FO CLASS #3 - Week of 2319 T.B.'s–SCBAPgs1-43,Comm.Man,Ch.8,T.B.–Search,FFP-Ventilation,T.B.–Tools #7 DC Pat Sheridan

Question 1

1. Modern content fires have spurred the FDNY to issue a Ventilation Bulletin. Which point found in the Glossary is correct? (Glossary) (A) Auto-exposure is the extension of fire via the exterior of the building from a fire originating in an adjoining building. (B) The Fully Developed Stage is the stage of fire development which has reached its peak heat release rate, usually occurring after flashover. (C) Rollover occurs in the incipient stage. When observed at the ceiling level, it usually indicates that the fire is beginning to diminish. (D) Flow path is the movement of heat and smoke from the lower pressure within the fire area towards the higher pressure accessible via doors, window openings and roof structures. (E) Ventilation is the controlled and coordinated removal of heat and smoke from a structure, replacing the escaping gases with fresh air. This exchange is bi-directional with heat and smoke exhausting at the bottom and air flowing in towards the fire at the top.

Answer 1

1. B Auto-Exposure The extension of fire via the exterior of a building from a fire originating in the same building. Rollover Occurs in the growth stage when sufficient fuel, heat and oxygen are available to allow flame spread in the upper hot gas layer inside the compartment. When observed at the ceiling level, rollover shall be taken as an indicator that fire conditions are rapidly deteriorating and flashover may be imminent. Flow Path The movement of heat and smoke from the higher pressure within the fire area towards the lower pressure areas accessible via doors, window openings and roof structures. As the heated fire gases are moving towards the low pressure areas, the energy of the fire is pulling in additional oxygen from the low pressure areas. Based on varying building design and the available ventilation openings (doors, windows, etc.), there may be several flow paths within a structure. Any operations conducted in the flow path will place members at significant risk due to the increased flow of fire, heat and smoke toward their position. Ventilation The controlled and coordinated removal of heat and smoke from a structure, replacing the escaping gases with fresh air. This exchange is bi-directional with heat and smoke exhausting at the top and air flowing in towards the fire at the bottom. The fire will pull the additional air flow into the building towards the fire which can intensify the fire conditions. This exchange can occur by opening doors, windows or roof structures. Coordinated and controlled ventilation will facilitate quicker extinguishment and limit fire spread.

Question 2

2. Modern content fires follow a different progression than the traditional fire development curve. Which choice concerning modern content fires is incorrect? (Sec. 2.1.6) (A) A rapid growth stage that consumes the available oxygen very quickly follows the incipient stage. (B) Since modern content fires rapidly consume the available oxygen within the fire area, they enter into an earlier oxygen limited Decay stage when compared to legacy fires, and will remain in the Decay stage if no additional oxygen is added to the fire area. (C) When units encounter an earlier Decay stage, they shall perform rapid horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment to remove the smoke. (D) If additional oxygen is admitted to a fire area that is in an earlier Decay stage, the fire can enter into a rapid second Growth stage, followed by a ventilation induced flashover and transition into the fully developed stage. (E) A second Decay stage will follow the fully developed stage as the fuel load is depleted or the fire is extinguished.

Answer 2

2. C  When units encounter this earlier decay stage, they shall control the ventilation of windows and maintain control of the door to the fire area.

Question 3

3. Several developments in firefighting equipment and modern building construction have affected ventilation tactics. Which choice is incorrect concerning these changes? (Sec. 3.1) (A) Energy efficient building construction results in increased heat release rates and convective heat along the flow path from the area. Convective heat is absorbed by members PPE at a rate faster than radiant heat. (B) PPE was not designed to allow members to go further within a fire area; it was designed to protect members in the event conditions transitioned to an untenable situation. (C) Units equipped with Thermal Imaging Cameras must carry and use them at all structural fires. (D) Until a charged hoseline is available to advance on the fire, it is critical to maintain control of the entrance doorway to the fire occupancy, unless there is a known life hazard.

Answer 3

3. D Until a charged hoseline is available to advance on the fire, it is critical to control the flow path of fire conditions by maintaining control of the entrance doorway to the fire occupancy.

Question 4

4. The Ventilation Profile is the appearance of the fire building’s ventilation points showing the flow paths of heat and smoke out of the structure as well as any air movement into the structure. Which point about the Ventilation Profile is incorrect? (Sec. 4.1) (A) Smoke or fire movement is normally downward, horizontally or pulsing from an opening in the building. (B) With modern content fires, it is no longer accurate to assume that the absence of smoke pushing from a building is a positive sign. (C) With modern content fires, heavy flames out the window are usually an indicator of high heat and smoke conditions within the interior. (D) The more that venting flames fill the open window at modern content fires, the more members can anticipate severe interior conditions.

Answer 4

4. A  Fire and smoke should be venting outwards and upwards. If the smoke and fire are venting downward, horizontally or pulsing from an opening in the building, this indicates the fire conditions may be wind impacted.

Question 5

5. The OV FF from Ladder 100 is on the rear fire escape in position to perform ventilation of the fire apartment windows as Engine 200 stretches a hoseline to the fire apartment. When would the OV FF be permitted to perform horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment? (Sec. 7.1, 7.2, 10.2.1, 11.4) (A) Upon hearing that Engine 200 was entering the fire area with a charged hoseline. (B) When the Officer of Engine 200 called for water. (C) When the Officer of Ladder 100 granted permission. (D) Upon hearing that the door to the fire area was controlled. (E) When the Officer of Engine 200 requested ventilation be performed.

Answer 5

5. C 7.1 All horizontal ventilation tactics, whether Ventilation for Extinguishment or Ventilation for Search, require communication with, and coordination by, the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area to be vented.

Question 6

6. While conducting a search for a reported missing occupant while the first Engine Company arrived on scene, Lt. Green encountered a high heat condition in a front bedroom while using a Thermal Imaging Camera. What would be an incorrect action for Lt. Green to take? (Sec. 8.1) (A) Immediately exit the front bedroom and shut the door to the bedroom. (B) Notify the OV FF to delay performing horizontal ventilation of the front bedroom. (C) Request that the Engine Company advance a charged hoseline into the front bedroom. (D) Immediately order the Inside Team to exit the fire apartment and request the OV FF to perform horizontal ventilation of the front bedroom to cool the room.

Answer 6

6. D

Question 7

7. The Roof FF may break the skylight over the interior stairs at a fire in a Brownstone in all but which one of the following choices? (Sec. 10.2.1) (A) After communicating with and receiving approval from the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area to be vented. (B) Only when the Incident Commander gives approval. (C) Upon hearing a HT transmission that the interior team has door control on the fire floor. (D) Upon hearing a HT transmission that a charged hoseline is advancing into the fire apartment.

Answer 7

7. B  No vertical ventilation shall be performed unless the roof firefighter directly communicates with and receives approval from the Ladder Company Officer. Note: The roof firefighter may perform vertical ventilation without direct communication upon hearing radio transmissions that the interior team has door control on the fire floor, or a charged hoseline is advancing into the fire apartment.

Question 8

8. In which choice were proper procedures followed regarding horizontal ventilation for search and extinguishment? (Sec. 11.2, 11.4, 12.1) (A) The OV FF performed ventilation for extinguishment of the fire apartment upon hearing the HT transmission of the Engine Officer requesting the ECC to start water. (B) The OV FF ventilated the windows in the fire room upon hearing the Engine Officer notify the IC that they were knocking down visible fire. (C) After performing his initial duties at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 story OLT, the 1st Roof FF contacted his Officer and requested permission to ventilate the top floor rear apartment from the fire escape. (D) Prior to performing ventilation of the fire apartment from the front fire escape of a NLT, the 1st arriving OV FF contacted his Officer via HT and requested permission. (E) Prior to performing ventilation for search in the fire apartment, the 1st OV FF contacted the IC to request permission to enter.

Answer 8

8. D

Question 9

9. A member would be required to team up with another member before performing ventilation for search in which choice? (Sec. 12.2, 12.3, 12.3.1) (A) A member in a TL bucket sees a civilian in a front bedroom. (B) The OV FF, operating on a rear fire escape, hears a person coughing in a medium smoke condition on the floor above the fire. (C) A member ascends a portable ladder to the apartment above the fire and sees through heavy smoke that the lights and the television are on. (D) Upon arrival, the Engine Officer is met by a civilian who states that her mother is still in the fire apartment. (E) The Dispatcher contacts the first arriving Engine Company via Department radio and tells the Officer that they are on the phone with an occupant of the fire apartment, who is non-ambulatory and unable to evacuate.

Answer 9

9. C 12.3 The only exception to this Federally mandated standard for the teaming of members, is when a known life hazard is found and immediate action could prevent the loss of life. This does not apply to standard search and rescue procedures. 12.3.1 A known life hazard is defined as follows:  A victim can be seen by the rescuer.  A victim can be heard by the rescuer.  A member has information from a credible source or a person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard. Note: In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted.

Question 10

10. BC Question - If individual action (member entered alone for search) was taken in all of the choices in Question #9, how many situations would require the IC to forward a report to the Chief of Operations detailing full particulars? (Sec. 12.3, 12.3.1) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 5

Answer 10

10. E Note: In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted.

Question 11

11. While conducting a drill on Ventilation for Search, Capt. Jones made several statements. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 12.6) (A) The Ladder Company Officer shall be notified when a search team enters from the exterior to conduct a search for a known life hazard or for standard search procedures. (B) If the Ladder Company Officer and the interior team have quicker access to the victim or area requiring a search, the Ladder Officer may disapprove the entry to search. (C) Upon completion of clearing a window in order to search, before entering, reassess the smoke and heat conditions to determine if area is tenable. (D) If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the victim shall be immediately removed from the IDLH. Isolating the room is only required if a victim is not found.

Answer 11

11. D Note: If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the member shall isolate the room and proceed with the rescue effort.

Question 12

1. The best lifesaving tactic we have is a systematic search plan, coupled with rapid water on the fire. Choose the incorrect point concerning searches conducted in the modern fire environment. (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, 4.5, 4.6) (A) Synthetic materials have a higher heat release rate, giving off heat more quickly than ordinary combustibles. (B) With modern synthetic contents and new building construction, conditions may become untenable in as little as 1 ½ minutes after entry (ventilation). (C) A search of a building is conducted for the purpose of locating people only. (D) Prior to reaching the fire floor, a survey can be conducted of the floor below to determine the interior hallway layout, floor plan of the apartment, apartment numbering system, and closest means of access to a fire apartment. (E) Members of the outside team must report wind conditions and its effect on the fire and smoke conditions to their Officer and the IC.

Answer 12

1. C 3.1 A search is an orderly and systematic examination of a building or area for the purpose of locating persons, or locating fire and extension of fire.

Question 13

2. Size-up starts with the receipt of the alarm. Which point about size-up performed at different types of occupancies is incorrect? (Sec. 4.7) (A) It can be assumed there will be a large number of sleeping occupants in a multiple dwelling at night. (B) Commercial buildings may have watchmen or cleaning personnel working after normal business hours. (C) Commercial loft buildings may have been converted into residential buildings. (D) Office buildings often have cleaning and maintenance people present day and night. Computer personnel are often present 24 hours a day. (E) When taxpayers have roll down security doors with padlocks in place, assume that no one is present inside.

Answer 13

2. E  It cannot be assumed no one is present inside taxpayers that have roll down security doors with padlocks in place. Many times people are padlocked in to provide security at night.

Question 14

3. Upon arriving at the fire apartment on the 3rd floor of a Row Frame multiple dwelling, the Inside Team of Ladder 100 forces entry to the apartment and begins a primary search for life. Which thought was incorrect? (Sec. 6.1, 6.3, 6.4) (A) The primary search is rapid but thorough and systematic, and should be performed quickly. (B) If entry can be made and members can conduct a search without the protection of a hoseline, the members may attempt to locate and contain the fire area of origin, and then start the search for life from that point. (C) If untenable, members shall move in behind the engine company advance and search from behind the hoseline. (D) The search for life in the areas adjacent to or above the fire area/floor should start after searching for the extension of fire.

Answer 14

3. D 6.4 The search for life in the areas adjacent to or above the fire area/floor, should start immediately upon entering the area, followed by searching for the extension of fire. Any extension should be immediately reported to the IC.

Question 15

4. Upon conclusion of operations at a fire in a Brownstone building, the IC conducted a critique. Which statement made concerning secondary searches should be corrected? (Sec. 7.1, 7.2, 7.3) (A) If the Forcible Entry team of Ladder 200 performed the primary search of the fire apartment, it is permissible for the LCC and OV FF from Ladder 200 to perform the secondary search of the fire apartment. (B) A secondary search shall be completed before any extensive overhauling of the fire area is attempted. (C) The secondary search is a thorough and painstakingly complete search for life of all areas that required a primary search. Time is not as important as accuracy. (D) The secondary search must also include the entire outside perimeter of the building and all shafts, basements, cellars, elevators and roofs.

Answer 15

4. A 7.3 A secondary search must be performed by a different company than the company which performed the primary search.

Question 16

5. After the Ladder Company Officer ordered the Forcible Entry Team to force the main door that the occupants use, he considered several points. Which one was correct? (Sec. 9.5, 9.6, 9.8) (A) If the fire is wrapping around the door jamb as the door is being forced open, a hoseline must be called for before the door is opened. (B) The area in the vicinity of, and behind, the entrance door must be checked as soon as entry is made. (C) Upon entering the occupancy, place a small sure search door marker around the interior door knob only to prevent the door from locking while permitting easy removal. (D) Upon entering an IDLH area, members can begin the search in an upright stance if conditions are not severe.

Answer 16

5. B If fire is wrapping around the door jamb as the door is being forced open, a hoseline must be charged and in place at the door before the door is opened. Upon entering the occupancy, do not let a door lock behind you. Set the lock or put a large sure search door marker over the latch and around both knobs (See Training Bulletin Tools 19). Upon entering any IDLH area, all searches shall be conducted with members at the floor level.

Question 17

Answer Questions 6 - 7 based on the following: Ladder 90 arrives at the entrance door to the fire apartment, located on the 4th floor of a 5 story OLT. Engine 30, the first due engine, is delayed due to Building Inspection and arrives on scene as Ladder 90 is forcing entry to the fire apartment. 6. Ladder 90 operated incorrectly in which choice? (Sec. 9.10.1) (A) Prior to entering the fire apartment, the Officer of Ladder 90 notified the IC and Officer of Engine 30 the identity of the fire apartment. The Officer notified the IC and the Officer of Engine 30 that the door was being maintained closed. (B) The Forcible Entry FF of Ladder 90 was ordered to remain at the door inside the fire apartment, and to maintain the door closed but not locked. (C) The Hydra Ram was brought inside the fire apartment after forcing entry, in case the door was accidentally locked. (D) When the members of Ladder 90 Inside Team were forced to evacuate the fire apartment, the Forcible Entry FF accounted for the interior team and closed the door after all members had exited the fire apartment.

Answer 17

6. C The interior team shall leave the hydraulic forcible entry tool outside the doorway to indicate the apartment they are searching.

Question 18

Answer Questions 6 - 7 based on the following: Ladder 90 arrives at the entrance door to the fire apartment, located on the 4th floor of a 5 story OLT. Engine 30, the first due engine, is delayed due to Building Inspection and arrives on scene as Ladder 90 is forcing entry to the fire apartment. 7. When Engine 30 arrives at the door to the fire apartment with a charged hoseline, the Officer of Engine 30 would be operating properly in which choice? (Sec. 9.10.1) (A) He notified the Officer of Ladder 90 that Engine 30 had a charged line and then entered the fire apartment. (B) He notified the Officer of Ladder 90 that Engine 30 had a charged line and then entered when the Officer of Ladder 90 acknowledged the transmission. (C) He notified the Officer of Ladder 90 that Engine 90 had a charged line and was ready to enter the fire apartment, but did not enter until the Officer of Ladder 90 acknowledged and approved. (D) He notified the Forcible Entry FF at the door that Engine 30 had a charged line and then entered the fire apartment.

Answer 18

7. C Once the engine company reaches the apartment door with a charged hoseline, the Engine Officer must notify the Ladder Company Officer of their readiness to enter the apartment and that the apartment door will be opened. The door should not be opened until the Ladder Company Officer acknowledges and approves.

Question 19

8. While teaching a new member the proper way to VEIS through a window, Capt. Tom made several statements. Which one was correct? (Sec. 9.11, 9.12) (A) Prior to entering a window to perform a search, a member shall notify the IC. (B) Before entering, probe for possible victims and then check the floor for stability. (C) If possible, clear out only the lower window pane in order to limit the flow path. (D) Immediately upon entering the room from a window, members should close the door to the room.

Answer 19

8. B  Prior to entering a window to perform a search, member shall notify their officer.  Before entering an apartment clear out the entire window. Removing it will provide a larger and better means of egress if conditions deteriorate.  Immediately upon entering the room from a window, members should make a quick check/sweep of the floor in the hall outside the door for any victims before closing the door.

Question 20

9. Company Officers must evaluate the risk of going above a fire without a protective hoseline and determine the benefits and consequences. In which choice did the 2nd arriving Ladder Company Officer not operate correctly at a fire with reported people trapped on the floor above the fire? (Sec. 10.1, 10.2, 10.3, 10.5, 10.6) (A) After notifying the 1st Ladder Company Officer via HT that they were proceeding to the floor above, she ascended the stairs without receiving acknowledgement due to heavy radio traffic. (B) She ensured that members got up and off the stairs immediately. (C) Upon reaching the floor above the fire, she ordered the Forcible Entry team to force the door to the apartment adjacent to the apartment over the fire to provide an area of refuge. (D) Upon hearing an “Urgent” HT transmission that the 1st Engine Company had a burst length and the fire was burning out of control, she ordered members to return to the fire floor prior to determining if the fire had extended.

Answer 20

9. A 10.2 Prior to proceeding above the fire, notification must be made to officers on the fire floor. Acknowledgement of this message must be received before proceeding above. This is necessary to ensure that the officers of units operating on the fire floor will know who must be notified of any situation necessitating their withdrawal from the floor above.

Question 21

10. All of the following points concerning searches are correct with the exception of which one? (Sec. 12.4, 12.7) (A) A locked bathroom door is usually an indication that someone is inside. (B) If a room has a padlock on it, assume it is unoccupied. (C) When forcing an apartment door, if the night latch chain is in place, this indicates a strong possibility that victims will be present. (D) Ensure that all interior walls of a closet are touched when searching the closet floor. This will ensure the search reaches the back of the closet.

Answer 21

10. B  If a room has a padlock on it, don’t assume it is unoccupied. Children are sometimes locked in when parents leave.

Question 22

11. When members have located a victim, they must transmit signal 10-45 and remove the victim via the safest route available. Which choice shows the correct priority order of removal? (Sec. 13.2) 1. Fire Escape 2. Ladders 3. Life Saving Rope 4. Interior Stairs 5. Horizontal Exits (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 (C) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 (D) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer 22

11. B I Have Five Little Rats

Question 23

1. BC Question - Which choice is correct concerning the transmission of injuries to members on the Department radio? (Sec. 8.2.5, 8.2.6, Safety Bulletin 7 Sec. 2.1.3) (A) The name and unit number of a member with a first degree burn on their arm may be transmitted after requesting “Mixer off.” (B) The unit number of a member who suffered a minor abrasion may be transmitted after requesting “Mixer off.” The name of a member may never be transmitted on the Department radio. (C) Initial notification to the Dispatcher of a member who has suffered third degree burns to their knees shall be made by a telephone call to the Dispatcher, and shall not include the name or unit of the member. Injuries of this nature shall not be transmitted on the Department radio. (D) When a member has suffered a serious injury, particulars shall be telephoned to the Fire Department Operations Center. As soon as possible thereafter, the dispatcher shall be notified via a “Mixer off” message, followed immediately by a telephone notification to the Dispatcher with full particulars. (E) When an on-duty member has suffered a serious injury, the signal 10-45 must be transmitted as soon as possible via Department radio after requesting “Mixer off.”

Answer 23

1. A 8.2.5 The name or unit number of a member with a minor injury may be transmitted over the Department radio after requesting “Mixer off.”

Question 24

2. Engine 300, a Queens unit, attempts to transmit a 10-18 for a rubbish fire that they have extinguished. After the first call is not acknowledged within 30 seconds, the Officer attempts to repeat the call and contact the Queens Dispatcher a second time. If the second call is not acknowledged, what would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 8.4.2) (A) Assume the apparatus radio is inoperative and transmit the message from the Ladder Company apparatus on scene. (B) Attempt to contact the Queens Dispatcher a third time from the Engine 300 apparatus. (C) After attempting to contact the Queens Dispatcher for a third time from the Engine 300 apparatus, and not receiving a response, switch to the Citywide Dispatcher and attempt to transmit the 10-18. (D) After attempting to contact the Queens Dispatcher for a third time from the Engine 300 apparatus, and not receiving a response, immediately call the Queens Dispatcher via telephone.

Answer 24

2. B 8.4.3 In the event a first call is not acknowledged within 30 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call. Do not make more than three attempts to contact the dispatcher. If the third call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and transmit your message from another mobile unit. If no radio response is received after three attempts have been made from another mobile unit, or there are indications of a problem with the borough radio frequency (dead air), the member operating the radio shall switch to the citywide frequency and advise the citywide radio dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that borough frequency. Upon receipt of this message, the citywide radio dispatcher shall verify the operability of that borough frequency and advise the unit accordingly. If the member is unable to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the borough or citywide dispatcher via telephone.

Question 25

3. It is extremely important for members to know the restrictions on using various communication devices at incidents involving or possibly involving explosives. Which choice is incorrect? (Sec. 8.4.5) (A) Handie-Talkies shall not be used within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, areas where blasting operations are in progress, or at emergencies for reported explosive devices. (B) Handie-Talkies shall not be operated in a building where police personnel are searching for an explosive device. (C) Cell phones shall not be used within 300 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, areas where blasting operations are in progress, or at emergencies for reported explosive devices. (D) Apparatus, Post and Marine radios shall not be operated within 300 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, areas where blasting operations are in progress, or at emergencies for reported explosive devices.

Answer 25

3. C 8.4.5 Handie-Talkies and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress.

Question 26

4. If the transmitting button on the apparatus radio is depressed for longer than _____, an audible signal will alert the user that the transmission has been automatically interrupted. To transmit a lengthy message, it is necessary to release and re-depress the transmitting button at intervals of ________ or less. (Sec. 8.4.6) (A) 30 seconds (B) 45 seconds (C) One minute (D) Two minutes

Answer 26

4. C

Question 27

5. A young Firefighter making entries in their training notebook asks the Officer for an explanation of several radio signals. Which one was correct? (p. 7-8) (A) 10-8 Code 1 is used by an Engine or Ladder Company to indicate it is in-service by radio when leaving a quarters other than its own at which it had been off the air and to which its alarms had been routed. (B) 10-8 Code 2 is used by any unit to indicate it is on air outside its response area. When the unit returns to its response area, the dispatcher must be notified again using 10-8. (C) A 10-14 signal is used when an Engine or Ladder Company is staffed with 4 Firefighters is assigned to a structural response. (D) Only a Chief Officer can transmit a 10-18 or 10-19 signal. (E) When a 10-20 signal is transmitted, sirens shall not be used, but warning lights shall remain on.

Answer 27

5. B 10-8 In-Service by Radio A unit leaving the scene of an incident where it had either operated or stood fast is on the air and available. This signal is also used when the AT/SP or PC/ATS is not in service and a unit is leaving quarters. This signal is not used when unit is leaving quarters for non-emergency response. Code 1: Used only by a Division or Battalion to indicate it is in-service by radio when leaving a quarters other than its own at which it had been off the air and to which its alarms had been routed. 10-14 Roster Staffed Engine Company When an engine company staffed with an Officer and four Firefighters is assigned to a structural response, the Firefighter on housewatch, if unit is in quarters, shall acknowledge receipt of the alarm via the 10-14 button at the AT/SP or PC/ATS. 10-18 Return all Units, except 1 Engine AND 1 Ladder Transmitted for a fire or emergency, when in the judgment of the Incident Commander, 10-19 Return All Units, Except 1 Engine OR 1 Ladder Transmitted for a fire or emergency, when in the judgment of the Incident Commander 10-20 Proceed at Reduced Speed Responding units are to proceed at reduced speed. No warning devices are to be used and all traffic regulations are to be observed.

Question 28

6. At 0300 hours, a Brooklyn Engine Company extinguishes a fire in an abandoned auto with front and rear New Jersey license plates that has no value other than salvage. What would be the proper signals to transmit? (p. 8, 9) (A) 10-23, 10-41-1 (B) 10-24, 10-41-2 (C) 10-24, 10-41-3 (D) 10-23, 10-41-3

Answer 28

6. C 10-24 Auto Fire A fire in a vehicle with plates or in any vehicle having a value greater than that of salvage. 10-41 Fire Marshal Investigation Required (Specify Code) Code 3: Unoccupied Vehicle A vehicle, (car, bus or train) with or without plates, which is unoccupied at the time of the fire.

Question 29

7. In which of the following manhole or transformer fires or emergencies was the proper signal transmitted? (p. 8) (A) 10-25 Code 1 for a fire that has blown three manhole covers. (B) 10-25 Code 2 for smoke seeping from a manhole. (C) 10-25 Code 3 for a transformer fire that has extended to the building. (D) 10-25 Code 4 for smoke issuing from a transformer.

Answer 29

7. A BUST- Blown, Under Pressure, Seeping, Transformer 10-25 Manhole or Transformer Fire or Emergency Any type of manhole or transformer fire or emergency. Without Code: Situation other than as described in Codes 1, 2, 3, or 4. Code 1: Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building. Code 2: Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure. Code 3: Smoke is seeping from a manhole. Code 4: Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location. i.e., pole, vault, room, etc. Note: Utility Company will dispatch an emergency crew immediately upon receipt of a Code 1 or Code 4 signal.

Question 30

8. At which incident in the NYC Subway System was the wrong signal transmitted? (p. 8-9) (A) 10-28-1 for a newsstand fire in an underground station. (B) 10-28-2 for a train fire on an elevated track. (C) 10-28-3 for a person who fell while exiting a train and sprained their ankle. (D) 10-28-3 for an overheated ballast in a light fixture near the MetroCard machine.

Answer 30

8. C 10-28 Subway or Railroad System - Fire, Emergency (non-medical) or Smoke Condition Code 1: Structural fire Code 2: Non-Structural fire (e.g. train fire, rubbish on the tracks, etc.) Code 3: Emergency (non-medical)

Question 31

9. The proper signal to transmit at stuck occupied elevator would be? (p. 9, 11, 12, 23) (A) 10-31 (B) 10-37-4 (C) 10-40-2 (D) 10-91

Answer 31

9. A 10-31 Assist Civilian All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident, good intention calls, calls handled by other agencies, any type of investigation, searches and complaints, elevator emergencies, and lock-outs. Chapter 4 Section 1.3 of the New York Fire Incident Reporting System (NYFIRS) lists incidents and situations codes.

Question 32

10. A recently promoted Lieutenant working in Manhattan had several runs on the 6x9 tour. In which one did she transmit the incorrect signal? (p. 9-10) (A) 10-34-2 for a surge in pressure resulting in a valve alarm for a sprinkler system. (B) 10-35-3 for a smoke detector activation in a high rise office building caused by construction workers creating sheetrock dust. (C) 10-35-1 for an alarm activation when the Fire Safety Director was performing a test of the alarm system. (D) 10-35-4 for a smoke detector activation caused by office workers smoking in the stairwell. (E) 10-40-2 for a Class E alarm activation caused by an electric power fluctuation.

Answer 32

10. B Codes 1-4 - Unnecessary alarm. Alarm device, equipment or system operating properly but unnecessarily activated by lack of due care. DO NOT use this code when there is a fire or other condition warranting an emergency response. Code 1: Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing. Code 2: Unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities. Code 3: Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray). Code 4: Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause. (e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas). When this code is used, a NYFIRS report must be completed setting forth the cause of the unnecessary alarm and the relevant particulars. Select appropriate code based on best information available, whether observed by or reported to responding unit.

Question 33

11. Units responded to a three vehicle accident on the FDR drive that was blocking all of the northbound lanes. All of the involved vehicles were occupied by the driver only. One of the vehicles involved caught fire, and the driver, who was trapped and had to be extricated, suffered serious, life threatening injuries. The drivers of the other two vehicles suffered non-serious, non-life threatening injuries and were able to remove themselves from their vehicles. After transmitting a 10-84, 10-44, and 10-47, which choice contains the correct signals transmitted at this incident? (p. 11-13) (A) 10-36-2, 10-37-2 only (B) 10-36-4, 10-37-3, 10-45-2 (C) 10-36-3, 10-37-3, only (D) 10-36-2, 10-37-2, 10-45-3

Answer 33

11. B 10-36 Vehicle Accident or Emergency Code 1: Vehicle accident or emergency requiring washdown Code 2: Vehicle accident, no injuries and no washdown Code 3: Vehicle accident with injuries Code 4: Vehicle accident, with or without injuries, with a trapped victim requiring extrication No Code: Vehicle emergency other than described above 10-37 Medical Assignment Not Associated with Fire Operations Code 1: Victim deceased. Code 2: Victim/Patient is NOT breathing and requires resuscitation or may be suffering from a serious, apparently life threatening injury or illness. Code 3: Victim/Patient IS breathing and suffering from a non-serious, apparently not life threatening injury or illness. Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact and EMS is on-scene. Note: Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a flame. The officer transmitting signal 10-45 for this type of burn injury shall request the response of a Battalion Chief to the scene. Where doubt exists as to which signal to transmit, a Battalion Chief shall be requested to respond to the scene 10-44 Request for Ambulance A request for an ambulance response from the EMS Command. Specify the reason and type (when possible). 10-47 Police Response Police assistance is needed for crowd or traffic control, security, apprehension, etc. The dispatcher shall be advised of the specific reason for the request.

Question 34

12. After responding to a reported odor of gas, members discovered a defective gas clothes dryer, and the only occupant of the residence was found unconscious and required resuscitation by members. Although the CO detectors found in the building, including the detector in the bedroom where the victim was found, did not activate, members obtained readings of 900 PPM on their CO detectors. Which signal would not be transmitted? (p. 11-12) (A) 10-38-1 (B) 10-38-4 (C) 10-37-2 (D) 10-40-1

Answer 34

12. A 10-38 Carbon Monoxide Response Any type of Carbon Monoxide Response Code 1: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Investigation (low battery, defective detector, unwarranted alarm, etc.)

Question 35

13. BC Question - While returning to quarters after supervising units extinguishing a rubbish fire at an unoccupied, building under construction, the BC receives a call on the Battalion cell phone from the 1st Ladder Company Officer who states that they are still on scene and located a gas can that he thinks was used as an accelerant at the rubbish fire. Which action taken would be correct? (p. 12) (A) Immediately transmit a 10-41-2 via the Department Radio. (B) Immediately notify the Dispatcher and Bureau of Fire Investigation, by telephone that the fire has been declared suspicious. (C) Notify the Dispatcher only via a “Mixer off” message that the fire has been declared suspicious. (D) Notify the Bureau of Fire Investigation via the 800 Mhz radio that the fire has been declared suspicious.

Answer 35

13. B The Incident Commander must notify the dispatcher by radio that the fire is suspicious prior to leaving the scene. If, after leaving the scene, information becomes available which indicate that the fire is suspicious, the Incident Commander shall immediately notify the dispatcher and the Bureau of Fire Investigation, by telephone, that the fire has been declared suspicious.

Question 36

14. BC Question - At the scene of fire operations, the signal 10-45 shall be transmitted upon the discovery of any fatality or injured civilians as a result of the fire operation. The IC shall then have this information transmitted over the Department radio as soon as possible. Choose the incorrect point concerning this signal. (p. 11, 13) (A) When the Medical Group Supervisor confirms that the patient is an Orange tag, transmit a 10-45 Code 3. (B) Other than to address any patient number discrepancies, the 10-45 shall not be cancelled once it is transmitted. (C) Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a flame. (D) Signal 10-45-2 shall be transmitted for a Con Ed worker who suffered life threatening steam burns while working on a ruptured steam pipe, after EMS classifies him as a Red Tag patient.

Answer 36

14. D Note: Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct result of heat from a flame.

Question 37

15. The 10-70 signal indicates that water supply is required. Which choice concerning this signal is incorrect? (p. 18) (A) It shall be transmitted by any engine on the first alarm that is unable to access a hydrant, hookup to a hydrant, or encounters a dead or frozen hydrant. (B) Transmission of the 10-70 signal requires an “urgent” message to the dispatcher and an “urgent” HT transmission to all units on scene. (C) When a 10-70 is transmitted, the 2nd arriving engine will be designated as the “Water Resource Unit”. (D) When a reliable and uninterrupted flow of water has been supplied to the nozzle at the correct operating pressure, the IC shall notify all units on the scene and the borough dispatcher.

Answer 37

15. A 10-70 Water Supply Is Required A notification that the first arriving engine does NOT have a positive water source.

Question 38

16. A Lt. transmitting a signal 10-75, 10-76 or 10-77 would know all of the following are correct with the exception of which choice? (p. 18-20) (A) All of these signals can be transmitted for a fire or emergency. (B) When transmitting a 10-75, include the following: the location of the fire and the height and type of building. (C) The 10-76 signal is appropriate for commercial building 75 feet or more in height. (D) The 10-77 signal is appropriate for Multiple Dwelling buildings 75 feet or more in height.

Answer 38

16. A 10-76 Notification of a Fire in a High-Rise Building 10-76 / 2nd Alarm Notification of a Fire in a High-Rise Building

Question 39

17. BC Question - The signals 10-66, 10-76 and 10-77 result in numerous resources. Choose the incorrect choice concerning these signals. (Ch.8 p. 17, 19-20 Ch. 2 p. 37) (A) When a 10-66 is transmitted, 2 additional Battalion Chiefs are assigned. The 1st BC shall be designated as the FAST Group Supervisor and is designated by the suffix F. (B) The 2nd additional BC assigned on a 10-66 is designated as the FF Locator Officer and is designated by the Suffix L. (C) Upon transmission of a 10-76 for a fire in a Mega High-Rise (Building over 800’), an enhanced response of 1 BC and 2 Ladder Companies will be added to the assignment. (D) Upon transmission of a 10-77 for a fire in a Mega High-Rise (Building over 800’), an enhanced response of 1 BC, 2 Ladder Companies and a Communications Unit will be added to the assignment.

Answer 39

17. A G FAST Group Supervisor

Question 40

18. Engine 300, which is responding to an auto accident on the Grand Central Parkway westbound at 94th Street, encounters what appears to be an auto accident at Northern Blvd., which is east of 94 St. Ladder 500, which is responding eastbound, arrives at the 94 St. exit and does not see an accident. What would be the proper procedure to take? (p. 22) 1. Engine 300 should not transmit 10-84 unless they arrive at 94 St. 2. Ladder 500 should transmit 10-84 when they arrive at the accident scene at Northern Blvd. 3. Engine 300 should transmit 10-84 when they arrive at the suspected accident scene at Northern Blvd. 4. Ladder 500 should transmit 10-84 when they arrive at 94 St. (A) 1, 3 only (B) 1, 4 only (C) 3, 4 only (D) 2, 3 only

Answer 40

18. C Notes: 1. When units are dispatched to reported non-structural incidents (e.g., auto fires, auto accidents, rubbish fires) in large open areas such as parkways, public parks, railroad tracks, etc., further investigation may be required when the incident is not at the reported location. In these instances the 10-84 shall be transmitted immediately upon arrival at the reported location, and the dispatcher shall be notified that further investigation is taking place. 2. Units encountering what appears to be the reported incident before reaching the reported location (such as highway responses) shall transmit the signal 10-84 and notify the dispatcher so that units responding are aware that the incident may be at this location. In all situations, the Incident Commander is still responsible to insure that the original reported location is checked to verify that there are not 2 separate incidents requiring FD response.

Question 41

19. Ladder 212 discovers that their apparatus radio is not operating. Which choice contains an incorrect action to take? (p. 30) (A) The Officer of Ladder 212 shall notify the Battalion and Division and call the dispatcher requesting the response of the radio mechanic. (B) The Division shall supply Ladder 212 with a portable citywide radio. Once the citywide radio is received, the Officer of Ladder 212 shall request a 10-11 radio test count from the borough dispatcher. (C) Ladder 212 shall be placed out of service until they receive a portable citywide radio from the Division. (D) When Ladder 212 receives a portable citywide radio, it shall remain in the front cab of the apparatus and not be carried or worn by the Officer.

Answer 41

19. C

Question 42

1. A basic understanding of the SCBA is necessary to ensure a safe operation. Which choice contains incorrect information? (Sec. 2.1.2, 2.1.3, 2.1.7, 2.2.3, 2.3.1, 2.4.1) (A) Because the facepiece does not cover the ears, airborne contaminants can enter the respiratory tract through a punctured or ruptured eardrum. (B) If a member runs out of air, the member should remove the regulator from the facepiece but keep the facepiece donned. (C) All members entering a confined space shall operate with SCBA donned until the space is deemed safe. (D) Contact lenses may not be worn with the SCBA due to the SCBA not protecting against exposure to flame or heat. (E) The SCBA is never to be used underwater.

Answer 42

1. D 2.3.1 Contact lenses may be worn with the SCBA.

Question 43

2. While performing an inspection of their SCBAs after the roll call for the 6x9 tour on 2/3/19, several Firefighters ask you whether their SCBA cylinder can be used on the upcoming tour. Which one is the only one that may be used that tour? (Sec. 3.2.3, 3.2.4, 3.2.5, 3.2.15, 3.3.1) (A) The Date of Manufacture on the SCOTT label reads 6/05 (B) The number 112 is found on the top of a cylinder. (C) The number found in the round Hydro Recertified label glued to it reads 10/11 (D) The cylinder has a blue top and a polymer protective sleeve. (E) The remote gauge is not in the green area.

Answer 43

2. A 3.2.3 The Date of Manufacture is listed on the SCOTT label by month and year. The service life of an air cylinder is 15 years. If a manufacture date is greater than 15 years, the cylinder must be removed from service, bled down, tagged, and returned to MSU. (Figure 1)

Question 44

3. SCOTT 4.5 SCBAs are fitted with a Universal Air Connection (UAC) System which permits emergency replenishment of an approved SCBA breathing air supply cylinder on a user’s SCBA from an approved air supply source while in use. Choose the incorrect point concerning the UAC. (Sec. 3.5.1, 3.5.2) (A) The UAC is a Quick Charge attachment that may be used for routine recharging of the air cylinder or buddy breathing. (B) The UAC is for emergency use only when the SCBA user is incapacitated within the hazardous atmosphere. (C) The supply pressure from the High Pressure Coupling of the emergency air supply to be connected to the UAC must not exceed 4500 psi. (D) The UAC Connection must have its protective dust cover in place. An SCBA with a missing UAC dust cover shall be placed out of service.

Answer 44

3. 3.2.3 The Date of Manufacture is listed on the SCOTT label by month and year. The service life of an air cylinder is 15 years. If a manufacture date is greater than 15 years, the cylinder must be removed from service, bled down, tagged, and returned to MSU. (Figure 1) 3.2.4 Hydrostatic testing is done every 5 years. If the test date shows greater than 5 years, the cylinder must be removed from service, bled down, tagged and returned to MSU. The hydrostatic test date will also be found on the top of the cylinder. For example, the number 102 will indicate that this cylinder was tested in January of 2002, and will need to be retested by January of 2007. (Figure 2) A. 10 minute escape cylinders used by Special Operations Command (SOC) units for confined space, need to be hydrostatic tested every 3 years. 3.2.5 Cylinders that have had a Hydrostatic retest will have a round Hydro Recertified label glued to it, with month and year of retest. (Figure 3) 3.2.15 Designated training cylinders are identified with a blue top and/or a polymer protective sleeve. These cylinders are not to be used for firefighting purposes

3.3.1 Exchange cylinder for one that is FULL when:
A. Prior to operating, the remote gauge reads less than FULL (green area).
B. While operating, when the remote gauge and HUD reads less than 1/4
(Vibralert, Remote Gauge and HUD (EOSTI) will warn of this).

Question 45

3. SCOTT 4.5 SCBAs are fitted with a Universal Air Connection (UAC) System which permits emergency replenishment of an approved SCBA breathing air supply cylinder on a user’s SCBA from an approved air supply source while in use. Choose the incorrect point concerning the UAC. (Sec. 3.5.1, 3.5.2)
   (A) The UAC is a Quick Charge attachment that may be used for routine recharging of the air cylinder or buddy breathing.
   (B) The UAC is for emergency use only when the SCBA user is incapacitated within the hazardous atmosphere.
   (C) The supply pressure from the High Pressure Coupling of the emergency air supply to be connected to the UAC must not exceed 4500 psi.
   (D) The UAC Connection must have its protective dust cover in place. An SCBA with a missing UAC dust cover shall be placed out of service.

Answer 45

3. A

This is not a Quick
Charge attachment and must not be used for routine recharging of the air cylinder,
buddy breathing, transferring air from another SCBA, or any other unapproved
use.

Question 46

4. The Pressure Reducer Assembly (PRA), mounted on the left side of the backframe, reduces the high pressure breathing air received from the cylinder. Which choice about the PRA is incorrect? (Sec. 3.6.1, 3.6.2, 3.6.3)
   (A) The PRA normally reduces the operating pressure to 100 psi before entering the regulator’s low pressure hose. The regulator then controls the pressure within the facepiece to slightly above atmospheric pressure.
   (B) When there is a malfunction of the PRA’s primary system, the operating pressure will only be reduced to 150 psi and cause the vibralert alarm to activate.
   (C) A failure of both the primary and secondary systems in the open position will activate a relief valve in the PRA, which will rapidly discharge all pressure in excess of 185 psi into the atmosphere.
   (D) When the primary and secondary systems both fail in the open position, the cylinder valve should be partially closed, allowing only a minimal amount of air to release.
   (E) When the primary and secondary systems fail in the open position, the member must notify their Officer and immediately leave the contaminated area while being accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA. These precautions are not necessary to take when only the primary system fails.

Answer 46

4. E

3.6.2 A malfunction of the PRA’s primary system will automatically direct breathing air
into a secondary system. When this occurs, the operating pressure will only be
reduced to 150 psi and cause the vibralert alarm to activate. The member will
only know that the vibralert alarm has activated and must notify their officer
and immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be
accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA.

Question 47

5. The Manual Shutoff Switch, Purge Valve, Spray Bar and Vibralert Alarm are components of the Regulator Assembly. Which choice is incorrect concerning these components? (Sec. 3.8.2, 3.8.4, 3.8.5, 3.8.8)
   (A) If the Manual Shutoff Switch is not pressed, a full 45 minute cylinder can be depleted in approximately 4 minutes.
   (B) The Purge valve can be used in an emergency when the regulator fails in either the open or closed position.
   (C) The Vibralert Alarm is an End of Service Time Indicator that activates at approximately 33% of the cylinders air capacity, alerting the member to exit the contaminated area.
   (D) A spray bar, comprised of 9 small holes, surrounds the upper part of the regulator assembly.

Answer 47

5. C

B. The vibralert is an End of Service Time Indicator (EOSTI) that activates at
approximately 25% of the cylinders air capacity,

Question 48

6. The Heads-up display (HUD) is an independent End of Service Time Indicator that provides a visual monitor of the air supply in the cylinder. A member would be operating correctly in all of the following situations with the exception of which one? (Sec. 3.8.9)
   (A) The member continued using the mask when two green rectangular lights and then one green rectangular light was glowing. When a yellow rectangular light began flashing slowly, the member continued operating.
   (B) When one rectangular red light on the HUD began flashing rapidly, the member notified their Officer and immediately left the contaminated area while being escorted by another member using a SCBA as required.
   (C) The member remembered that the HUD and Vibralert alarm work independently and may not activate at the same time.
   (D) When the round rectangular light at the far right of the HUD began flashing slowly, the member notified their Officer and immediately left the contaminated area while being escorted by another member using a SCBA as required.

Answer 48

6. D
7. ONE-QUARTER cylinder - EOSTI indicated by the red light at the far
   left flashing rapidly at ten times a second. When this warning light is
   flashing rapidly, the member must notify their officer and
   immediately leave the contaminated area. This member must be
   accompanied to a safe area by another member using a SCBA.

Question 49

7. SCBAs must be inspected to ensure safe operation. Choose the incorrect point concerning inspections. (Sec. 4.1.1)
   (A) SCBAs must be inspected after the 0900 and 1800 hour roll calls.
   (B) SCBAs must be inspected immediately before the start of Multi Unit Drill.
   (C) Following contamination from the products of combustion, the SCBA cylinder must be removed from the harness assembly and the cylinder and harness assembly must be cleaned using warm soapy water and a brush.
   (D) SCBAs must be inspected after each use, unless another response is received while the unit is returning to quarters.

Answer 49

7. D

4.1.1 SCBAs must be inspected:
 Immediately after the 0900 and 1800 hour roll calls,
 Immediately before the start of Multi-Unit Drill,
 After each use.

Question 50

8. Facepiece inspection is a key part of the SCBA inspection. Which choice is incorrect when the nose cup assembly or voicemitter is found to be damaged or missing during inspection? (Sec. 4.2.3)
   (A) The facepiece shall be placed out of service and forwarded to the Mask Service Unit for repair.
   (B) The Company Commander must forward a report directly to the Chief of Department.
   (C) The forwarded report shall include the name of the member discovering the facepiece and name of the member who last used and/or inspected the facepiece.
   (D) The Officer shall interview all members involved in order to ascertain how the nose cup or voicemitter became damaged or missing.

Answer 50

8. B

The officer on duty
shall forward a letterhead report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of
command stating full particulars.

Question 51

9. What would be an incorrect procedure to take when a member cannot obtain a facepiece seal while inspecting the facepiece, and another member is able to obtain a proper seal with a standard facepiece using the same unit? (Sec. 4.2.3)
   (A) Have the member attempt to obtain a proper seal with a small or extra-large facepiece obtained from the Division or Mask Service Unit.
   (B) If the member cannot obtain a proper seal with any facepiece, notify the Safety Command and Mask Service Unit immediately by telephone.
   (C) If a member cannot obtain a proper seal with any facepiece, the Company Commander shall forward a report to the Bureau of Operations.
   (D) If a member cannot obtain a proper facepiece seal with any facepiece, the unit must be placed out of service until the problem is resolved.

Answer 51

9. D

In the event a member
can not achieve a good seal with any of the facepieces available, the
following action shall be taken:
a. Safety Command and the Mask Service Unit will be immediately
notified by telephone.

b. A report giving details and actions taken is to be forwarded by the
Company Commander to the Bureau of Operations. The Bureau of
Operations will forward a report to the Safety Command.
c. Member is not to operate in areas requiring SCBA until problem is
resolved

Question 52

10. There are several Emergency Procedures that members may have to perform while operating with an SCBA. Which one of the following requires the transmission of a Mayday? (Sec. 6, 6.1, 6.2, 6.3, 6.4)
11. A Quick Release Escape is performed when an OV FF’s SCBA assembly becomes entangled in the rear while searching an attic of a private dwelling.
12. While crawling through a heavy clutter condition, a Squad FF performs the Low Profile Maneuver.
13. While attempting to move along a fire escape to perform needed ventilation, the OV FF uses the Reduced Profile Maneuver.
14. In an attempt to pass between wall studs after breaching a wall to extinguish fire in an adjoining Row Frame building, the Nozzle FF uses the Swim Move.
    (A) 1, 2, 3
    (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
    (C) 1 only
    (D) 1 and 2 only

Answer 52

10. C

If while operating, the SCBA assembly becomes entangled in the rear, the quick release
escape must be used to free oneself. Transmit a MAYDAY for assistance.

Question 53

11. If a member suffers a damaged facepiece while operating, there are several actions that can be taken. Which is not one of them? (Sec. 6.5, 6.5.1, 6.5.2, 6.5.3, 6.5.5)
    (A) Leave the facepiece on and cover the damaged area with one hand.
    (B) If the facepiece lens is bubbling, attempt to cover the bubbling area with your hand to limit the damage.
    (C) If a leak is more than can be covered with one hand, continue to cover as much of the damaged area as possible and press the manual shut-off switch after each breath.
    (D) If the damaged area is too large to allow the regulator shut-off to release, then use the purge valve in an ON and OFF motion for each breath.

Answer 53

11. B

6.5.5 A member experiencing a failure of the facepiece lens which results in bubbling
or a hole, must not touch or attempt to cover the opening. Doing so can cause the
hole in the lens to enlarge as the polycarbonate can be wiped away or can stick to
a member’s gloved hand as the lens melts.

Question 54

12. There are times when members encounter other members or civilians who are in a contaminated atmosphere without respiratory protection. Choose an incorrect action to take. (Sec. 6.6.1, 6.6.2, 6.6.3)
    (A) Facepiece sharing with other members is allowed if a member runs out of air.
    (B) Facepiece sharing with civilians is prohibited.
    (C) If a member cannot be removed from the contaminated atmosphere, the nearest available FAST Pak can be used.
    (D) If a civilian cannot be removed from a contaminated atmosphere, a FAST Pak other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit can be used.
    (E) If a member or civilian cannot be removed from a contaminated atmosphere, a spare SCBA can be used to provide air strictly to the trapped member or civilian.

Answer 54

12. A
13. 6.1 Sharing facepieces with other members or civilians is PROHIBITED

Question 55

13. All members must be aware of emergency situations that can be encountered while using SCBAs. Fill in the blanks in the following two statements. (Sec. 7.4.1, 7.5)
14. When one member strikes another member with _____ distinct blows on the shoulder and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the other member knows of an emergency and should follow in that direction.
15. When a PASS Alarm is activated in the full cycle for _____ seconds, the member hearing the alarm should immediately notify the IC. An immediate investigation of the alarm must be made to determine the cause, and the results of the investigation must be transmitted to the IC as soon as possible.
    (A) 2, 5
    (B) 4, 10
    (C) 3, 15
    (D) 5, 20

Answer 55

13. B

Question 56

14. SCBAS shall be disinfected and cleaned during roll call inspection, after members have been assigned an SCBA for the tour, and after each use. A proper action can be found in which choice? (Sec. 8.2.1, 8.2.2, 8.2.3, 8.5.3, 8.6.1, 8.6.5)
    (A) A hypochlorite solution consisting of one-quarter cup of household chlorine bleach to one gallon of water (1:100) is prepared, by mixing one package of bleach obtained from Technical Service with one gallon of water.
    (B) The SCBA facepiece is immersed in the hypochlorite solution for 5 minutes, unless there is gross contamination. If the SCBA is grossly contaminated, it can be immersed in the hypochlorite solution for up to 10 minutes.
    (C) If there is gross decontamination of the SCBA facepiece, the concentration of household bleach in the dilution can be increased to ½ cup of bleach to one gallon of water.
    (D) Glass cleaner can be used effectively to clean a SCBA facepiece.
    (E) The SCBA Regulator shall be cleaned with a 70 % Isopropyl Alcohol and water mixture. A minimum of 3 full pumps of the solution shall be sprayed into the regulator opening, including the spray bar ports, and wait 5 minutes before disinfecting.

Answer 56

14. A

8.2.2 NEVER INCREASE THE CONCENTRATION OF HOUSEHOLD BLEACH
IN THE DILUTION BEYOND THE RECOMMENDED AMOUNT

8. 5.3 Immerse facepiece in the hypochlorite solution for five minutes, wiping lens with
   cloth. Never allow facepiece to remain immersed for longer than five minutes.

Depress the manual shut-off, close the purge knob by turning fully clockwise and spray a
minimum of 6 full pumps of 70% Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening. Make
sure to also wet the immediate area around the opening (Figure 23). Swirl to completely
cover internal components. Turn regulator opening face down and shake excess liquid
out. Allow for 10 minutes of contact time to disinfect prior to rinsing.
Note: Alcohol and water should not be directed into the spray bar ports.

Question 57

15. BC Question - One of the duties of a Battalion Chief is to maintain and account for Battalion Spare SCBAs. A BC would be incorrect in performing which action? (Sec. 9.1.4, 9.1.6, 9.2)
    (A) Battalion Spares 1, 2, 3 should have an RT-2 attached to them stating annual PMP and be forwarded to the Mask Service Unit on January 1.
    (B) Battalion assigned SCBAs are forwarded to MSU with the Battalion Spares for annual PMP.
    (C) The Battalion Commander shall forward an SCBA Status Report annually by November 1. Any SCBA that has not had PMP performed by MSU for that calendar year shall be forwarded to MSU.
    (D) The status and PMP date of each Battalion Spare shall be included on the SCBA status report.

Answer 57

15. B

9.1.4 Battalion Spare SCBAs - each battalion is assigned 12 spare SCBAs. An RT-2
stating annual PMP should be attached and forward with the spares to MSU on
the following schedule;
January 1 ………………..Spares 1, 2, 3
April 1 ……………………Spares 4, 5, 6
July 1……………………..Spares 7, 8, 9
October 1………………..Spares 10, 11, 12

9.1.6 Battalion assigned SCBAs are forwarded August 1.

Question 58

16. While attempting to remove an unconscious member from a cellar in a commercial building, the IC asks the FAST Unit if they can identify the member. The Officer of the FAST Unit notes that there is a red label with 200-5 in white numerals on the downed member’s Pressure Reducer Assembly. The Officer correctly identified the downed member as? (Sec. 10)
    (A) The Control FF from Engine 200.
    (B) The Irons FF from Ladder 200.
    (C) The Hook FF from Rescue 200.
    (D) A FF using a spare SCBA from Battalion 200.

Answer 58

16. B

UNIT COLOR CODE COMPANY EXAMPLE
Engine Black E-245 245-1
Ladder Red L-25 25-1
Rescue Blue R-2 2-1
Haz Mat Blue HM-1 HM-1-1
Squad Yellow Sq-1 1-1
Battalion Yellow Bn-57 57-1
Battalion Spare Orange Bn-33 33-1
Marine Green M-6 6-1
MSU Spare Black MSU MS-1

Question 59

PART V – TRAINING BULLETINS - TOOLS 7

1. It is important for all FDNY members to be familiar with the various types of nozzles in use, and the necessary requirements to maintain them in working order. All of the following are correct except which one? (Sec. 2.2.5, 2.3.1, 2.3.1, 3.4, 3.9)
   (A) A working nozzle is any nozzle carried attached to hose in the hose bed of the apparatus.
   (B) With a variable flow fog nozzle, more water is generally delivered in the straight stream position than in the fog position.
   (C) Nozzles should be washed out and thoroughly checked for defects before being placed back in service following use.
   (D) Identifying letters and numbers placed on nozzles and components shall be stamped on the coupling along the hub, adjacent to the coupling lug.

Answer 59

1. B

B. VARIABLE FLOW - Once a given flow has been established, flow will
vary if the discharge pattern is changed. For example, more water is
generally delivered in the fog position than in the straight stream position.

Question 60

PART V – TRAINING BULLETINS - TOOLS 7

2. After a nozzle that was sent for repair was returned, what would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 3.15, 3.16)
   (A) 100’ of hose was stretched from the pumper, the nozzle was attached, and water was started and sufficient pressure developed to attain an effective stream.
   (B) The nozzle was placed on the rig immediately. Only nozzles newly issued require testing.
   (C) The nozzle was placed on the rig immediately. Nozzles only require testing annually in August and whenever deemed necessary by the Division Commander.
   (D) Attach the nozzle to one length of hose, and after supplying it with water, open and close the shut off only once in order to break it in gradually.

Answer 60

2-A

3.16 New issue or repaired nozzles shall be tested in accordance with Section 3.15
before being placed in service.

Question 61

DATA SHEET 17 – HIGH RISE NOZZLE (HRN)
1. The Officer of Engine 300, the 5th due Engine assigned on a 10-77, mentally reviews key points of the High Rise Nozzle (HRN) Procedures while responding. Engine 300 is not equipped with a HRN. Which point was correct? (Sec. 2.3)
(A) Engine 300 will not be operating the HRN due to it not being equipped with the HRN.
(B) While responding, the Officer should contact the dispatcher for the identity of the Engine Company equipped with a HRN assigned on the box.
(C) Upon arrival, after obtaining the HRN, Engine 300 will report directly to the floor below the fire with the HRN, one length of 2 ½” hose per firefighter, and the standpipe kit with controlling nozzle.
(D) Due to it being the responsibility of the 4th due Engine assigned on a 10-77 to bring the HRN to the Command Post, Engine 300 does not need to consider the operation of the HRN at this incident.

Answer 61

1. B

2.3 Every Battalion has at least one engine company assigned a HRN and all FDNY
members have been trained in placing the HRN into operation. Dispatch policy dictates
that every 10-77 will have at least one HRN equipped engine company assigned. It is the
responsibility of the 5th due engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post. If this 5th
engine is not equipped with a HRN, the officer shall contact the dispatcher for the
identity of the engine company equipped with a HRN assigned on the box. Upon arrival
the officer will have the unit bring the HRN, one length of 2 1/2” hose per firefighter and
the standpipe kit with controlling nozzle and report in to the IC at lobby command post

Question 62

DATA SHEET 17 – HIGH RISE NOZZLE (HRN)

2. The HRN is an eight-foot long aluminum pipe with a 68 degree two-foot bend to provide the proper angle for the water stream. Which choice correctly describes features of the HRN? (Sec. 4.1, 4.2, 4.3)
   (A) The HRN is attached to a standard 2 ½” FDNY shut-off, which is removed when the HRN is not being used.
   (B) A 1 1/8” Main Stream Tip (MST) is permanently attached to the outlet of the HRN.
   (C) Supplied by a 2 ½” hoseline, the HRN will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.
   (D) As a general rule when supplying the HRN with 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should be 80 psi with water flowing and 70 psi when using 4 lengths.

Answer 62

2. C

The shut-off is permanently attached to the nozzle.

4.2 A 1 1/8” MST is attached to the outlet of the high rise nozzle. The tip is removable and
should be checked weekly during MUD and before use. (Photo 2)

As a general rule when supplying
the high rise nozzle with 3 lengths of 2 1/2” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should
be 70 psi with water flowing and 80 psi when using 4 lengths.

Question 63

DATA SHEET 17 – HIGH RISE NOZZLE (HRN)

3. At a wind impacted fire, an Engine Company is ordered to place the HRN into operation. Which action taken by the Engine Company is incorrect? (Sec. 5.5, 5.6, 5.8, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, 5.14)
   (A) A spotter, equipped with a HT on the appropriate frequency and a pair of binoculars, will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and members operating. The Officer supervising the HRN use will initiate and maintain HT contact with the spotter.
   (B) Putting the nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies equipped with roll-ups, standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including the rabbit tool and the HRN.
   (C) Companies must gain access to the apartment below the fire apartment and must remove the proper window to operate the nozzle effectively.
   (D) The supply line must be attached to the HRN before the nozzle is slid out on the window sill for use.
   (E) A shut-off shall be placed in the line one length back from the nozzle.

Answer 63

3. C

If this is the situation, company officers must anticipate and
make sure the next window(s) that will be used for operation of the nozzle is cleared of
window gates, bars etc., this will speed up the repositioning.

Question 64

DATA SHEET 17 – HIGH RISE NOZZLE (HRN)

4. If multiple rooms are involved at a wind-driven fire, it will be necessary to reposition the HRN to ensure complete knockdown of the fire. Which choice is incorrect concerning the repositioning of the HRN? (Sec. 5.1, 5.12, 5.13, 5.14)
   (A) When there are multiple rooms involved, operate the HRN into the window that the wind is blowing into and extinguish the fire in this room first.
   (B) Company Officers must anticipate and make sure that the next window(s) that will be used for operation of the HRN is cleared of window gates, bars, etc. to speed up the repositioning.
   (C) When repositioning of the HRN is required, the supply line should be shut down at the shut-off located one length back and the nozzle opened to bleed the line.
   (D) When the HRN is repositioned, the Engine Company Officer shall order the operation of the HRN into the next window after consulting with the spotter.

Answer 64

4. D

Once in position, the officer
supervising nozzle operations will order water started. This officer will then notify the
IC that the nozzle is in position and ready to operate. The nozzle will not be operated
until the IC has given approval.

Question 65

DATA SHEET 18 – COCKLOFT NOZZLE
1. Choose the incorrect point about the Cockloft Nozzle. (Sec. 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4)
(A) The Cockloft Nozzle is a 6’3” aluminum pipe with two ½” Outer Stream Tips (OSTs).
(B) The reach of the Cockloft Nozzle stream is in excess of 60 feet.
(C) The discharge rate of the Cockloft Nozzle is approximately 125 gpm.
(D) The Cockloft Nozzle is to be supplied by a 2 ½” handline with the same pressure normally supplied to a 2 ½” handline.

Answer 65

1. D

1.4 The cockloft nozzle is to be supplied by a 1 ¾” handline. The cockloft nozzle operates
with the same pressure normally supplied to a 1 ¾” handline.

Question 66

DATA SHEET 18 – COCKLOFT NOZZLE

2. BC Question - Upon arrival as the 1st BC at a fire in the cockloft of a taxpayer, you contemplate putting the Cockloft Nozzle into operation. Which thought was correct? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 3.2, 4.1)
   (A) In extreme circumstances, the Cockloft Nozzle may be used as the initial handline only when a back up line is in the process of being stretched.
   (B) The Cockloft Nozzle is carried by all Rescue, Squad and Division vehicles.
   (C) Prior to using a Cockloft Nozzle in a Non-fireproof MD, consideration shall be given to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire.
   (D) The Cockloft Nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of the IC, who may be the first arriving Officer.
   (E) The use of the Cockloft Nozzle eliminates the need of pulling ceilings for final extinguishment and washdown.

Answer 66

2. C

The cockloft nozzle should NEVER be the primary attack line and is
ONLY to be used when supported and protected by an additional conventional handline.

2. 2 The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad Companies and Division vehicles.
3. 1 The cockloft nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer

3.7 The use of the cockloft nozzle does NOT eliminate the need of pulling ceilings for final
extinguishment and washdown.

Question 67

DATA SHEET 18 – COCKLOFT NOZZLE

3. After being ordered to place the Cockloft Nozzle into operation at a cockloft fire in a 6 story Non-fireproof “H type” multiple dwelling, Engine 500 took several actions. Which one was correct? (Sec. 3.1, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5)
   (A) The Cockloft Nozzle was attached to the handline by removing the Main Stream Tip of the controlling nozzle, and then connecting the 1 ½” female coupling of the cockloft nozzle to the shut-off.
   (B) Engine 500 operated the Cockloft Nozzle outside the apartment door in the public hallway.
   (C) A 3”x3” hole was punched in the ceiling in order for the Cockloft Nozzle to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 4 feet.
   (D) The Cockloft Nozzle should be inserted into the cockloft between the joists, and rotated in a continuous counter-clockwise direction.

Answer 67

3. A

3.3 When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, the preferred location for
operation is immediately inside the apartment door. This is to provide members with a
degree of protection provided by the public hallway.

The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must
be a minimum of 4”

Operating
members shall alternate the direction of the stream by rotating the nozzle 90 degrees and
returning the nozzle to its original position to provide maximum coverage. Do not rotate
the cockloft nozzle in a continuous counter-clockwise direction; this action may cause the
nozzle to become unscrewed from the shut-off.

Question 68

DATA SHEET 19 – COMBINATION NOZZLE SYSTEM
1. The Combination Nozzle System combines the High Rise Nozzle and the Cockloft Nozzle into one compact kit. Which point about this tool is incorrect? (Sec. 1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4)
(A) The Combination Nozzle System provides the advantage of two different nozzles, both of which can be attached to the base pipe.
(B) The two piece compact system allows for the selected nozzle and base pipe to be carried into confined locations and elevators if needed.
(C) The assembly process is easy and can quickly be accomplished in deteriorating conditions. The quick connect assembly allows failsafe rapid assembly.
(D) The Combination Nozzle System shall be safely secured in a compartment on the apparatus.

Answer 68

1. D

1.4 The Combination Nozzle System Kit is mounted above the portable ladder rack on
selected Engines.

Question 69

DATA SHEET 19 – COMBINATION NOZZLE SYSTEM

2. A proper understanding of the Combination Nozzle is kit is shown in which choice?
   (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 4.1)
   (A) A 1 ½” x 2 ½” increaser shall be stored in the same compartment that the Base pipe is stored in for ease of location when needed.
   (B) The Base pipe, High Rise Nozzle Tip, and Cockloft Nozzle Tip have a ½” support rod attached with a ¾” quick connect.
   (C) Companies equipped with the Combination Nozzle shall remove the original one piece High Rise Nozzle from their apparatus.
   (D) One of the two ½” Outer Stream Nozzle Tips (OSTs) can be removed from the Cockloft Nozzle Tip if it is not necessary to direct the stream in two directions (i.e. a corner building).
   (E) The Combination Nozzle System shall be visually inspected quarterly.

Answer 69

2. B

The Base pipe should be stored with the 1 ½” x 2 ½”
increaser attached to the 2 ½” shut off. This will provide for both protection of its
threads and ease of location when needed.

Note: The original one piece HRN has not been removed from Companies equipped
with the Combination Nozzle. These Companies carry both so that non-trained
members can use the one piece HRN.

The two ½” OSTs are NOT to be
removed; these tips increase the reach of the stream in excess of 60 feet. They also
facilitate the generation of steam that enables a more rapid extinguishment of fire in the
confined spaces of a cocklof

The Combination Nozzle System shall be visually inspected weekly. If repairs are
deemed necessary contact Research and Development