is air, the flow will be heard.

 If the facepiece is on, break the seal between the member’s face and facepiece and

listen for air escaping.

 Look at the remote gauge of the downed member.

Question 15

15. Members of L100 were drilling on firefighter removal and made the following points. Which was the only correct point made at this drill? MMID Ch. 3, 7.4, 7.5, 7.7, 7.9

Members in distress should not remove their facepiece unless their air supply is depleted.

It is a good practice to use the facepiece with the FAST Pak as the member’s facepiece may

be damaged.
C. Air may be supplied to the member through the use of the low pressure system by one of the following methods: FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece, Hansen fitting of the low pressure hose, or the FAST Pak facepiece and regulator.
D. The UAC is for emergency use only when a member is low or out of air within an IDLH. If the condition of the distressed member’s SCBA is in doubt use caution when providing air via the high pressure system.

Answer 15

C - If the condition of the distressed member’s SCBA is in doubt DO NOT provide air via the high pressure system. - Use the downed member’s facepiece, unless it is damaged or missing, instead of the facepiece with the FAST Pak. The member might require a special size facepiece, and using their personal facepiece will provide a better seal. -

Air may be supplied to the member through the use of the low pressure system by one of the following methods:

 FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece.

 Hansen Fitting of the low pressure hose.

 FAST Pak facepiece and regulator.

Question 16

16. Once a member is distress is located and the proper radio transmissions have been made, the member needs to be properly identified to ensure it is the member originally reported in distress. Which point about identifying a member is incorrect? MMID Ch. 3, 10

A. If the member is unconscious, positioning him/her on their left side as this will provide access to the member’s name on back of their bunker coat and the PRA ID number on the mask. B. If the member is unconscious, depress the EAB of the member in distress if possible. The activation of the distressed member’s EAB will identify them in EFAS. Notify the IC via handie- talkie prior to EAB activation of the distressed member.

C. If the member is unconscious, and you are unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB, key the mic on the distressed member’s handie-talkie to obtain their identity in EFAS.
D. To accurately identify the distressed member by the use of the Pak-Tracker and EFAS, it is imperative that all members ensure that both the SCBA and the handie-talkie coincide with their assigned position.

Answer 16

A - Positioning them on their right side (Photo 1) will provide access to the following:

Question 17

17. Members should be familiar with the proper packaging techniques and basic removal methods so that in the event of a downed member, removal can be accomplished quickly and efficiently. Which point about firefighter removal is not correct? MMID Ch. 3,

A. When an unconscious firefighter is found, it is more effective to attempt a quick removal of the member rather than get involved in the slower work of packaging the firefighter.
B. If possible, position the member so that their back is facing toward the direction of removal prior to starting the packaging process.

C. An operating member/unit that locates and starts the packaging process of the distressed member will most likely will be fatigued and have a diminished air supply. Turning the operation over to the dedicated FAST Unit upon their arrival will facilitate the timely removal of the distressed member.

D. Packaging a conscious member is not always required for removal. In most situations, packaging an unconscious member will be required for removal. The method used to package the member will be determined by the type and the degree of difficulty involved in the removal.

Answer 17

A - When an unconscious firefighter is found, it is more effective to take the time to package the member prior to attempting removal. Attempting removal before packaging will delay the removal, and may pull the member out of their SCBA harness and bunker gear.

Question 18

18. Members of L100 were conducting a drill in quarters which involved removing a downed firefighter. In the scenario, the downed firefighter was located at the bottom of the basement stairs and needs to be brought up and out of the basement. In order to make the drill more realistic, Lt. Smith had one of his firefighters lie at the bottom of the stairs and act as the downed / unconscious firefighter. Lt. Smith told his firefighter to don all of his PPE and get a mask off the rig to use in the drill. The firefighter returned in his gear and a mask from L100 and the members did the drill. After the drill the firefighter who was acting as the downed / unconscious firefighter showed the proby how to repack the DRD since the members used it to assist in carrying him up the stairs. Did the members follow FDNY procedure in conducting this drill? MMID Ch. 2, Addendum 2, Ch. 3, Addendum 2

A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 18

D - NOTE: Any attempt to use the device for other than a horizontal drag could result in the member slipping out of their bunker coat. In addition, serious injury could occur to member’s upper torso. Members should not be dragged up stairs utilizing the DRD.

Question 19

19. BC Question - An Incident Commander (IC) must manage the emergency incident to which they are assigned. The IC must develop strategies and tactics to stabilize and eventually control the emergency. Which action(s) taken by the IC is/are not correct? (More than one incorrect) MMID Ch. 4, 2.3, 3.2, 7.1, 7.2

A. The IC shall immediately notify the dispatcher when the FAST unit is being put to work and request a replacement FAST unit. The IC shall also announce over the handie-talkie tactical channel, that the FAST unit has been assigned to address the member in distress and all units shall continue with their present assignment.

B. The IC shall announce the FAST unit’s arrival and identity over the handie-talkie at the scene. On receipt of this announcement, the members performing the duties of the Safety Team shall return to their original assignments.
C. When a mayday/urgent has been transmitted for a member in distress, the IC shall immediately acknowledge the mayday/urgent transmission. Additionally, the identity of the member transmitting the message should be verified by the member assigned to monitor EFAS. D. The FAST unit shall not be returned to service prior to their arrival on the scene unless the incident is placed “Under Control”. The FAST unit shall not be used to provide relief for operating units until the fire has been declared “Probably Will Hold”.

Answer 19

C, D - - Prior to acknowledging the MayDay/Urgent transmission, pause momentarily to obtain the transmitting member’s Internal Radio Identification Code, which may be obtained from either the Battalion HT or FAST Radio - The FAST unit shall not be used to provide relief for operating units until the fire has been declared “Under Control”.

Question 20

20. BC Question - BC Knowitall is working a day tour and is operating as the IC at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5 story MD. The fire was in apartment 3B and contained to the kitchen and living room. BC Knowitall transmitted a 10-75 and shortly thereafter the all hands. After the fire was knocked down and the primary searches were completed, the Officer from the 1st due truck calls BC Knowitall and asks for relief. BC Knowitall orders the FAST Unit to go ahead and relieve the 1st due truck and then calls for an additional truck to replace the FAST Unit. DC Jones has now arrived on the scene and is very upset with BC Knowitall since he ordered the FAST Unit to work prior to the fire being placed under control. In this situation which action below must now be taken? MMID Ch. 4, 8.1

A. BC Knowitall must forward a report to the Chief of Department and notify the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”.
B. DC Jones must forward a report to the Chief of Operations and notify the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”.

C. BC Knowitall must forward a report to the Chief of Operations and DC Jones must notify the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”.
D. BC Knowitall must forward a report to the Chief of Department and DC Jones must notify the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”.

Answer 20

C - Anytime a designated FAST unit is put to work at an operation for other than FAST duties prior to the operation being declared “Under Control”, the Deputy Chief shall notify the respective Borough Commander or Command Chief immediately after the incident is “Under Control”. Additionally, the IC who ordered the FAST unit into operation shall forward a detailed report of such duties via the chain of command to the Chief of Operations. This report shall include the circumstances necessitating the use of the FAST unit and all actions taken by the FAST unit.

Question 21

21. FF Harris, who is not the sharpest tool in the shed, was drilling with the two new probys assigned to his company. FF Harris made the following three points:

Point 1: If the FAST Pak is not with you when you encounter a downed firefighter, await the arrival of the FAST Pak before starting removal procedures.
Point 2: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve fully open to allow a constant flow of air.

Point 3: Once clear of the IDLH environment, stop and assess the medical needs of the distressed member. Address situations that are immediately life threatening.

Which points are not correct?

MMID Ch. 3, 7.8, 7.9, 8.1

A. All are incorrect.
B. 1 and 2 are incorrect.
C. 2 and 3 are incorrect.
D. All are correct.
E. 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Answer 21

B - If the FAST Pak is NOT at your location, START the removal procedure. Communicate with the member assigned the FAST Pak to determine a suitable location to meet. - Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half way to allow a constant flow of air.

Question 22

22. When a decision has been made to convert a downed member’s SCBA into a harness, it is beneficial to move the firefighter to a sitting position providing we do not suspect any type of spinal injury. Once in a sitting position, rotate the member, if possible, so that their back is facing toward the direction of removal. All of the following are benefits of moving the firefighter to a sitting position except for which one? MMID Add.1, 2.1

A. It will be easier for SOC units to locate the Schrader fitting.

B. It will allow full control over the distressed member. This will help prevent members not assigned to the removal process from moving the distressed member prior to the completion of the packaging.
C. It reduces the member’s size in half, which will be beneficial in tight locations.
D. Allows easier access to the SCBA low pressure hose, facepiece, and both shoulder and waist straps.

Answer 22

A -  It will be easier to locate the Universal Air Connection.

Question 23

23. In order to implement HT channel 16 for a FAST Group, a communication plan must be established. This plan will allow communications to continue on the fireground without hampering fire operations and firefighter rescue operations. From the choices below please indicate which members were not on the correct channels during a FAST Group operation. MMID Ch. 5, Add. 1
    A. FF Removal Officer (Rescue Battalion Chief) on Channel 16. - FF Removal Officer’s Aide on Channel 1.
    B. FF Locator Officer (Battalion Chief) on Channel 16. - FF Locator’s Officer’s Aide on Channel 1.
    C. FAST Unit on Channel 16. - FF assigned the FAST Radio on Channel 1.
    D. FAST Group Supervisor on Channel 2. - FAST Group Supervisor’s Aide on Channel 16.

Answer 23

D -  FAST Group Supervisor on Ch-16.
 FAST Group Supervisor’s Aide on Ch-1

Question 24

24. BC Question - All hands with an extra Engine and Truck are working at a fire in a 1 story 100’ x 50’ taxpayer. BC Knowitall is in command and the all hands Chief, BC Wiggum, is commanding operations inside the taxpayer. The Deputy is still enroute and has not yet arrived on the scene. Things seem to be progressing well when all of a sudden the Can Firefighter from the 1st due Truck transmits a mayday and says that the drop ceiling collapsed and that he is trapped. BC Knowitall immediately deploys the FAST Unit to assist the trapped firefighter. The trapped firefighter tells BC Knowitall that he has ¾ of a tank of air and that he is about 15’ from the front door. The 1st due Engine also calls command and tells BC Knowitall that they have water on the fire and should have the fire knocked down shortly. Rescue 7, the FAST Unit, and BC Wiggum are at the location of the trapped firefighter and are in the process of removing him. The trapped firefighter has a laceration on his forehead from where the helmet dug into it when the ceiling fell, other than that he is not injured. BC Wiggum calls BC Knowitall and tells him that they should have the firefighter removed in about 3 minutes. BC Wiggum then asks BC Knowitall “Did you transmit a 10-66?” BC Knowitall would be correct to answer BC Wiggum how? MMID Ch. 5,1.2
    A. “I did not transmit a 10-66 because I don’t think it’s necessary in this situation”.
    B. “Yes I transmitted a 10-66 since the firefighter is trapped and this signal must be transmitted when a member is trapped”.

Answer 24

A - Note: The signal 10-66 need not be transmitted when the IC determines a situation
involving a lost, missing, trapped or seriously injured member does not require additional
resources and can be mitigated using the units on scene.

Question 25

25. During a recent day tour Lt. Levine, L100, and his members were listening to the radio and monitoring operations at a fire in a 2 ½ story private dwelling when they hear the IC transmit a 10-66 for a member who is lost. The dispatcher notifies the IC that the full 2nd alarm has been transmitted and the additional units on the 10-66 have also been dispatched. With that transmission L100 gets a ticket to respond and is assigned as the 2nd due truck on the second alarm. Which unit(s) listed below should report to and remain at the staging area until ordered to the scene? (More than one correct). MMID Ch. 5, 3.3
    A. L100, 2nd due truck on the 2nd alarm.
    B. L101, the additional FAST Unit.
    C. E99, the CFR-D Engine.
    D. E98, the 1st due Engine on the 2nd alarm.
    E. Rescue 7, the Rescue Co. that is part of the Rescue Task Force.

Answer 25

A & D - On transmission of the next higher alarm, which is part of signal 10-66, all units other
than Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed
by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area until ordered to the scene
(under the supervision of a Staging Area Manager).

All units assigned on the 10-66 shall report to the Staging Area except

Real Silly Suckers Face Castration

• Rescue
• Squad
• SOC Support Ladder
• FAST Unit
• CFR Engine

Question 26

26. When a member(s) who were the subject of a 10-66 are located and removed to a safe area we must follow certain procedures regarding the mayday and the 10-66 signal. Which choice below is correct? MMID Ch. 5, 4.3, 4.4
    A. When the distressed member is removed the Mayday should be cancelled and the 10-66 signal resolved.
    B. When the distressed member is in a safe area and adequate resources are on the scene to treat and remove the member, the Mayday should be cancelled and the 10-66 signal resolved.
    C. When the distressed member is removed the Mayday should be resolved and the 10-66 signal cancelled.
    D. When the distressed member is in a safe area and adequate resources are on the scene to treat and remove the member, the Mayday should be resolved and the 10-66 signal cancelled.

Answer 26

D - The Mayday
shall not be considered resolved until such time the member(s) has been moved to a safe
area.

Question 27

27. The FAST Group should be under the direct supervision of a Chief Officer who has no other duties and will be designated as the “FAST Group Supervisor”. Any available chief on the scene may be assigned to this position. The FAST Group Supervisor shall coordinate and control all search, rescue, removal, and medical treatment of the affected member. If a Chief Officer is not initially available to be the FAST Group Supervisor, which Officer(s) listed below can fulfill this function until the arrival of a Chief Officer? (More than one correct.) MMID Ch. 5, 2.2.3
    A. The Officer of L100 who’s unit is standing fast awaiting an assignment.
    B. The Officer of E99 who’s unit is standing fast awaiting an assignment.
    C. The Officer of a Rescue Co. operating at the scene.
    D. The Officer of a Squad Co. operating at the scene.
    E. The Officer of L101 who’s unit is a SOC Support Ladder Co.

Answer 27

C or D - If a Chief Officer is not available initially, a SOC Unit
Officer may temporarily be designated the FAST Group Supervisor.

Question 28

28. BC Question - A group of Captains studying for the BC test were discussing the managing members in distress bulletin and made the following three points. Which point was not correct? MMID Ch. 5, 2.4.1,
    A. A Battalion Chief shall be designated as the Firefighter Locator Officer and shall coordinate all efforts to establish the victim’s last seen point and assist the RUL in conducting a roll call of units. Any Officer can fulfill this position until the arrival of a Chief Officer.
    B. The IC shall announce on all handie-talkie channels in use that a rescue plan has been implemented, and the identity of the units assigned to the FAST Group. This action will reassure the affected member that assistance is on the way and will also help to discourage freelancing of members not assigned to the FAST Group.
    C. Upon arrival, the Rescue Operations Battalion will assume the duties of Firefighter Removal Officer, supervising all extrication efforts. The Firefighter Removal Officer shall work in conjunction with the FAST Group Supervisor.

Answer 28

A - If no on-scene Chiefs are available
for this assignment, one of the additional Chiefs shall immediately be assigned
this duty.

Question 29

29. BC Question - Making the proper notifications when a member is missing, lost, trapped, or seriously injured can be critical to the member’s survival. Which point about the 10-66 signal is not correct? MMID Ch. 5, Section 7
    A. The signal 10-66 can be used on the company handie-talkie to replace a Mayday transmission.
    B. The signal 10-66 shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via Department radio, once it has been verified that a member is missing, lost, trapped or seriously injured, and additional resources are required to locate and/or rescue the member.
    C. After the transmission of a 10-66, a full description of the incident shall be transmitted to the dispatcher via Department radio e.g., “one member trapped on the fire floor”.
    D. The IC shall use a cell phone to keep FDOC advised, in addition to using the Department radio for progress reports.

Answer 29

A - Signal 10-66 shall not be used on the company handie-talkie to replace a Mayday
transmission.

Question 30

30. BC Question - It is important for members transmitting information to the dispatcher to follow certain procedures to protect the identity of members who may be injured or in other serious situations. Which point below is incorrect regarding these transmissions to the dispatcher? MMID Ch. 5, 7.2, 7.3, Communications Manual Ch. 8, 8.2.5, 8.2.6
    A. The name or unit number of a member with a minor injury may be transmitted over the Department radio after requesting a mixer off message.
    B. The signal 10-66 shall only be transmitted via Department radio, by or at the direction of the IC. The signal 10-66 shall be transmitted as a mixer off message and the initial 10-66 notification shall include the name and the unit number of the affected member.
    C. The initial notification of a fatality or serious injury to an on-duty member shall be made to the dispatcher via a mixer off message and shall not include the name or unit number of the fatally or seriously injured member.
    D. Once the signal 10-66 has been transmitted, all additional notifications regarding affected member(s) shall be made to the dispatcher via a mixer off message.

Answer 30

B - The initial signal
10-66 notification shall not include the name or unit number of the affected member.

Question 31

31. BC Question - A more difficult situation exists when the identity and/or location of the missing member(s) cannot be determined such as when there is a collapse. In this situation an immediate roll call of units shall be conducted. Sector Supervisors, if appropriate, can conduct the roll call in their own sectors. When conducting an emergency roll call in a situation such as a collapse the roll call shall? MMID Ch. 5, 5.1
    A. Start with the first units to arrive on the scene.
    B. Can be started however the IC deems appropriate.
    C. Start with the last units to arrive on the scene.
    D. Start with units in the most severely exposed positions.

Answer 31

D

Question 32

32. BC Question - The IC must assign a Street Coordinator Manager when the signal 10-66 is transmitted. The early assignment of a Street Coordinator Manager will prevent needless congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates. This Street Coordinator Manager shall be responsible for establishing contact with PD and EMS Officers to ensure traffic flow, ensuring access/egress of other essential vehicles, and positioning needed apparatus for the most efficient use to name a few. From the choices listed below who can staff the Street Coordinator Manager position? MMID Ch. 5, 6.1
    A. Only a Chief Officer.
    B. Only a Company Officer.
    C. A Chief or a Company Officer.
    D. This is a Police Officers duty.

Answer 32

C - The IC must assign a chief/company officer as a Street Coordinator Manager when signal
10-66 is transmitted.

Question 33

1. The Incident Command System will improve safety by providing better accountability of personnel and improved use of resources and tactical effectiveness. ICS breaks down the elements that are required to successfully manage an incident into five main functions. From the choices below which is not one of the five main functions? ICS Ch. 1, 1.4
   A. Command
   B. Finance
   C. Safety
   D. Operations
   E. Logistics

Answer 33

C - The functions are: COMMAND, PLANNING, OPERATIONS,
LOGISTICS, and FINANCE/ADMINISTRATION

Question 34

2. BC Question - A Captain studying for the Battalion Chiefs test should know that if he is assigned as the resource unit leader at a large operation where the Incident Command System has been set up, he would be correct to report to which Chief listed below? 4.2
   A. The Planning Section Chief.
   B. The Operations Section Chief.
   C. The Incident Commander.
   D. The Logistics Section Chief.

Answer 34

A

Question 35

3. The Incident Commander has the option of implementing a Command Staff when the Incident Command System is established. Which Officer listed below is not part of the IC’s Command Staff? 4.1.7
   A. The Safety Officer.
   B. The Public Information Officer.
   C. The Operations Section Chief.
   D. The Liaison Officer.

Answer 35

C-

SAFETY
PUBLIC INFORMATION
LIAISON

Question 36

4. Safety and sound management practices dictate that a reasonable span of control exists. The organizational options within the ICS are designed to provide span of control ratios that meet these requirements. Which point is correct regarding the “span of control”? ICS 3.2
   A. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should, in all situations, range from three to seven with five being ideal.
   B. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from three to seven with five being ideal.
   C. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should, in all situations, range from five to nine with seven being ideal.
   D. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from five to nine with seven being ideal.

Answer 36

B - 4. Safety and sound management practices dictate that a reasonable span of control exists. The organizational options within the ICS are designed to provide span of control ratios that meet these requirements. Which point is correct regarding the “span of control”? ICS 3.2
A. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should, in all situations, range from three to seven with five being ideal.
B. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from three to seven with five being ideal.
C. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should, in all situations, range from five to nine with seven being ideal.
D. In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from five to nine with seven being ideal.

Question 37

5. During a class at FLSTP, new Lieutenants were receiving a class on the Incident Command System. Which point made by the instructor was not entirely correct? ICS Ch. 1, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1.1
   A. The Incident Command System provides for the following kinds of operations: single jurisdiction and single agency, single jurisdiction and multi-agency, and multi-jurisdiction and multi-agency involvement.
   B. The ICS provides basic elements in organization, standard terminology, and procedures that ensure efficient operations by trained personnel. It can be implemented with a minimum of disruption to existing procedures and provides the means for adding or subtracting resources.
   C. If any function is not delegated, it remains the responsibility of the Incident Commander(s). The use of common terminology ensures that all members are able to communicate effectively.
   D. The Incident Command System organizational structure is capable of adapting to any type of large incident to which the Department responds. The ICS is not suitable for small incidents and should not be used in those situations..

Answer 37

D - This organizational structure is capable of adapting to any type or size incident to which
the Department responds.

Question 38

6. To maintain a manageable span of control, improve communication, and improve control and coordination single resources may be combined into sectors and groups. Which is they only point about sectors and groups that is correct? 4.3.1
   A. A sector defines the activities and operations of resources within an assigned geographical area. For example, the IC might form a sector from units operating in an exposure. A Sector Supervisor manages a sector.
   B. A group consists of resources formed to address specific functional tasks. For example, the IC forms a group to search specific floors of a high rise building. A Group Director manages a group.
   C. While groups are restricted to a specific geographical area such as an exposure, sectors may cross established boundaries to accomplish an assigned functional task (e.g., search).
   D. When a group is assigned a task or function that overlaps sector boundaries, the sector is still responsible for the task or function. Groups and sectors coordinate their efforts and report to the next higher level of command.

Answer 38

A - A Group Supervisor manages a group. - While sectors are restricted to a specific geographical area such as
an exposure, groups may cross sector boundaries to accomplish an
assigned functional task - While sectors are restricted to a specific geographical area such as
an exposure, groups may cross sector boundaries to accomplish an
assigned functional task

Question 39

8. During a drill members were discussing the Incident Command System and made the following four random points. Which point listed below is not correct? 3.5.1, 3.5.2, 3.8.3, 4.3.3
   A. Under unified command, each department and/or agency will maintain control over its own personnel. This enables all involved agencies to perform their roles effectively, minimize inefficiency, and avoid duplication of effort.
   B. The goal of a unified command is to develop a single collective approach to managing an incident. The departments act as one organization and are managed as such. Each agency however, will have its own command post and can operate independently if necessary.
   C. All resources at the incident are assigned a status. In ICS, once resources are allocated to an incident, they are assigned to one of three status conditions: Available - ready for immediate assignment, assigned - performing an active assignment and out of service/R&R - not ready for assignment.
   D. Initially, the IC can manage the staging area. If the position of Operations is staffed, staging reports to Operations since this Chief now is managing the tactical part of the Incident Action Plan. The Operations Section allocates the available resources from a defined staging area.

Answer 39

B - The goal of this concept is to develop a single collective approach to managing an
incident. The departments act as “one organization” and are managed as such.
Instead of several command posts operating independently, the operation is
directed from only one “Command Post.”

Question 40

7. The Officer or Chief in charge of a team, sector, group, branch etc. will have a specific designation. From the choices below, which designation is not correctly listed? 4.3.1, 4.3.2
   A. A group supervisor manages a group.
   B. A team leader supervises a team.
   C. A task force leader supervisors a task force.
   D. A branch director manages a branch.
   E. A strike team supervisor supervises a strike team.

Answer 40

E - Strike Team - Specific combinations of the same kind and type of
resources with common communications, under the supervision of an
Officer designated as a Strike Team Leader (e.g., five engine companies
and a Chief Officer assigned to brand patrol at a multiple alarm).

Question 41

1. Members of E99 have just arrived at a nursing home for a report of a person in cardiac arrest in room 2B. Upon arrival the firefighters find a 95 year old man in cardiac arrest and as soon as the nursing home staff sees the firefighters they quickly disappear. Members of E99 immediately start CPR and follow all FDNY procedures. After a few minutes a nursing home employee hands Lt. Hernandez a DNR order and tells Lt. Hernandez that this patient just moved into this nursing home last week. The DNR order Lt. Hernandez is looking at was written by the last nursing home that this patient lived in, it has a valid date (not expired), has a physician’s signature, and is on the old nursing homes DNR form. In this situation Lt. Hernandez would be correct to give which order? CFRD Ch.2, Add. 1
   A. Order his members to discontinue CPR since the DNR has a current date and is on the old Nursing homes DNR form.
   B. Order his members to continue CPR because once CPR is started it can’t be discontinued for any reason.
   C. Order his members to continue CPR since the DNR is not considered valid in this situation.
   D. Order his members to discontinue CPR since valid DNR orders can never be revoked.

Answer 41

C - Hospital
and Nursing Home DNR Forms may be honored ONLY if the patient originates from the
nursing home or hospital that issued the Order.

Question 42

2. Later on during the same tour E99 responds to another report of a female patient in cardiac arrest. Upon arrival members of E99 find a female in cardiac arrest on the 1st floor of a private dwelling. As members start to assess the patient, the patient’s daughter presents them with a valid out of hospital New York State DNR form which has a current date and is signed by the family physician. Members review the DNR a find it to be valid and do not start CPR. The patient’s daughter says that she wants the members to honor the DNR but the patient’s son says that he wants the members to do CPR. The brother is starting to get agitated and is yelling at the members to start CPR. In this situation members would be correct to take which action? CFRD Ch.2 , Add 1
   A. Since a confrontation appears likely members should begin CPR.
   B. Since the DNR is valid do not start CPR and call the police to deal with the patient’s son.

Answer 42

A - A DNR Order shall be disregarded and full resuscitative efforts shall be initiated in any
of the following circumstances:
 Any case where there is reasonable evidence to suggest that the DNR Order has been
revoked or cancelled.
 If the patient is conscious and states that they wish resuscitative measures.
 If the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member is present and
requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely
to result if the request is denied.
 A physician directs that the Order be disregarded.

Question 43

3. Listed below are different legal documents that units may encounter in the field. Which of the following legal documents is/are recognized in the pre hospital environment? CFRD Ch. 2, Add 1, Section 3
   A. A Health Care Proxy.
   B. A Medical Order for Life Sustaining Treatment that contains a valid DNR Order.
   C. A Living Will.
   D. A Power of Attorney document.

Answer 43

B - Medical Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (MOLST) – NYSDOH form DOH-5003
(Appendix C) that documents a patient’s end-of-life care preferences that may include, but
is not limited to DNR and/or Do Not Intubate (DNI) Orders. For purposes of this policy,
a MOLST form without a DNR Order is not sufficient for the withholding of CPR.

Question 44

4. The role of the Certified First Responder-Defibrillation (CFR-D) provider is to be the first tier of the EMS system and to provide the initial assessment and resuscitative care until BLS or ALS arrives. Which point below is correct? CFRD Ch. 2, 1.7, 1.8,
   A. Company Officers of CFR-D Units shall ensure that two (2) CFR-D Firefighters will be working each tour. Officers shall notify their respective Battalion for needed details prior to the start of the tour.
   B. In order to be in service as a CFR-D Unit, there shall be a minimum of two (2) trained members (Firefighters only) with current CFR-D Certification.
   C. While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two (2) certified Firefighters, in the event that during a tour the minimum CFR-D staffing reduces to 1 Firefighter and 1 Officer, the Company shall be out of service for CFR-D responses.
   D. Without two CFR-D certified members, the Company shall not respond to any type of CFR-D call. If a call is received directly from the public to assist civilians, the OOS unit will notify the dispatcher to assign a properly staffed unit.

Answer 44

A - In order to be in service as a CFR-D Unit, there shall be a minimum of two (2) trained
members (Firefighters or Officer) with current CFR-D Certification.
NOTE: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two (2) certified Firefighters, in the
event that during a tour the minimum CFR-D staffing reduces to 1 Firefighter and 1
Officer, the Company shall remain available for CFR-D response.- Without two CFR-D certified members, the Company shall not respond to
any CFR-D calls. The Company may still be dispatched for calls received
directly from the public to assist civilians.

Question 45

5. During roll call in E99, Lt. Johnson was giving out the riding assignments along with the CFR-D assignments. In which choice below did Lt. Johnson give out an incorrect CFR-D assignment? CFRD Ch. 2, 2.1
   A. FF. Levine was assigned as the airway firefighter and is responsible for manually stabilizing the patient’s spine if trauma is suspected. FF Levine will open and maintain the airway, administer oxygen if needed, and should carry the oxygen bag.
   B. FF. Cruz was assigned as the checker and is responsible for conducting patient assessment and performing any hands-on care. In response to a cardiac arrest, FF Cruz will check for a pulse, begin compressions, and shall carry the trauma bag.
   C. Since E99 is staffed with 5 firefighters, FF Wright was assigned as the equipment FF and should initially remain with the apparatus to help carry any additional equipment that may be needed.
   D. Lt. Johnson said that he will be assigned as the boss and will carry a flashlight and a handie talkie. Lt. Johnson will also complete the PCR to properly document patient care.

Answer 45

D - “D” Defib/Documenter – Firefighter responsible for completing the Pre-Hospital
Care Report (PCR). In a response to a cardiac arrest, hooks up and operates the
defibrillator.

Question 46

6. After operating at CFR-D runs members must ensure that they have the proper supplies and equipment in order to be prepared for the next CFR-D run. Additionally members must take the appropriate steps if decontamination is needed. An Engine Co. would be out of service for both fire duty and CFR-D responses in all of the following situations except which one? CFR-D Ch. 2, 3.16.1, 3.16.2
   A. FF Smith, who was wearing his bunker pants only, realized he had some blood from a patient on his arm. FF Smith had to decontaminate himself.
   B. FF Jones, who was wearing his bunker gear, was performing CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest and was kneeling in vomit in order to perform chest compressions.
   C. FF Murphy was operating at the scene of a patient who was hit by a car and accidentally placed the trauma bag on the ground which was covered in blood contaminating the bag.
   D. E99 did CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest and used their defibrillator. After the patient was transported members realized that they did not have any more defibrillator pads available and the battery on the defibrillator was very low.

Answer 46

D - If equipment has been left with the patient or supplies have been expended and
the Company does not have the minimum amount specified in Chapter 4 section
2.1, the Company is to go back in service for fire duty but advise the borough fire
dispatcher and the Battalion that it is not available for CFR-D responses.

Question 47

7. Members of L100 are very interested CFR-D program and were drilling on the topic. During the drill members made the following four points and were incorrect in which one listed below? CFRD Ch. 2, 3.9.1, 3.10.1. 3.11, 3.12, 3.13
   A. When requesting an ambulance, Companies must provide the following information to the dispatcher: CUPS status, age, chief complaint, if CPR is initiated, and pulse and respiratory rate.
   B. If a patient is CRITICAL or UNSTABLE, packaging efforts must begin immediately while treating life threats. If a patient is POTENTIALLY UNSTABLE or STABLE, perform the appropriate focused physical exam for the patient.
   C. A PCR is required whenever a CFR-D Company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR-D assignment whether or not patient care is provided. This serves to document the Companies actions.
   D. Individuals may identify themselves as patients or may be identified to the Company as such by family, friends or bystanders. An individual is considered a patient if the individual is sick or injured, or the individual was exposed to a situation or condition that could have the potential to cause injury.

Answer 47

C - A PCR is not required when a CFR-D Company is on-scene (10-84) at any
CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.

Question 48

8. During a recent day tour E99 had two runs; please indicate in which choice below did E99 take a correct action? CFRD Ch. 2, 3.18. Communications Ch.6, 6.5.2
   Run 1: This was a run for a report of a male patient having a heart attack. As E99 was responding they were flagged down at an intersection for a person who fell while crossing the street. E99 located the patient who appeared to have a broken arm. Members of E99 began patient care, notified the dispatcher that they were flagged down for a verbal, and that they were going to stay on the scene and treat the patient. E99 remained on the scene until FDNY EMTs arrived and took over patient care. The dispatcher sent another CFRD Engine to the original run.
   Run 2: E99 was responding to a fire in a private dwelling and while enroute came across a small rubbish fire in a vacant lot. Lt. Kay then told his members that they had to stop to extinguish this fire in this situation.
   A. E99 was correct in both situations above.
   B. E99 was correct on Run 1 only.
   C. E99 was correct on Run 2 only.
   D. E99 was incorrect on both Runs.

Answer 48

B - In the event the unit is responding to another alarm and it is evident human
life is not in jeopardy at the scene of the verbal alarm, the unit shall proceed
to the original alarm after transmitting radio notification of a verbal alarm to
dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement. -

Question 49

9. E238 is enroute to a CFR-D run for a report of an unconscious patient in front of 224 Monitor Street. Upon arrival members of E238 do not see anybody at all in front of 224 Monitor Street. The Officer from E238 would be correct to take all but which of the following actions? CFRD Ch. 2, 4.7
   A. Members of E238 looked around the area in front the address, including inside the fenced in area in front of the address, and also the adjoining areas.
   B. After a complete search of the area, the Officer from E238 reviewed the response printout for additional information as to incident location, cross street, dwelling or unit number, and any other pertinent information provided in the comment section of the response ticket.
   C. After rechecking the information provided, no patient was found so the Officer of E238 verified the information with the dispatcher and asked for a 10-7.
   D. After the dispatcher told E238 that they had nothing further, members of E238 asked two people who were passing by if they knew the location of the patient. After the passerby’s said they didn’t know where the patient was the Officer transmitted a 10-91 and put E238 10-8.

Answer 49

D - If no patient is found after the above efforts have been exhausted, the Officer in
Charge shall enter a 10-92 via MDT (therefore canceling the EMS response) and
return to service

Question 50

10. Members of the NYPD Emergency Service Unit are trained as EMT’s or Paramedics and are therefore a higher level of medical authority than CFR-D Units. Please indicate which choice below is not correct when dealing with ESU. CFR-D Ch. 2, 4.13
    A. If the NYPD ESU EMTs arrive on the scene and assume the role of the higher level pre-hospital care provider and assume responsibility for patient care, the Company shall release the patient to ESU in all situations.
    B. If a CFR-D Unit arrives on the scene of a medical emergency and the NYPD Emergency Service Unit has already initiated patient care, then the ESU EMTs retain responsibility for patient care.
    C. If the NYPD ESU has already initiated patient care the Officer of the CFR-D Unit shall ascertain from ESU if any further assistance is required from the CFR-D Unit. If no assistance is required, the Officer shall transmit signal 10-91 and go 10-8.
    D. If the ESU EMT’s ask the CFR-D unit for assistance, the ESU EMTs shall have medical authority at the scene until the arrival of an ambulance. In this situation a PCR is required to be completed by the CFRD Unit.

Answer 50

A - However, if ESU is not equipped with a SAED, the CFR-D Unit shall retain
patient care responsibilities as per the Regional Coordination of Pre-hospital
Resources Protocol.
Note: A PCR is not required when a CFR-D Company is on-scene (10-84) at any
CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.

Question 51

11. Members of E99 are operating at a CFR-D run in a restaurant where a patient was choking and is now in cardiac arrest. EMS has not yet arrived on the scene when a civilian approaches the members of E99 and says that he is a medical doctor and wants to take over patient care. The officer and members of E99 should follow all but which procedure below? CFRD Ch. 2, 4.12
    A. The Officer of E99 asked the doctor to produce proper identification.
    B. E99 accepted the doctor’s assistance, immediately notified the dispatcher that a doctor was on the scene, and asked that EMS be notified.
    C. The Officer told his members to perform within their scope of practice but to follow any order given by the doctor.
    D. The Officer of E99 asked the doctor for his 6 digit New York State license number so he could document it on the PCR.

Answer 51

C - Members must
continue to perform within their scope of practice and not do anything they are not
trained to do.

Question 52

12. In the event that a CFR-D Unit needs medical advice during a CFR-D response, the Unit may telephone the FDNY/EMS telemetry physician if a telephone is available. Before calling telemetry the Unit shall have completed the primary survey, C.U.P.S. status determination, and should identify themselves as a CFR-D unit. Members who are CFR-D trained would know that the phone number for the FDNY EMS telemetry physician can be found where? CFRD Ch. 2, 5.3
    A. Posted on the Officers side dashboard in the apparatus.
    B. Posted on a laminated card carried in the trauma bag.
    C. Posted on a laminated card carried in the defib bag.
    D. Posted on the chart holding the unit’s PCR forms.

Answer 52

D

Question 53

13. Members of E99 were discussing CFR-D operations when minors are sick, injured, or when child abuse is suspected. Which point made during this discussion was not entirely correct? 6.1
    A. When a CFR-D Unit suspects child abuse, the circumstances of the suspected abuse shall be reported to EMS at the scene. The Officer shall make an entry in the company journal upon return to quarters including the names and unit ID of those notified.
    B. If a minor is suffering from an illness or injury that is non-urgent in nature, treatment should still be provided unless the parent or guardian refuses to allow this treatment.
    C. Where a minor is found to be suffering from a life-threatening illness or injury, immediate medical intervention must be provided unless the parent/guardian refuses to give consent.
    D. If a parent or guardian will not allow treatment to be rendered, members should carefully explain the reason(s) for the treatment, what intervention is necessary to correct the problem and the consequences if the injury/illness is not treated.

Answer 53

C - In the event a parent or legal guardian refuses permission for medical
treatment for their minors, treatment should nonetheless be provided
whenever the minor is:
1. suffering from a life-threatening illness or injury and
2. it is apparent that a delay in treatment, even if minimal, would
jeopardize the minor’s life.

Question 54

14. E99 and L100 have just arrived at the scene of a serious two car accident where two people are pinned in their cars. Captain Smith is working in E99 and Lt. Baker is working in L100. EMS paramedics have just arrived on the scene along with an EMS Deputy Chief who is an EMT. Please choose the correct point below. CFR-D Ch. 2, 8.2
    A. The EMS Deputy Chief is the overall Incident Commander and is responsible for all decisions including patient care decisions.
    B. The EMS Paramedics are in charge of all patient care decisions and Capt. Smith is the overall Incident Commander.
    C. Capt. Smith is the overall Incident Commander and is in charge of all decisions including patient care decisions.
    D. The EMS Paramedics are in charge of all patient care decisions and the EMS Deputy Chief is the overall Incident Commander.

Answer 54

B - NOTE: Whenever Units of the Bureau of Operations and the Emergency Medical Service
are operating at an incident, the ranking Fire Officer on the scene is the Incident
Commander. - The ranking Fire Suppression officer shall consult with and be guided by the highest
level pre-hospital emergency medical provider at the scene for patient care decisions.

Question 55

1. A glow stick is a single-use translucent plastic tube containing isolated substances which when combined produce light through a chemical reaction-induced chemiluminescence. Which point below is the only correct one regarding glow sticks? TB Tools 30
   A. Glow sticks are water resistant, do not use batteries, generate a small amount of heat, and can tolerate low pressures such as those found underwater.
   B. Glow sticks can be carried in any compartment on the apparatus and should be kept in their original packaging away from direct sunlight. Heat and humidity will not affect their life span.
   C. Glow sticks have been issued to all units. Each unit shall carry at least 10 glow sticks on their apparatus. Glow sticks will provide up to 12 hours of illumination.
   D. Glow sticks are activated by shaking the tube which mixes the internal chemicals. The glow stick should be shaken until it glows evenly.

Answer 55

C - Glow sticks are waterproof, do not use batteries, generate no heat or noise, and are
disposable. They can tolerate high pressures, such as those found underwater. - Glow sticks shall be carried in a cool dry compartment on the apparatus, in their original
packaging, away from direct sunlight. Heat and humidity will shorten their life span. - Glow sticks are activated by bending the tube which breaks the internal glass capsule
allowing the chemicals to mix together. The glow stick is shaken until it glows evenly.

Question 56

2. Listed below are six points about the cordless rebar cutter. Please indicate which two points are incorrect? TB Tools 28
   A. The rebar cutter can be used to cut wrought iron fences up to 1 inch in diameter. The rebar cutter can be used to cut case hardened steel rods or locks.
   B. The rebar cutter is safe to use in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. flammable liquids, gases, or dusts. This tool does not create sparks.
   C. Caution must be exercised when cutting an object with a free unsupported end. To avoid injury, material being cut should be secured.
   D. Do not point the cutting head towards any person when operating. Cut pieces of metal can fly off with tremendous force.
   E. Do not replenish hydraulic oil when the tool is warm. Before each operation, verify that the cutting blades are sharp and securely tightened.
   F. Do not overreach, do not hold the work (bar) by hand or against your body, and do not force the tool. Use the correct tool for the application at hand.

Answer 56

A & B - It can also be used to cut wrought
iron fences up to 5/8” in diameter - DO NOT operate this tool in an explosive atmosphere, e.g. flammable liquids, gases or
dusts. This tool creates sparks, which may ignite the dust or fumes.

Question 57

3. Positive pressure fans can be used to pressurize the attack and evacuation stairs in FPMD’s, to ventilate a building with high CO readings, and to ventilate large structures or areas of smoke and gases. Which point about the positive pressure fans is not correct? TB Tools 32
   A. The PPV fans should never be transported while in operation. If the fan needs to be moved it shall be shut down before transportation.
   B. PPV fans shall never be refueled inside a structure. If the fan needs to be refueled at an extended operation, the fan shall be shut down and moved to an outside area remote from any foot traffic to be refueled.
   C. PPV fans shall be inspected daily at the start of the 9x6 tour. At MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes. A visual inspection of the fan belt and tightness check should be conducted prior to starting the fan.
   D. When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses should, if possible be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure. Stairwell pressurization shall not be initiated until authorized by the Officer of the Vent Support Unit.

Answer 57

D - When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating
fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure.

Question 58

4. Listed below are the six components of the sound powered telephone system. Please indicate which one is not described correctly. TB Tools 31
   A. A headset consists of a microphone and two ear cups which are connected by a strap and has a male connector. Headsets have less interference and background noise then handsets.
   B. A handset resembles and functions like a standard telephone handset and has a male connector.
   C. The wire reel consists of a 400 foot-long wire wound around the reel inside a plastic case, with a 3 foot-long fixed wire coming out of the side of the reel. Both ends of the wire reel have female connectors.
   D. The jumper cord is a small wire with two male connectors. A jumper cord is used between two female connectors.
   E. A Y connector is a short section that is used to split the sound powered telephone system to allow additional communication points. The Y connector has one male and two female connections.
   F. Amplifiers increase the volume of verbal transmissions and are required to be used when using the sound powered phones. The talk level knob that controls the volume shall be placed in the middle setting when in use.

Answer 58

F - Amplifiers - increase the volume of verbal transmissions, but are not required to be used.

Question 59

5. During MUD on a Saturday morning members were drilling with the sound powered phones and set up the phones to enhance the drill. Members made the following four points about the use of the sound powered phones and were incorrect in which point? TB Tools 31
   A. Specific members shall be dedicated to maintain the SPT communications link. Each shall be paired with another member who monitors HT communications.
   B. Similar to conventional telephones, sound powered phones emit a ringing or buzzing sound when communications are initiated. A member must constantly listen for the ringing or buzzer sound.
   C. When transmitting messages, speak loudly and clearly, keeping the mouthpiece close to your face. As with HT transmissions, use the term “K” to indicate the end of your transmission.
   D. A member using a headset in a standby position (awaiting a transmission) should cover the mouthpiece with his or her hand. This will reduce the background noise which might be transmitted through the wire.

Answer 59

B - Unlike conventional telephones, sound powered phones do not emit a ringing or buzzing
sound when communications are initiated. A member monitoring a sound powered
phone must constantly listen to the headset/handset in case another member is
transmitting a message.

Question 60

6. Lt. Carter is in charge of the subway unit at the Rock and was teaching a class about sound powered telephones to the new probies. The probies should correct Lt. Carter in which point listed below? TB Tools 31
   A. NYCT has installed two types of hard-wired SPT systems: Street to Station and Street to Tunnel. There is usually no connection from one SPT system to another e.g., from an under river tunnel system to a nearby station. All SPT connectors within the NYCT are located in locked metal boxes that are adjacent to standpipe siamese or outlets. Boxes containing SPT jacks require a 1620 key to open.
   B. SPT on the platform or mezzanine level are located in red metal boxes inside the stainless steel standpipe cabinets. Standpipe cabinets are identified by a sign located above the standpipe outlet, showing a white hose on a red background. Combination standpipe/SPT boxes may be located on columns or on a station wall. If there is no SPT outlet located in the standpipe outlet box, look in the surrounding area for a small individual cabinet.
   C. Street to Tunnel SPT systems usually include a specific pair of tubes. For example, members in the Brooklyn-bound Clark Street tubes could speak to others in the Manhattan-bound Clark Street tube and the can speak to members operating in a completely different tunnel or tube. SPT connector are typically located inside the emergency exits on both sides of the under river tubes. In the under river tubes, SPT connectors are found at standpipe outlets; approximately 600 feet apart.

Answer 60

C - Street to Tunnel SPT systems usually include a specific pair of tubes. For
example, members in the Brooklyn-bound Clark Street tubes could speak to
others in the Manhattan-bound Clark Street tube, but they cannot speak to
members operating in a completely different tunnel or tube.

Question 61

1. A group of Lieutenants are in the middle of an 8 hour study group session and are discussing the duties and responsibilities of company commanders. Which duty and responsibility listed below is not correct? Regulations Ch. 13, 13.2
   A. Engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 1/2” and not less than four lengths of 1 3/4” hose (one of the 1 ¾” lengths must have a nozzle attached). Ladder companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4” hose (rolled or folded) and the necessary fittings to place a line in operation.
   B. A current inventory of hose shall be maintained in the office record journal recording size, kind, registered number, manufacturer, year of issue, and disposition.
   C. Company commanders shall arrange, on each Saturday on the 9x6 tour, for the operation of all motors and pumps of special unit apparatus stored in quarters and shall cause a thorough weekly inspection of aerial, tower, and portable ladders.
   D. Doors or windows of apparatus shall not be removed without written permission from the officer in command of Fleet Services. Additionally, Company commanders shall make sure that studs on wheels of apparatus are not painted.

Answer 61

A - Engine companies shall carry not less than three lengths of 2 1/2” and not less
than three lengths of 1 3/4” hose (rolled or folded). Ladder companies shall
carry not less than three lengths of 1 3/4” hose (rolled or folded) and the
necessary fittings to place a line in operation including, but not limited to,
appropriate hydrant wrenches, reducers, nozzles, etc.

Question 62

2. The Officer on duty is responsible for the movements of the apparatus during his/her tour. Listed below are four instances during a day tour in E99 where the apparatus left quarters. In which choice did the Officer of E99 not follow FDNY procedures? Regulation Ch. 13, 13.3
   A. E99 left quarters each time they received a run and once when they were special called to a 10-77.
   B. E99 left quarters to conduct building inspections and then again after lunch to check hydrants.
   C. E99 went out after roll call so that they could train a new Engine Company Chauffer.
   D. E99 left quarters to procure the meal. They stayed within their 1st alarm response area and completed this within 60 minutes.

Answer 62

D - 2. The Officer on duty is responsible for the movements of the apparatus during his/her tour. Listed below are four instances during a day tour in E99 where the apparatus left quarters. In which choice did the Officer of E99 not follow FDNY procedures? Regulation Ch. 13, 13.3
A. E99 left quarters each time they received a run and once when they were special called to a 10-77.
B. E99 left quarters to conduct building inspections and then again after lunch to check hydrants.
C. E99 went out after roll call so that they could train a new Engine Company Chauffer.
D. E99 left quarters to procure the meal. They stayed within their 1st alarm response area and completed this within 60 minutes.

Question 63

3. During a day tour in E99, Lt. Sharp took the following actions and was only correct in which one? Regulations Ch. 13, 13.3
   A. E99 was responding to a call for wires down when the ECC noticed that a cross link of the snow chain was broken. Lt. Sharp ordered the ECC to stop and remove the broken link.
   B. After the 0900 roll call Lt. Sharp supervised the inspection of each mask carried on E99. He also took a mark in the company journal with the results of the inspection.
   C. When the ECC told Lt. Smith that the air horn was not working Lt. Sharp placed E99 OOS since both the air horn and the electronic siren are required for a unit to be in service.
   D. Just after lunch one of the firefighters son asked Lt. Smith is his son, who stopped by to visit, can take in a few runs. Lt. Smith said yes as long as he wears his seat belt.

Answer 63

B - Members in charge of Department vehicles shall permit only on-duty members
as recorded on unit’s riding list (BF-4) to ride upon such vehicles. Variations of
this section are permitted only with the advanced approval of the Chief of
Operations. - In the case where the unit is equipped
with another operating audible device, such as an air horn and emergency lights
(both are required), the unit will remain in service. If there is no audible signal
or emergency lights, a spare apparatus shall be requested. - When apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, except while responding to
fires or emergencies, and cross links of snow chains break or become loose,
officer in command of apparatus shall cause apparatus to stop immediately and
have the condition corrected by removing loose or broken-links with bolt
cutters

Question 64

4. Company officers shall collect house assessments (house tax) from members and such tax shall be paid bi-weekly. Which member listed below is not required to pay house assessments (house tax)? Regulations Ch. 15, 15.1.15,
   A. FF Wright is light duty and is assigned to a RAC Unit and does the ABCD schedule.
   B. FF Gooden who has been on ML for 30 days and is expected to be on ML for another 10 days.
   C. FF Hernandez who is on his terminal leaves and is getting ready to retire.
   D. FF Cohen who is on military leave for 2 weeks in a row.

Answer 64

B - House assessments shall be paid by members in accordance with the following
instructions:
A. Members performing duty in accordance with the official chart.
B. Members performing other duties, not in accordance with official chart,
which include night tours in company quarters.
C. Members on continuous medical leave not exceeding one month.
D. Members on terminal leave.
E. Members on other types of leaves, except indefinite military leaves.
F. House assessments shall be paid in units where assigned, or, in the event
detail exceeds 30 days, in unit where detailed.
G. Covering and relief officers shall pay in assigned units. Such assessments
shall be distributed by division and battalion commanders to units under
respective commands.
H. Members transferred between payroll periods shall pay in unit to which
transferred.

Question 65

House assessments shall be paid by members in accordance with the following
instructions:
A. Members performing duty in accordance with the official chart.
B. Members performing other duties, not in accordance with official chart,
which include night tours in company quarters.
C. Members on continuous medical leave not exceeding one month.
D. Members on terminal leave.
E. Members on other types of leaves, except indefinite military leaves.
F. House assessments shall be paid in units where assigned, or, in the event
detail exceeds 30 days, in unit where detailed.
G. Covering and relief officers shall pay in assigned units. Such assessments
shall be distributed by division and battalion commanders to units under
respective commands.
H. Members transferred between payroll periods shall pay in unit to which
transferred.

Answer 65

A, F - Inside the front cover of journal there shall be affixed an accurate and current
company roster.- Pages 500 running backward to 498, inclusive, shall be ruled and indexed to
record visits of chief officer. - Records shall be maintained in Company Journals of all training sessions
conducted. For uniformity, pages 495 to 497 of such journals shall be used for
this purpose, using the following headings: - Records shall be maintained in Company Journals of all training sessions
conducted. For uniformity, pages 495 to 497 of such journals shall be used for
this purpose, using the following headings: