FO CLASS #1 - Week of 12019FFP–HR Pgs 1-26, Comm. Man, Ch.2&3,T.B.–Ropes1,2&3,Haz Mat 10-13,T.B.–Tools1&4 BC Mike Barvels

Question 1

1) Which feature below would not normally be found in a high-rise office building built before 1945? (HR 2.2)
A) The construction techniques used in these buildings resulted in a “heavy-weight” building, usually weighing about 20 to 23 pounds per cubic foot.
B) Exterior walls were substantially tied to all floors. Core construction techniques were used extensively.
C) Plenum type ceilings are generally not found in these buildings. Exterior windows were openable.
D) All buildings erected between 1938 and 1968 were required to have a fire tower. Some built prior to 1938 have fire towers.

Answer 1

1. B
2. 4 CLASS “E” HIGH-RISE OFFICE BUILDINGS BUILT AFTER 1968
3. 4.12 Core construction techniques are used extensively.

Question 2

2) Which point below is incorrect when describing the features found in high-rise office buildings built between 1945 and 1968? (HR 2.3)
A) The construction techniques used resulted in a “medium-weight” building, usually weighing between 10 and 20 pounds per cubic foot.
B) Fire towers will not be found in these buildings.
C) The characteristics of these buildings are a mix of the pre 1945 buildings and the post 1968 buildings.
D) These buildings were required to conform to the 1938 Building Code but because of the numerous variances granted, they used many of the construction techniques of the post-1968 buildings.

Answer 2

2. B

2. 3.2 Fire towers were required in all of these buildings.

Question 3

3) Which feature below would not normally be found in a high-rise office building built after 1968)? (HR 2.4)
A) The construction techniques used in these buildings resulted in a “lightweight” building, usually weighing about 8 to 10 pounds per cubic foot.
B) The method of securing exterior curtain walls leaves a space of 6 to 12 inches which requires additional fire stopping.
C) The ceiling plenums of these buildings are extensive and lack fire stopping. They are used to return the air to the air-conditioning system and for electrical, communications and other building support equipment.
D) Exterior windows will be openable. Core construction techniques are used extensively.

Answer 3

3. D

2. 4.9 Exterior windows are usually not openable.

Question 4

4) Lt Smith was conducting a drill on air flow in high-rise buildings. In which comment below was Lt Smith incorrect? (3.2.1 Note, 3.2.7, 3.2.8 B 3, 2, 3)
A) Central air conditioning systems are most commonly found in high-rise office buildings and create the most problems during a fire.
B) In a typical centrally air-conditioned high-rise building the large volume of air required precludes the use of a single HVAC system. Usually found are a number of HVAC systems each supplying a group of floors. These groups are referred to as HVAC systems supply zones
C) Air flows through ductwork located in the plenums as it returns to the return airshaft.
D) Fire dampers will be found in supply ducts where the ducts meet the supply airshaft and wherever they pass through a rated fire partition. Fire dampers will also be found where the air enters the return airshaft from the plenum on each floor and wherever the air flows through a rated fire partition.

Answer 4

4. C
5. The air flows through the plenums to the return airshaft. The return air in
   the plenums is not ducted.

Question 5

5) BC Question - Which choice below contains incorrect information related to fire protection in a typical high rise office building’s HVAC system? (HR 3.4.1, 3.4.2)
A) Automatic closure of fire dampers is usually affected upon operation of an approved fusible link or other approved heat activated device located where they would be readily affected by an abnormal rise in temperature in the duct.
B) Fusible links should have a temperature rating approximately 50º F above the maximum temperature that would normally be encountered with the system in operation or shut down.
C) Once a fire damper has closed it must be manually opened before air can pass though the opening it is protecting.
D) Activation of any approved smoke/fixed temperature detector installed in an HVAC system shall stop the air supply into and the air return from the affected floor and the floor above.

Answer 5

5. D

A. Activation of any of the detectors installed in an HVAC system shall stop
the air supply into and the air return from the affected floor.

Question 6

6) BC Question - Temperature variations that occur in the periphery of the building, due to weather changes and movement of the sun, require supplementary treatment of the air. Which statement below contains incorrect information regarding this system? (HR 3.4.3)
A) Air supply may be from the main air supply shaft or from a separate periphery air supply shaft.
B) The air supply is ducted through the plenum on the floor above to the periphery of the building.
C) Flexible connectors are used between the ducts and the periphery air treatment equipment on the floor above.
D) Fire experience has shown that fire entering the plenum can extend from one floor to another when these flexible connectors fail.

Answer 6

6. B

B. The air supply is ducted through the plenum on the floor below to the
periphery of the building.

Question 7

7) Two company officers discussing high rise fire pumps were able to agree on all points below except which incorrect statement? (HR 4.1.1 B, 4.1.3 A, 4.1.8 C, 4.1.8 E)
A) The 1968 Building Code requires a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 300 feet high. The 1938 Building Code requires a manual fire pump in buildings over 250 high.
B) The control cabinet for a 750 gallon fire pump will be in the shape of a large cube. It varies from 6’ x 6’ x 6’ to as large as 8’ x 8’ x 8’ in the older models.
C) Pump capacity is usually 750 gpm. Most high-rise buildings have two pumps side by side which are connected in the parallel position.
D) Some buildings have a combination standpipe/sprinkler system with the siamese connected to both systems. The usual arrangement for the fire pumps is that both will be automatic. The automatic fire pumps will be of larger capacity (1000 gpm).

Answer 7

7. D

E. Some buildings have a combination standpipe/sprinkler system with the
siamese connected to both systems. The same starting procedures will
apply in these buildings. The usual arrangement for the fire pumps is that
one will be automatic and one manual. The automatic fire pumps may be
of smaller capacity (250 gpm or 500 gpm).

Question 8

8) The operation of manual pumps in the pump room of a high-rise building can be quite complex. Of the following choices, an experienced officer should know which to be incorrect? (HR 4.1.2 C, D, E)
A) Locate the bypass valve on the discharge side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The discharge gauge is calibrated for higher pressures than the inlet gauge.
B) The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem in). Some engineers keep them open for test purposes, so they must be checked. If found to be open, they should be closed by turning in a clockwise direction.
C) It is permissible to start the pump without checking the bypass valve. Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival of this and any other actions taken. The efficiency of the pump will be affected if the bypass is open.
D) A loss of 45% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 25% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open

Answer 8

8. D

A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.

Question 9

9) What is the recommended pump pressure for a fire on the 79th floor of a mega-high-rise building? (HR 4.1.7)
A) 350 psi B) 450 psi C) 500 psi D) 550 psi

Answer 9

9. C

Recommended Pump Pressure

FIRE FLOORS	PUMP DISCHARGE PRESSURE
Floors 1 to 10	150 psi
Floors 11 to 20	200 psi
Floors 21 to 30	250 psi
Floors 31 to 40	300 psi
Floors 41 to 50	350 psi
Floors 51 to 60	400 psi
Floors 61 to 70	450 psi
Floors 71 to 80	500 psi
Floors 81 to 90	550 psi
Floors 91 to 100	600 psi

Question 10

10) Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the operation of high rise building fire pumps? (HR 4.1.8 F, G, H)
A) When a building is equipped with two manual fire pumps, as is the case in most high-rise buildings, each pump will have its own control panel. Both pumps shall be started and used.
B) Since fire pumps are connected in parallel position, it is necessary to have both pumps operating at or near the same pressures.
C) A visual check should be made of the discharge gauges of both pumps. When both are operating correctly, the pressures should be equal or nearly so.
D) Where one gauge reading is considerably lower than the other, the pumps must be shut down and allowed to cool for 5 minutes.

Answer 10

10. D

H. Where one gauge reading is considerably lower than the other, the pressure can be increased on the less efficient pump by moving the pump position lever to a higher position.

Question 11

11) Officers should have a working knowledge of building fire pumps. An experienced officer would know all points below to be correct except? (HR 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.2.3, 4.2.5)
A) Building fire pumps shall be capable of delivering their rated capacity at a pressure of 100 psi at the highest floor hose outlet.
B) A relief valve is required at the fire pump limiting the pressure to 15 psi above that required to deliver its rated capacity to the highest floor outlet.
C) The building fire pump may not be capable of supplying adequate nozzle pressure to hoselines at the upper floors. The primary water supply for firefighting in most operations shall be Fire Department Engines.
D) The high pressures required to supply water to the upper floors of a high-rise building limit the amount of water that a Fire Department Engine can supply. A good “rule of thumb” is to have a separate engine supply the standpipe system for each handline in operation.

Answer 11

11. A

The building fire pumps shall be capable of delivering their rated capacity at a pressure of 50 psi at the highest floor hose outlet.

Question 12

12) Concerning high rise office buildings, which consideration below would an experienced Fire Officer find to be incorrect? (HR 5.2.4-5.2.6, 5.3.1 B 3, 8)
A) The IC should arrange for the fire safety director or the evacuation supervisor to make an announcement over the PA system or the intercom system.
B) The fire safety director must be informed to remain in the lobby where his/her assistance will be available at any time.
C) The CFR Engine Company and FAST Unit shall be assigned to the lobby if fire is below the 6th floor.
D) Obtain copies of the floor plan of the fire floor from the fire safety director.

Answer 12

12. C
13. The CFR engine company, with all CFR-D equipment and forcible entry tools, shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director.

Question 13

13) Which units below are operating according to Fire Department standard operating procedures for high rise office buildings? (HR 5.3.1 B)
1. The first and second arriving engine companies shall be teamed to stretch and operate the first line.
2. The third and fourth arriving engine companies shall be used to stretch and operate the second line.
3. The first arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the fire floor.
4. The second arriving ladder company shall be assigned to augment the search and
evacuation of the fire floor.
5. The third arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above
the fire and to initiate the search of the attack stairway, with each member bringing an extra
SCBA cylinder.
6. The fourth arriving ladder company shall operate on the upper floors, initiate search of the
attack stairway, and each member of the 4th due ladder must bring an extra SCBA cylinder.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 C) 1, 2, 3, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6

Answer 13

13. D
14. The third arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above the fire.
15. The fourth arriving ladder company shall be assigned similarly, to operate on the upper floors and to initiate the search of the attack stairway.

Question 14

14) The second hoseline at a fire in a high rise office building is normally deployed in each of the following ways with the exception of which choice? (HR 5.4.3)
A) Protect the position of the first line.
B) Stand by on the floor above in case of vertical extension.
C) Contain and confine fire spread and/or prevent fire from wrapping around the core and
endangering operation of the first line.
D) Reinforce the position of the first line.

Answer 14

14. B

5.4.3
Considering all the above items, the placement of the second line may be used to:

A. Reinforce the position of the first line.

B. Protect the position of the first line.

C. Protect the search and evacuation of the fire floor.

D. Contain and confine fire spread and/or prevent fire from wrapping around the core and endangering operation of the first line.

Question 15

15) It is important for all Officers to be familiar with the Incident Command System as it pertains to high-rise office buildings. Of the following choices, which contains correct information? (HR 6.3.2 F, K, L, 6.3.3 B)
A) The Forward Staging Area serves as the primary point outside the structure to which responding resources will report and receive their initial assignments.
B) The Staging Area is a designated location on an upper floor where personnel and equipment are maintained in a state of readiness for tactical deployment. It provides logistical support to all the resources assigned to Fire Sector/Branch and/or the SAE Group.
C) The Forward Triage Area is established in an environmentally safe location on the floor below the Fire Sector/Branch.
D) The Incident Command Post shall be established at a location that provides accessibility to incoming units, control of the elevators and control of the building fire command station.

Answer 15

15. D

Forward Staging Area.
 A designated location on an upper floor where personnel and equipment
are maintained in a state of readiness for tactical deployment.
 Provides logistical support to all the resources assigned to Fire
Sector/Branch and/or the SAE Group.

Staging Area
 Provides an assembly and deployment point from which large quantities
of personnel and equipment are distributed.
 Serves as the primary point outside the structure to which responding
resources will report and receive their initial assignments.
 Located away from buildings to provide personnel safety from falling
glass and debris.

Forward Triage Area
 Responsible for the prompt response to injured civilians and members.
 Established in an environmentally safe location on a floor below the
Forward Staging Area.

Question 16

16) Every Fire Department Sector and Group is important. In order to perform as expected, certain tools and resources must be in position at these designated locations. Of the following choices which contains incorrect information? (HR 6.3.4 A, 6.3.6 C, D)
A) A supply of at least 20 spare SCBA cylinders shall be maintained at the Forward Staging Area.
B) The first arriving officer shall establish the ICP. In the event that he or she leaves the ICP before the arrival of a Chief Officer, he or she shall designate a member to staff the ICP, preferably the chauffeur of the first arriving engine company.
C) At least three engines and two ladder companies shall be at the Forward Staging Area for immediate support of the Fire Sector/Branch.
D) The SAE Group will require at least one unit for every five floors to be covered.

Answer 16

16. B

A. The first arriving officer shall establish the ICP. In the event that he or she leaves the ICP before the arrival of a Chief Officer, he or she shall designate a member to staff the ICP, preferably the chauffeur of the first arriving ladder company. This member shall then note the units entering and leaving the lobby and their destination.

Question 17

17) Unless otherwise directed, Engine Companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall
bring with them each of the following items except?
(HR 6.3.6 E)

A) A SCBA for each member.
B) A standpipe kit and a nozzle.
C) A length of hose per firefighter.
D) CFR equipment.

Answer 17

17. D

E. Engine companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with them the following equipment unless otherwise directed:

1. A SCBA for each member.
2. A standpipe kit and a nozzle.
3. A length of hose per firefighter.
4. A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.

Question 18

18) Unless otherwise directed, Ladder Companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with each of the following items except? (HR 6.3.6 F)
A) A SCBA for each member.
B) Two sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
C) The lifesaving rope.
D) A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.

Answer 18

18. B

F. Ladder companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with them the following equipment, unless otherwise directed:

1. A SCBA for each member.
2. Two sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
3. Search and utility ropes.
4. A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.

Question 19

19) Two newly promoted officers discussing ventilation and stack effect at high rise office buildings were able to identify a number of correct statements during their discussion. Which choice below accurately reflects the most correct statements? (HR 6.3.8 D, E)
1. Horizontal ventilation should be the last consideration as its effects are least likely to be beneficial.
2. Natural vertical ventilation (ventilation without the use of fans), is an option and may be accomplished by opening the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway once the fire is extinguished. This will increase the stack effect and assist in the removal of smoke via the stairway.
3. Stack effect becomes noticeable in buildings over 60 feet, and increases as the building’s height increases. Its effect can be either positive or negative.
4. Positive stack effect is the upward movement of air in a vertical shaft. Negative stack effect is the downward movement of air in a vertical shaft.
5. Positive stack effect decreases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building.
6. Negative stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is lower than the temperature inside the building. Its possibility is least likely when the outside air temperature is above 90o.
7. Both positive and negative stack effect may be intensified by the speed and direction of the wind.
8. To obtain the greatest benefit from the stack effect, the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway must be opened when a stairway is used for smoke removal. The street floor near this stairway must be closed.
A) 1,2,3,4,7,8 B) 1,2,3,4,7 C) 1,3,4,5,7,8 D) 1,2,4,6,7

Answer 19

19. B

Natural vertical ventilation is influenced by the stack effect as follows:

1. Its effect becomes noticeable in buildings over 60 feet, and increases as the building’s height increases.
2. Its effect can be either positive or negative.
   a. The positive stack effect is the upward movement of air in a vertical shaft.
   b. The negative stack effect is the downward movement of air in a vertical shaft.
3. Positive stack effect increases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building.
4. Negative stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is greater than the temperature inside the building. Its possibility is greatest when the outside air temperature is above 90o F.
5. Its effect, both positive and negative, may be intensified by the speed and direction of the wind.
6. To obtain the greatest benefit from the stack effect, the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway must be opened when a stairway is used for smoke removal. The street floor near this stairway must also be vented to the outer air.

Question 20

20) BC Question - Two BCs discussing the Department’s “HVAC Strategic Operating Plan” for high-rise buildings would know which statement below to be incorrect? (HR 3.3.1, 3.3.4, 3.3.5)
A) Determine the status of all HVAC systems in the building. Any systems that have not been automatically shut down shall be manually shut down. This shall include both the supply and return fans.
B) In some systems, the smoke detectors only shut down the supply fans and allow the return air fans to remain operating. The return fans will have to be shut down manually.
C) Before any further action can be taken with the HVAC system, the fire floor must be accurately determined. Thereafter, all HVAC systems shall be placed in non-circulating mode.
D) After the fire floor has been adequately determined, all HVAC zones, including the zone in the fire area, shall have their supply fans activated. This will supply fresh outside air to these zones, pressurizing these zones and limiting the spread of smoke. It will also supply fresh outside air to any occupants on the floors in these zones.

Answer 20

20. D
21. 3.4 After the fire floor has been adequately determined, all HVAC zones that do not include the fire area shall have their supply fans activated.

Question 21

21) Since part of the HVAC Strategic Operating Plan calls for HVAC systems to be placed in the non-circulating mode following three steps, you should know which step below is correct? (HR 3.3.3)
A) Closing all outside air supply dampers.
B) Opening all mixing dampers.
C) Closing all moisture dampers.
D) Opening all exhaust dampers.

Answer 21

21. D

3.3.3 All the HVAC systems shall be placed in the non-circulating mode by:
A. Opening all outside air supply dampers.
B. Closing all mixing dampers.
C. Opening all exhaust dampers. (Figure 2)

Question 22

22) BC Question - A newly promoted BC would be most correct to identify which choice below as the proper “order of importance” for the Fire Department’s strategic operating plan for high rise buildings? (HR 5.1.1)
1. Control evacuation.
2. Confine and extinguish the fire.
3. Determine the fire floor.
4. Verify the fire floor.
5. Gain control of building systems.
A) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

Answer 22

22. B

STRATEGIC OPERATING PLAN FOR HI RISE FIRES

“D-VEG-C”

D - DETERMINE the fire floor
V - VERIFY the fire floor
E - EVACUATION simultaneously, or as soon as possible, begin
the process of.
G - GAIN control of building systems
C - CONFINE and extinguish fire

Question 23

23) BC Question - A knowledgeable BC assigned to a busy Manhattan Battalion would know
all of the following to be correct with the exception of which choice? (HR 5.2.1)
A) The prime position of the Incident Commander (IC) is at the Incident Command Post (ICP) in the lobby. From this location, the IC will have control over all building systems through the fire safety director or his/her surrogate.
B) When command is transferred to the Deputy Chief, the Battalion Chief transferring command will remain at the ICP filling the position of the Planning Section Chief until the arrival of the Type 3 All Hazard Planning Section Chief.
C) The Type 3 All Hazard Planning Section Chief is assigned on the 2nd alarm.
D) After briefing the All Hazard Planning Chief, the first due Battalion Chief shall be assigned other duties as per the IC.

Answer 23

23. C

Type 3 All Hazard Planning Section Chief who is assigned on the 3rd alarm.

Question 24

24) Every Sector and Group Supervisor should be familiar with the proper method of communicating at high-rise office building fires. Which Supervisor below did not communicate appropriately? (HR 6.2.1 B3, C4, D3, E2)
A) The Incident Commander shall operate on the command channel. The aide shall operate on and monitor the primary tactical channel.
B) The Fire Sector Supervisor or Fire Branch Director shall operate on the primary tactical channel. His/her aide shall operate on the command channel.
C) The Forward Staging Area Manager shall operate on the command channel. His/her aide shall monitor the primary tactical channel.
D) The Search and Evacuation Group Supervisor shall operate on the primary tactical channel. His/her aide shall monitor and operate on the command channel.

Answer 24

24. D
25. The Forward Staging Area Manager shall operate on the command channel. His/her aide shall monitor the primary tactical channel.

Question 25

25) Some high rise office buildings have fixed stairwell pressurization systems that, when activated, will cause positive pressurization of stairwells in the building. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding these systems? (HR 6.3.8 B, C, D)
A) When operating in a building that has a fixed stairwell pressurization system that is activated, the IC shall continue operations with the system on. The IC shall continually evaluate the effects of the fixed stairwell pressurization system.
B) The fixed stairwell pressurization system should not be augmented by FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans. Augmentation can cause leakage which will reduce pressure in the stair shaft.
C) Buildings that have a fixed stairwell pressurization system shall be entered into CIDS.
D) FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans should not be used when the building lacks a fixed stairwell pressurization system, or if the system is out of service.

Answer 25

25. D

C. FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans can be used when the building does not have a fixed stairwell pressurization system, or the system is out of service for any reason.

Question 26

1) A knowledgeable company officer would know which of the following choices to be correct regarding the Alarm Teleprinter/Selector Panel (PC/ATS)? (Comm 2.1.2 C, 2.2.1 B, C)
A) When the PC/ATS is on-line, the red border surrounding the CLR/TEST button will remain steady.
B) If the red border surrounding the CLR/TEST button is flickering on and off, the PC/ATS is out of service and Starfire Control Center should be notified by phone.
C) The “ADM” button is used to generate a Borough Status Report in all quarters of fire units. To obtain this report from the PC/ATS, units at the housewatch desk must depress the ADM, 10- 4 and SEND buttons in that order.
D) The housewatch has 20 seconds to acknowledge. If there is no response in 20 seconds, the dispatcher will prompt the unit to verify response via the Voice Alarm.

Answer 26

1. D

When the PC/ATS is on line, the red border surrounding the CLR/TEST button will be flickering on and off. If the red border remains steady the PC/ATS is out of service and Starfire Control Center should be notified by phone.

ADM ……………………..Is used to generate a Borough Status Report (MICS 201) only in quarters where Battalions and Divisions are located.
To obtain this report from the PC/ATS, units at the housewatch desk or in the chief’s office must depress the ADM, 10-4 and SEND buttons in that order.

Question 27

2) All company officers should be familiar with proper acknowledgement and response to alarms. All of the following choices are correct except? (Comm 2.2.4 C, 2.2.6 B, D)
A) The VERBAL button should be used only if the alarm is within four blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction. If the alarm is more than four blocks away, the unit should respond and give information and location via radio.
B) Acknowledgments and status updates involving relocated units must be done independently on the PC/ATS.
C) The “ACT’G” button can only be used by the first relocator into the original unit. If subsequent relocations are made into that unit, the ACT’G button can no longer be used. Thereafter acknowledgments and status reports must be done via Voice Alarm, radio or telephone.
D) Under no circumstances should a unit leave a relocation before receiving a teleprinter message to do so.

Answer 27

2. A

C. The VERBAL button should be used only if the alarm is within two blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction. If the alarm is more than two blocks away, the unit should respond and give information and location via radio.

Question 28

3) Two Captains discussing maintenance of the Alarm Teleprinter/Selector Panel (PC/ATS) agreed on a number of facts. Which choice below would they identify as being incorrect? (Comm 2.6.1, 2.6.5)
A) The Alarm Teleprinter/Selector Panel (PC/ATS) is not to be tampered with in any way. The only maintenance to be performed by members is that of changing the paper roll and replacing the printer ink cartridge.
B) Each unit shall maintain at least three spare rolls of teleprinter paper in the company office.
C) Spare teleprinter paper rolls may be secured at Battalion headquarters. Units in need of
teleprinter paper should contact their respective Battalion.
D) On the first of every month the teleprinter emergency power system shall be examined and tested in accordance with instructions contained on the decal affixed to the front panel of the red charging unit in the vicinity of the batteries.

Answer 28

3. B

Each unit shall maintain at least two spare rolls of teleprinter paper in the company office. Spare paper rolls may be secured at Battalion headquarters. Units in need of teleprinter paper should contact their respective battalion. Battalions shall obtain teleprinter paper from their respective Division. Scheduled deliveries are made to all Divisions. In the event a Division’s supply should run low before the scheduled delivery is made, Starfire Operations should be notified and an emergency supply of teleprinter paper will be provided.

Question 29

4) Company officers should be able to identify “single action” keys on their company’s apparatus. All of the following keys are single action keys except? (Comm 2.11.1 A 5)
A) 10-84
B) 10-4
C) 10-14
D) 10-92

Answer 29

4. D

The following keys are single action keys:

10-84……..arrived on scene

10-4………acknowledge assignment to an incident, relocation or returning from relocation

10-14……..acknowledge a response while roster staffed (engine companies only)

10-20……..proceed with reduced speed and follow traffic rules

Question 30

5) Which prefix below properly identifies the special corresponding special unit? (Comm 2-36)
A) MS - Mask Service Unit
B) FT - Foam Tender
C) HRU - High Rise Unit
D) RS - Rescue Collapse

Answer 30

5. B

Question 31

6) Which choice below contains the most correct suffixes?
1. E002H….Haz Mat Tech Unit
2. E011C…..Communications Unit
3. E012Y….Systems Control Unit
4. E013F…..FireIce Unit
5. E017R….High Rise Nozzle
6. E019P……High Pressure Engine
7. E025S……Satellite Unit
A) 1,4,5,7
B) 1,3,6
C) 1,3,6,7
D) 2,3,6

Answer 31

6. B

Units are designated by the following letter suffix when assigned a specific task at an incident:

Engine Companies
Ladder Companies
C
CFR-D Engine
C

CPC Unit
D
Tech Decon Task Force Engine
D

Tech Decon Task Force Ladder
F
FAST Unit
F

FAST Unit
H
Haz Mat Tech Unit
H

Hi-Rise Roof Team

I
FireIce Unit
K
Division Task Force
K
Division Task Force
R

Rescue Collapse Transport
L
Lobby Control Unit
S

SOC Support Truck
N
High Rise Nozzle
T

Transport Backup Unit

P
High Pressure Engine
V
Ventilation Support Unit
S
 Communications Unit
W
Water - Ice Rescue Unit
T
 Transport Backup Unit
W
Water - Ice Rescue Unit

Y
Systems Control Unit

Question 32

7) Which Ladder Company suffix is incorrectly indicated below?  (Comm 2-37)
A) L005D....Tech Decon Task Force Ladder
B) L011R.....Rescue Collapse Transport
C) L013T.....Division Task Force
D) L021H.....Hi-Rise Roof Team

Answer 32

7. C

T . Transport Backup Unit

Question 33

8) Familiarity with the Voice Alarm is essential to maintaining an operational unit. All of the following choices are correct except? (Comm 3.0, 3.1, 3.1.1 A2, 3.1.2, 3.3, 3.3.1)
A) In the event a unit’s teleprinter becomes inoperable or the CADS system becomes unavailable, units will be dispatched by Voice Alarm.
B) A member transmits a calling signal to the dispatcher by depressing the “push to talk” button on the handset and immediately relaying the appropriate message. Releasing the button will terminate the call.
C) When both the teleprinter or CADS, and the Voice Alarm are out of service, units will be dispatched by telephone.
D) If there are any doubts about a telephone message from a dispatcher, the officer on duty should check the validity of the dispatch by calling the Borough Communications Office to verify the message.

Answer 33

8. B

3.1.2 Unit’s Transmission Procedures
A member transmits a calling signal by depressing and releasing the “push to talk” button on the handset. (See Figure 3-2) When the dispatcher acknowledges, the member depresses the “push to talk” button on the handset and proceeds with the message, releasing the button when finished.

Question 34

9) BC Question - Two senior BCs were discussing proper alarm response and the timely submission of fire reports. Which statement made was incorrect? (Comm 2.3.2, 2.4.1 D)
A) An Incident History Printout is a written chronological record of an operation or incident, and may be used by chief officers in preparation of fire reports, particularly for fatal and multiple alarm fires.
B) Within seven days of the occurrence of any incident, an Incident History Printout can be received on the teleprinter in quarters.
C) To obtain the Incident History Printout contact the Field Communications Unit.
D) A Discretionary Response Box (DRB) is a box to which a Battalion Chief responds at his/her discretion. Units shall not acknowledge for the chief when this message is received unless the Battalion Chief responds. DRB’s are in effect on select boxes between 0900 hours and 2400 hours.

Answer 34

9. B

Within five days of the occurrence of any incident, an Incident History Printout can be received on the teleprinter in quarters. To obtain the Incident History Printout contact the Field Communications Unit.

Question 35

10) BC Question - An experienced BC should know that all of the following are single action
  keys in the Battalion vehicle except?
A) 10-4
B) 10-84
C) 10-10
D) 10-20

Answer 35

10. C

The following are single action keys:
10-4……….acknowledge assignment to an incident, relocation or returning from relocation
10-84……..arrived on scene
10-12……..request for a preliminary report
10-20……..proceed with reduced speed and follow traffic rules
RESET…..reset, allows to receive the current unit status and assignment ticket if unit is assigned

Question 36

11) BC Question - In certain cases, a BC may decide to have his/her alarms forwarded to another unit’s quarters. Regarding this procedure, which choice is incorrect? (Comm 2.12.4)
A) Battalion Chiefs visiting quarters other than their own for more than 15 minutes can have their alarms forwarded to those quarters.
B) Upon arrival at the quarters being visited, the dispatcher is notified by radio or telephone that the Battalion is 10-9 at the quarters of the visited unit.
C) The Dispatcher will “relocate” the Battalion into those quarters, and all alarms for that Battalion will then be displayed on the screen and printed through that unit’s PC/ATS in quarters. Acknowledgments can be made on that unit’s PC/ATS.
D) When leaving quarters where a Battalion Chief has been visiting, the signal 10-8 Code 1 must be given verbally to the dispatcher. The dispatcher will then “unrelocate” the Battalion in order to have subsequent alarms sent to the Battalion’s original quarters.

Answer 36

11. C

Dispatcher then [relocates] battalion into those quarters, and all alarms for that Battalion will then be displayed on the screen and printed through that unit’s PC/ATS in quarters. Acknowledgments, however, must be made via radio or MDT.

Question 37

12) BC Question - Which choice below contains the most correct list of Battalion suffixes? (Comm 2-37)
1. BC03S - Communications Unit Leader
2. BC05P - Staging Area Manager
3. BC13K - Division Task Force
4. BC20F - FAST Group Supervisor
5. BC55L Firefighter Locator Officer
A) 1,2,3,4
B) 2,3,4,5
C) 2,3,5
D) 2,3

Answer 37

12. C

Battalion Chief

C
Communications Unit Leader

D
Tech Decon Task Force Leader

F
Foam Coordinator
H
Hi-Rise Roof Chief

K
Division Task Force

P
Staging Area Manager

R
Resources Unit Leader

S

Safety Officer
T
Transit Liaison Officer

Question 38

1) Which aspect of the Life Saving Rope listed below is incorrect? 1.6)
(TB Rope 1.1-1.3,
A) The life saving rope is 9/16” in diameter.
B) It has a minimum breaking strength of 9,000 pounds.
C) It has a length of 150’ and a working load of 600 pounds.
D) The actual length of the life saving rope may be less than the nominal length due to natural
shrinkage after several years in the field. Over a period of time expect ropes to shrink by 10% to 15%.

Answer 38

1. D
2. 6 Members should be aware that the actual length of the life saving rope may be less than the nominal length of 150 feet due to natural shrinkage after several years in the field. Over a period of time some ropes have shrunk 8 to 10 feet. This fact should be considered when planning to use the life saving rope.

Question 39

2) An experienced company officer should know which point below to be incorrect? (TB Rope 1 2.7-2.8)
A) The life saving rope evolution shall only be attempted as a last resort when all other avenues have been eliminated.
B) Only in an extreme emergency shall a life saving rope evolution be attempted if a viable substantial object is not available.
C) A life saving rope evolution shall not be attempted if the effectiveness of the anti-chafing device would be compromised due to building construction (protruding facades, exposure of the life saving rope to sharp surfaces, etc.)
D) A life saving rope evolution shall not be attempted if there are not enough members at the lowering point and at the adjoining windows or floors below to ensure a successful pick-up and retrieval of the firefighter and victim.

Answer 39

2. B

2.7 Under no circumstances should a life saving rope evolution be attempted if:
• a viable substantial object is not available

Question 40

3) Two officers discussing maintenance and care of the life saving rope made an incorrect statement which can be identified in which choice below? (TB Rope 1 4.2-4.4, 4.17)
A) A life saving rope subjected to the weight of two people shall be placed out of service forthwith and replacement requested.
B) Immediately after a life saving rope has been subjected to the weight of one person, the rope shall be carefully examined for any signs of damage or abrasion before being placed back in service. Proper journal entries shall be made as well as an entry in red on the Life Saving Rope Record Card (RP-100).
C) Care shall be taken to avoid wetting the life saving rope. The life saving rope can lose from 8% to 10% of its strength when wet. This loss of strength occurs when the rope is submerged in water at room temperature for twenty four hours.
D) Inspection of the life saving rope should not be conducted on the apparatus floor due to the possibility of the rope coming in contact with material that might be harmful to it. Since the apparatus floor is concrete, it is a prime means of causing abrasion, which is one of the primary causes of a rope losing its strength.

Answer 40

3. C
4. 4 Care shall be taken to avoid wetting the life saving rope. The life saving rope can lose from 10% to 15% of its strength when wet. This loss of strength occurs when the rope is submerged in water at room temperature for twenty four hours. Whenever a rope becomes wet it shall be allowed to dry naturally before being repacked and stored on the apparatus. The rope regains its strength when it dries.

Question 41

4) Ropes that are damaged or show signs of wear are to be put out of service and replaced. Other conditions that require a life saving rope be placed out of service include all of the following except? (TB Rope 1 4.5, 4.6, 4.7, 4.11)
A) A frozen life saving rope shall be placed out of service.
B) If the rope comes in contact with acids or their fumes, it shall be placed out of service and
replacement requested.
C) When a rust stain is found on the life saving rope, it should be immediately placed out of service and replacement requested.
D) Nylon rope, when exposed to heat over 300°F, will progressively lose strength, and will melt at 482°F. Rope that has been exposed to highly heated surfaces cannot be considered safe and shall be placed out of service and replacement requested.

Answer 41

4. C
5. 7 The detrimental effect of rust on nylon rope cannot be overemphasized. The life saving rope should be stored where it will not come in contact with rust. When a rust stain is found on the life saving rope, it should be immediately removed with soap and water. A persistent rust stain is a definite indication of fiber damage and a reduction in the strength of the rope. It should be placed out of service and replacement requested.

Question 42

5) Company officers are responsible for ensuring equipment is properly maintained and safe for use. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Rope 1 4.14-4.15)
A) Strand hockles develop when force is used to remove a kink in the rope. A hockle reduces the strength of a rope by 40% to 50%.
B) Should a hockle occur in the life saving rope, the hockle must be fully removed prior to placing the rope back in service.
C) All units, except Engine Companies, shall inspect and repack the life saving rope every Monday on the 9x6 tour. Record the inspection on the Life Saving Rope Card (RP-100).
D) Engine Companies shall inspect and repack the rope on Tuesdays on the 9x6 tour. Record the inspection on the Life Saving Rope Card (RP-100).

Answer 42

5. B
6. 14 Strand hockles develop when force is used to remove a kink in rope. A hockle is very difficult to remove. A hockle reduces the strength of a rope by 40% to 50%. Should a hockle occur in the life saving rope, the rope should be placed out of service and replacement requested. (Figure 2)

Question 43

6) A newly promoted Lieutenant supervising the repacking of the life saving rope (LSR) would be able to identify which incorrect choice? (TB Rope 1 DS 1 1.5, 3.1, 3.3, 3.12)
A) The LSR carrying case is white with red lettering.
B) Initially, the entire rope is coiled clockwise with a coil diameter of approximately 4 feet.
C) The hook of the life saving rope is placed in the right rear corner of the carrying case. The
rope is then moved to the right, making a counterclockwise circle one half the width of the bottom of the case.
D) The life saving rope shall be completely repacked weekly. The rope shall be repacked from the opposite end each time. One hook shall be marked with red tape.

Answer 43

6. C

3. 3 Place the hook of the life saving rope in the left front corner of the carrying case.

Question 44

7) Which choice below contains the most correct information regarding the Life Saving Training Rope? (TB Rope 1 DS 3 2.1, 2.2, 4.4, 4.5, 5.2)
1. Life Saving Training Ropes and anti-chafing devices have been issued to each Ladder, Rescue and Squad company.
2. The Life Saving Training Rope shall never be used without the landing mat positioned beneath the line of descent.
3. The Life Saving Training Rope carrying case is yellow with black lettering to ensure that the rope is used only for drill purposes.
4. At the completion of each drill, the Life Saving Training Rope shall be placed in the yellow carrying case and stored in a cool, dry area of the company office.
5. The Life Saving Training Rope shall not be carried on the apparatus except while transported to drill sites, at which time it shall be under the complete control of the officer on duty.
6. One end of the rope shall be identified by tape affixed to the hook. The maximum number of times this rope may be used is 200 slides per end.
7. The Life Saving Training Rope may be used at heights to a maximum of three stories.
A) 1,2,3,5,7
B) 1,2,3,4,5,7
C) 1,2,3,5,6,7
D) 2,3,4,5,7

Answer 44

7. A
8. 1.3 At the completion of each drill, the Life Saving Training Rope shall be removed from the carrying case and stored in a dark colored plastic bag in a cool, dry area of the company office.
9. 5 The maximum number of times this rope may be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides.

Question 45

8) The inflatable soft landing mat must be used only at a firehouse; it shall not be used at a remote site. In addition, all of the following points are correct regarding the mat with the exception of which choice? (TB Rope 1 DS 4 3.3, 4.8.1, 6.3, 7.2)
A) It may be positioned at any suitable location around the perimeter of the firehouse, except for the sidewalk apron.
B) Do not position the mat or deploy the training rope directly in line with a protruding facade or recessed opening.
C) The blower operates without the aid of an on/off switch; the mat will inflate completely within sixty seconds. Allow the mat to deflate naturally; it will take about five minutes for the air to be expelled so that the mat can be folded.
D) When the motor doesn’t operate, or if it stops operating during use, remove the plug from the electric outlet and allow the motor to cool for approximately five minutes. After the cooling period, press the red reset button located on the back of the motor, and then connect the plug to an electric outlet.

Answer 45

8. A
9. 3 The landing mat may be positioned at any suitable location around the perimeter of the firehouse, including the sidewalk apron.
10. 3.1 The mat must be used only at a firehouse.
11. 3.2 It shall not be used at a remote site.

Question 46

9) The life belt has been among the most critical of Fire Department equipment for many years. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Rope 2 2.1, 2.10, DS 1 3.1.2 Note, DS 2 2.4 Note)
A) The life belt shall be inspected weekly when the life saving rope is repacked, as well as before and after each use.
B) Whenever a life belt is subjected to an impact load of one foot or more, it shall be placed out of service and forwarded to the Safety Command for evaluation.
C) In the event that the gate lock becomes jammed due to ice, gently tap the gate lock against a parapet or other object to free the lock.
D) The life belt shall not be used to make a rescue pick-up via a single slide.

Answer 46

9. B

2.10 Whenever a life belt is subjected to an impact load, it shall be placed out of service and forwarded to the Safety Command for evaluation. Life belts subjected to an impact load will be destroyed.
Note: A member free falling three feet or more is considered a sufficient impact load to warrant placing the life belt out of service.

Question 47

10) Almost all Fire Department members have been outfitted with a personal harness. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Rope 3 1.1 Note, 2.1, 3.1.1, 3.10)
A) Members must attach the harness snap hook to the waistband “D” ring every time they don their bunker pants.
B) The harness has a minimum breaking strength of 6,000 pounds.
C) The proper position for the waistband of the harness is across the lower level of the hip.
D) In a situation that dictates the use of the Personal Safety System, only the handle support
strap should be released.

Answer 47

10. C

3. 1.1 The proper position for the waistband of the harness is across the upper level of the hip as shown in Figure 2A.

Question 48

11) Communications are essential in all life saving rope operations. An experienced BC would be able to identify which incorrect comment below? (TB Rope 1 2.4-2.6)
A) Often, information from the Roof Firefighter to the members operating in the building regarding the location of the victim will preclude the necessity of a life saving rope operation. This is especially true in nonfireproof buildings, where the victim may access a temporary area of refuge.
B) Communications with the Inside Team of the Ladder Company(s) is vital prior to any life saving rope rescue attempt. It is also critical that notification be given directly to the IC or Sector Supervisor prior to commencing a life saving rope rescue attempt.
C) The IC must coordinate all interior operations and the life saving rope rescue attempt. The IC must determine if units are unable to place an operational hoseline between the victim and the fire in a timely manner, and if members are prevented from reaching the victim via the interior of the apartment, an adjoining apartment, a balcony or fire escape, or exterior ladders.
D) Upon determining that a life saving rope rescue is the only available option, the IC may dispatch additional resources to the descent point as well as adjoining apartments and/or apartments on the floor(s) below to provide the greatest chance of a successful rescue.

Answer 48

11. A

This is especially true in FIREPROOF buildings, where the victim may access a temporary area of refuge.

Question 49

12) BC Stone was discussing the Personal Harness with officers assigned to his Battalion. Regarding harness replacement and administration, BC Stone was mistaken in which comment below? (TB Rope 3 6.1, 6.2, 6.10, 6.11)
A) Whenever the Personal Harness is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall have the Personal Harness immediately replaced by making immediate phone notification to the administrative Division and request a loaner Personal Harness.
B) Each Division has been supplied with ten replacement Personal Harnesses to be immediately assigned to members when replacement is necessary. SOC has been supplied with 50 replacement Personal Harnesses which can be issued to members when the need arises at any other time.
C) When a member’s Personal Harness has been placed out of service and he/she is on duty, the member will continue to respond. However, that member shall not be counted towards that unit’s staffing as it relates to reduced staffed/understaffed unit provisions. Upon arrival, the Company Officer shall inform the IC of the unit’s status, and the IC shall adjust his/her strategy accordingly.
D) When a Battalion Chief or Company Officer is in need of a loaner Personal Harness, that member shall continue to respond. Upon arrival, that member shall inform the IC of the unit’s status, and the IC shall adjust his/her strategy accordingly.

Answer 49

12. D
13. 10 When a Battalion Chief or Company Officer is in need of a loaner Personal Harness, the unit where that member is working shall inform the borough dispatcher that the unit is Out of Service until a loaner Personal Harness is obtained from the Division Depot.

Question 50

1) Knowing the skills and capabilities of units an officer may respond with will only add to his or her experience. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding SOC Support Ladder Companies (SSL)? (HM 10 1.3, 2.5, 2.6, 4.1)
A) SSLs are not capable of identifying many materials, which will require the advanced skills and equipment of a Hazardous Materials Technician Unit (HMTU) or Haz-Mat Company 1 (HMC1).
B) SSLs shall not be special called to fires in lieu of calling a Rescue or Squad company.
C) SSLs shall not be special called to a haz-mat incident in lieu of a Hazardous Material
Technician Unit or Hazardous Materials Company 1.
D) To operate as a SSL, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or trained acting officer and at least four trained firefighters.

Answer 50

1. D

4.1 To operate as a SOC Support Ladder Company, the unit shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or trained acting officer and at least three trained firefighters. If not, the Dispatcher, Battalion, and Division must be notified that the unit is not in service as a SOC Support Unit for that particular tour.
Note: If possible, four trained firefighters will be provided.

Question 51

2) SSLs may be deployed in a variety of situations. Of the following, which would be an incorrect tactic? (HM 10 7.1, 7.3, 7.4)
A) For a suspended scaffold emergency, SSLs shall utilize the 1/2” kernmantle rope in place of the 9/16” Life Saving Rope when lowering a safety line to stranded workers to attach to their harnesses.
B) For collapse operations, although SSLs have received basic training in the five phases of the collapse rescue plan, they do not carry the shoring materials required to permit them to function fully in areas where substantial risk of secondary collapse is present.
C) For collapse operations, in the event it is necessary to perform any evolution which requires tunneling, trenching, or cutting through supporting members, a SSL with the appropriate shoring material and techniques shall perform this operation.
D) For trench cave-in responses, SSLs shall immediately begin scene evaluation, and hazard identification through the use of their air monitoring equipment. They shall establish a safe zone around the perimeter of the site, with the prevention of a secondary cave-in as the prime consideration and will, if possible, begin removing the spoil pile from the danger zone if that has been identified as a problem.

Answer 51

2. C

In the event that it is necessary to perform any evolution which requires tunneling, trenching, or cutting through supporting members, a Rescue Company with the appropriate shoring material and techniques shall perform such operation. The SOC Support Ladder Company shall support such efforts by providing logistical and manpower support.

Question 52

3) During trench cave-in operations, SSLs shall operate in full compliance with applicable OSHA regulations which include all of the following procedures with the exception of which choice? (HM 10 7.4)
A) Each employee in an excavation shall be protected from cave-ins by an adequate protective system (shoring) except when excavations are made entirely in stable rock.
B) Each employee in an excavation shall be protected from cave-ins by an adequate protective system (shoring) except when excavations are less than 4 feet in depth and examination of the ground by a competent person provides no indication of a potential cave-in.
C) A stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress shall be located in trench excavations that are 4 feet (1.22 m) or more in depth.
D) When a required stairway, ladder, ramp or other safe means of egress is present, it shall be located so as to require no more than 25 feet of lateral travel for employees.

Answer 52

3. B
4. Excavations are less than 5 feet in depth and examination of the ground by a competent person provides no indication of a potential cave-in.

Question 53

4) SSLs must use extreme caution during confined space operations. Of the following houses, which is incorrect? (HM 10 7.2)
A) SSLs shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the officer supervising entry at the entrance to the space.
B) A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on stand-by in the event the primary (entry) rescuer is injured, overcome, or needs assistance in escaping the space.
C) SSLs shall only attempt entries where the hazards are not readily identifiable and controllable when the proper number of SSL-trained members are on-scene; i.e.; two entry team members, two backup team members, and one decontamination member.
D) SSLs shall only attempt an entry when all necessary precautions to safeguard the rescuer are taken, specifically, a suitable high point anchor is positioned to allow a retrieval system to be placed for immediate retrieval of the rescuers, air monitoring to deter if atmospheric hazards are present, and steps are taken to remove hazards or otherwise protect rescuers from their effects (e.g., use of the SCBA for asphyxiation hazard).

Answer 53

4. C

D. SOC Support Ladders shall not attempt any entry where the hazards are other than atmospheric and controllable, or are not readily identifiable and controllable.

Question 54

5) There are many hazards to members during a chemical suicide incident. Which of the following is considered the “primary” hazard? (HM 11 2)
A) Flammability
B) Inhalation
C) Skin absorption or caustic- acid
D) Blood-Borne pathogens

Answer 54

5. B

2. HAZARDS OR THREATS TO FIRST RESPONDER
 Inhalation (Primary)
 Skin absorption or caustic- acid contamination
 Flammability
 Blood-Borne pathogens

IS Face Book

Question 55

6) An indication of a possible chemical suicide incident is the presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide which has? (HM 11 3.2)
A) no odor.
B) a fruity smell.
C) a rotten egg smell.
D) a pungent odor.

Answer 55

6. C

Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide

(rotten egg smell).

Notes: (a) Sense of smell becomes desensitized rapidly and should not be relied upon to measure the presence of chemicals.

(b) See the appendix for a list of chemical characteristics, hazards and odors.

Question 56

7) At a chemical suicide incident, there are a number of actions members should take. Which choice below contains only the actions in accordance with established Department procedures? (HM 11 4, 4.1)
1. Transmit the 10-80 Code 1 signal. Ensure the response of NYPD.
2. Don full PPE and use the SCBA. Minimize the exposure of personnel and resource commitment.
3. Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. Primarily for vapor dispersal, the line may also be used for decontamination and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.
4. Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy after entering.
5. Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical mixing and poisonous gas emissions.
6. Remove the patient from the hazardous environment and check for responsiveness. If unresponsive and the assessment meets FDNY criteria for presumed death, handle the body as part of the crime scene investigation.
7. Provide patient care according to CFR protocols. Remove the patient’s clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon before transport.
8. When available, use meters to monitor oxygen levels, flammable vapor concentrations, and the presence of hydrogen sulfide, hydrogen cyanide or other chemicals.
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
B. 2,3,4,5,7,8
C. 1,2,5,6,7,8
D. 2,4,5,6,7,8

Answer 56

7. C

 Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. Primarily for decontamination; the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion.

 Ventilate the vehicle or occupancy prior to entering.

Question 57

8) An officer trained in Decontamination Engine operations should know which point below incorrect? (HM 12 4.2.1, 4.4.1, 4.4.2, 4.4.5)
A) To operate as a decon Engine, the company .
shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer/trained acting officer, and at least four trained firefighters.
B) A Decon Engine company assigned on the initial alarm (not special called as part of the Technical Decontamination Task Force) will function as a normal Engine Company, as per Department Fire Tactics and Procedures.
C) All Technical Decontamination procedures will be performed in a well-defined Decontamination Corridor inside the Warm Zone. Initially this corridor will be free of contaminants.
D) Decon Engine Personnel can establish the Warm Zone / Decontamination Corridor and set- up the necessary equipment wearing their work duty uniform or bunker gear. Once responders or patients present at the edge of the decon corridor, personnel staffing the decon must be in appropriate CPC for the incident encountered.

Answer 57

8. A
9. 2.1 To operate as a Decon Engine, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of one trained officer or trained acting officer, and at least three trained firefighters.

Question 58

9) BC Question - The type of decontamination employed at a particular event can vary greatly depending on the circumstances. Of the following choices, which one is unequivocally incorrect? (HM 12 6.4, 6.6, 7.1)
A) Emergency gross decontamination procedures are not always required for non-ambulatory patients.
B) Routine Haz-Mat responses with or without patients can be handled with one Technical Decon Task Force. In certain circumstances, a second Task Force may be required for augmentation or relief.
C) The optimal staffing of a non-ambulatory decon station for numerous patients requires two Technical Decon Task Forces.
D) For a chemical attack in a subway that produces numerous ambulatory and non-ambulatory patients, at least two Decon Task Forces should be called immediately.

Answer 58

9. D

The final scenario presented is unprecedented and will test the best-equipped and trained department, requiring an unusual commitment of resources. At least four Decon Task Forces should be called immediately for such a situation, one to perform ambulatory patient decon, one to perform responder decon, and two to perform non-ambulatory patient decon.

Question 59

10) BC Question - Members trained to operate in Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) may be directed to administer an antidote for a particular nerve agent. All of the following are correct regarding this procedure except? (HM 13 3.1, 6.2 - 6.5)
A) The Office of Medical Affairs (OMA) is responsible for oversight of the administration of the antidote to victims of a nerve agent / organophosphate exposure.
B) The determination to administer the antidote in the Exclusion and Contamination Reduction Zones will be made by the Incident Commander based on the recommendation of the Medical Branch Director in conjunction with the OMA Response Physician.
C) The Haz-Tac Officer will direct the administration of the antidote in the Exclusion and Contamination Reduction Zones.
D) Antidote administration in the Exclusion and Contamination Reduction Zones will be directed primarily to, but not limited to, Green Tag patients.

Answer 59

10. D
11. 4 Antidote administration in the Exclusion and Contamination Reduction Zones will be directed primarily to, but not limited to, critical (Red Tag) patients.

Question 60

11) BC Question - The Incident Commander of a complex haz-mat operation has many things to consider. An experienced Chief should know which choice to be incorrect regarding Technical Decon Task Forces? (HM 12 2.1, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4.4.1)
A) Technical Decon Task Forces shall only respond to special calls. Incident Commanders shall assess the potential need for Technical Decon Task Forces and notify the dispatcher to special call the number of Task Forces required.
B) Each Technical Decon Task Force will be identified by the Battalion from which it was called. For example, Battalion 26 assigned to respond as part of a Technical Decon Task Force, along with Decon Engine 73, and SOC Support Ladder 42 with their support vehicle, will be designated as Technical Decon Task Force 26.
C) The Decon Engine Officer will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader. All communications between the Task Force and the Incident Commander will be accomplished through the Task Force Leader.
D) The Task Force Leader should request specific response instructions while en route to the incident. Dependent on conditions at the scene (work zones, water supply, wind conditions, etc.) the Incident Commander may direct that the Task Force respond to a specific location that is distant from operations in order to allow the Task Force to establish a Decon Corridor to which people can be directed.

Answer 60

11. C

3. 1 The Battalion Chief will be designated as the Technical Decon Task Force Leader.

Question 61

1) Of the following statements concerning the Department’s water extinguisher, which choice reflects the most correct statements? (TB Tools 1 - 1, 2D, 4)
1. It has an operating pressure of 100 psi at 70 degrees F.
2. Water is expelled in 120 seconds.
3. In freezing weather, the extinguisher should be placed in an apparatus cab or other warm
area if the unit will be operating for an extended period.
4. There are two types of water extinguishers; those with a Schrader valve connected directly
to a valve handle and those with no Schrader valve.
5. The water extinguisher shall be hydrostatically tested at 1 year intervals or at any time it
shows evidence of corrosion or mechanical damage.
6. When operating the water extinguisher, direct the straight stream at the base of the fire. A
gloved finger placed lightly over the nozzle tip can help produce a fine spray which is often
useful at fires to obtain maximum cooling effect and extended the application time.
7. Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should only be used at very small or
smoldering fires where there is no detectable thermal draft created by the fire.
8. The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use.
A) 1,2,3,4,5,6
B) 1,3,4,6,7,8
C) 1,2,3,4,5,6,8
D) 1,3,4,5,8

Answer 61

1. B

Water expelled in 55 seconds.

 Check hydrostatic test date. If is greater than 5 years, extinguisher must be placed out of service. (Figure 3)

Question 62

2) Safety is an important part of routine maintenance. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (TB Tools 1 6)
A) Eye protection should be worn when recharging extinguisher.
B) Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 100 psi.
C) Never stand directly in front of extinguisher gauge or stand over the valve during
pressurization.
D) The apparatus has a one way valve in the airline to prevent water from entering the brake system.

Answer 62

2. B

 Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 125 PSI.

Question 63

3) The portable generator has many uses. A competent officer should know all of the following to be correct with the exception of? (TB Tools 4 2.1, 2.3, 2.4, 3.8.1)
A) Portable generator lights in use by the Department utilize 500-watt lamps.
B) If generator lights fail to illuminate when power is applied, check bulb for proper connection.
C) If after checking the bulb connection the light fails to operate, replace with a new bulb.
D) If the light still fails to operate after replacing the bulb, open up the unit to ensure there is no fraying of the wires that supply the light

Answer 63

3. D
4. 4 If after checking the bulb connection the light fails to operate, replace with a new bulb. If the light still fails to operate, send the entire light assembly to Technical Services for repair.

Question 64

4) Which choice below contains the most correct information regarding the various generators Fire Department units employ? (TB Tools 4 3.5, 4.3, 4.6, 5.3, TB Tools 4 DS 1 1.2, 1.3, 4.4)
1. If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical cord should be “100 feet” or less.
2. Apparatus with 12-gauge wire may encounter problems powering exhaust fans when the length of the electric cord is greater than 50 feet.
3. Onboard generators shall be checked weekly during Multi Unit Drill.
4. Waterproof connections are good for use in up to “3 feet” of water when properly mated.
Care must be used when using all other connections near water.
5. Both Department-issued Honda portable generators have an approximate running time of
“41⁄2 hours.”
6. Operations requiring maximum power output should be limited to “60 minutes” for the
Honda portable generators.
A) 1,2,3,6
B) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 2,3,4,5
D) 1,2,3,5

Answer 64

4. C
5. 5 If a portable generator is used to power an exhaust fan, the ideal length of the electrical cord should be 50 feet or less. Electrical cords of longer lengths reduce the efficiency of the fan and may result in damage to the equipment being used. Distance is not a problem when powering small tools and lights.
6. 4 Operations requiring maximum power output should be limited to 30 minutes.