FO CLASS #2 - Week of 12719FFP–HR Office BldgsPgs 26 to end, Comm. Man,Ch.4–6,T.B.–Ropes4&6, Haz Mat14-19,T.B.–Tools 2&3 DC Jim DiDomenico Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The Postal Service has Bio-Detection Systems (BDS) in various mail handling facilities throughout NYC that will detect anthrax which has been placed in the mail. When a BDS alarm alerts, it will be treated as a presumptive positive for anthrax. Regarding the FDNY response to these facilities, it would be incorrect to state that? (HM 14 — 3.1, 4, 5, 6.1) A. The FDNY mission at BDS operations is to triage, treat and decontaminate anyone that may have been exposed to anthrax. B. If a BDS alarm is activated, the dispatcher will alert units that they are responding to a BDS alarm. However, units shall always verify the type of incident whenever they respond to a USPS bulk facility in case the alarm is received from a source other than the BDS alarm C. FDNY members in proper PPE will conduct primary and secondary searches of the facility. D. The USPS facility will be treated as a crime scene and the FBI will take over as lead investigators. FDNY units shall conduct operations as per AUC 317—crime scenes.
A
  1. C NOTE: USPS will conduct the primary and secondary searches. FDNY units will enter only for immediate life safety concerns.
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2
Q
  1. Units responding to a BDS alarm at a USPS facility would be incorrect to think? (HM 14 — 4) A. An Incident Command Post will be established at the pre-designated location. B. A Unified Operations Post will be established based on the Individual Facility Plan C. An FDNY Staging Area will be established based on the Individual Facility Plan and a Staging Area Manager designated D. Initial responding units should meet USPS personnel at the pre-designated Incident Command Post to confirm the BDS alert
A
  1. D  An Initial Emergency Response Meeting Point will be established as per the Individual Facility Plan. Initial responding units will meet USPS personnel at this location to confirm the BDS Alert
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3
Q
  1. FDNY units arriving at a USPS Bulk Mail Facility for a BDS alarm should be aware of all of the following points except? (HM 14 — 4, 5, 6) A. A 10-80 should be transmitted if the BDS activation is confirmed B. FDNY units will primarily operate within the Haz-Mat Branch and Medical Branch C. Postal Workers will proceed to a Safe Refuge Area (also known as “In-Plant Refuge”) within the facility to await establishment of decontamination areas by the FDNY D. USPS Inspectors will retrieve a canister that will be transported to the Department of Health to confirm the anthrax. FDNY will provide backup and decontamination for USPS Inspectors
A
  1. D  U.S. Postal Inspectors will retrieve the PCR sample canister, which will then be transported to the DOH for confirmation of an anthrax event. The NYPD will provide decontamination and back-up for the USPS Inspectors.
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4
Q

Answer questions 4 - 6 based on this scenario: You are the officer of a ladder company that arrives first at the scene at a USPS Bulk Mail Facility BDS alarm activation with an engine company. You meet with a USPS liaison and determine there is a confirmed BDS activation. 4. In this situation, you would be correct to think that during the initial stages of the operation you should? (HM 14 — 6.1, 8.1) A. Not enter the facility under any circumstances B. Enter the facility only to perform a size-up and a primary search C. Enter the facility only if there is an immediate life hazard that needs to be addressed D. Enter the facility only if directed to do so by senior Postal Officials at the ICP

A
  1. C NOTE: USPS will conduct the primary and secondary searches. FDNY units will enter only for immediate life safety concerns.
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5
Q

Answer questions 4 - 6 based on this scenario: You are the officer of a ladder company that arrives first at the scene at a USPS Bulk Mail Facility BDS alarm activation with an engine company. You meet with a USPS liaison and determine there is a confirmed BDS activation. 5. Regarding entry into the facility for “Immediate Life Safety” issues, the ladder officer would be correct to think that at a confirmed BDS alarm? (HM 14 — 8.1) A. Bunker Gear and SCBA are not satisfactory under any circumstances B. Bunker Gear and SCBA may be used if a higher level of PPE is not available, provided that as soon as possible, an Emergency Decon Area is established and a Backup team designated C. Bunker Gear and SCBA may be used if a higher level of PPE is not available, provided that prior to entry, an Emergency Decon Area is established and a Backup team designated D. Only Haz-Mat Technicians in proper PPE may enter for Immediate Life Safety issues.

A
  1. C  If entry for life safety is deemed necessary: o Members making entry shall wear full PPE (bunker gear and SCBA are acceptable for life safety if a higher level of PPE is not available). o Prior to entry, an Emergency Decon area shall be established and a Backup Team designated. o After exit, proceed to the Contamination Reduction Zone for decontamination. o Maintain respiratory protection throughout the decontamination process.
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6
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - As the first arriving BC, you would be correct to consider which point? (HM 14 — 7.1, 9.1) A. You should report to the Incident Command Post B. The TAC-U Channel should be established C. FDNY units will be responsible for decontamination of Postal Groups 1, 2, and 3 D. Haz-Mat Technicians wearing appropriate PPE will enter the Safe Refuge Area to monitor the environment and set up and assist with the decontamination process
A
  1. D  Establish or report to the Unified Operations Post as per the Individual Facility Plan.  Establish a Command Channel.  The FDNY will assist with the Group 2 and 3 decontamination process.
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7
Q
  1. BC Question - Regarding the use and operations of the Decon Shower Apparatus (DSA), it would be incorrect to state that? (HM 15 — 1.1, 1.2, 1.4, 4.3, 4.4) A. DSA can be used to address nuisance contamination, contaminants not immediately life-threatening or residual contamination after emergency gross decon B. A Haz-Mat Technician Unit must be present to ensure proper precautions are taken C. The IC will give a location where the Decon Shower Apparatus should be positioned D. The DSA should be positioned at the end of the contamination reduction corridor E. Proper positioning of the DSA is indicated when the rear half of the apparatus is in the hot zone behind the hotline
A
  1. E When the proper positioning is obtained, the rear half of the apparatus will be in the WARM zone behind the contamination control line and the patients will leave the apparatus through the “clean room” door into the cold zone
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8
Q

Answer questions 8-9 based on this scenario: First alarm units arrive on scene of a suspicious package where there a suspected powder / anthrax incident and NYPD is not on scene. 8. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that? (HM 16 — 2.1.2, 2.2.2) A. A 10-80 should be transmitted specifying suspected anthrax and an immediate request made for the response of NYPD B. Ambulatory patients may be isolated by having them walk away from the area of exposure C. Patients reporting that they were contaminated who have visible powder on their skin or clothing should be asked to remove their outer clothing and provided with a disposable garment or sheet. This clothing should be bagged in a clear plastic bag. D. Emergency Decontamination should not be utilized in these situations regardless of the patient’s medical assessment

A
  1. D Note: Patients who are Critical or Unstable should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
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9
Q
  1. BC Question - Regarding the need to decontaminate patients or FDNY personnel, this decision will be made by the FDNY IC in consult with the? (HM 16 — 2.1.4) A. NYPD IC B. Haz Mat Battalion and EMS Haz-Tac Officer C. City Wide Tour Commander D. Haz-Mat Battalion
A
  1. B Note: The decision regarding the need to decontaminate patients or FDNY personnel will be made by the FDNY Incident Commander in consultation with the Haz Mat Battalion and EMS Haz Tac Officer.
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10
Q
  1. Units arrive at the scene of an unknown odor which they believe is a pepper spray incident. In this situation, they would be incorrect to think that? (HM 17 — 2.3, 2.5) A. Evacuation is appropriate for exposed individuals B. Sheltering in place is appropriate if the contaminated area is a public hallway or staircase C. Mechanical or natural ventilation of affected areas will facilitate rapid dissipation of a vapor cloud D. They must consult with the Haz Mat Battalion before transmitting a 10-80 signal
A
  1. D 2.5 Remember to transmit the initial 10-80 signal to alert incoming units to proceed with caution to avoid entering a contaminated area. The Incident Commander should confer with the Haz Mat Battalion Chief to transmit the appropriate code.
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11
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 12: Engine 99 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where they find an unconscious patient in his bed, who apparently has overdosed on fentanyl. 11. In this situation, members would be incorrect to think that? (HM 18 — 4) A. Pinpoint pupils, a slow heart rate, slow shallow breathing, and low blood pressure are all symptoms of fentanyl exposure B. Treatment should never take place in the area of suspected exposure C. Removal of fentanyl from the patient’s skin and clothing is paramount D. If an overdose is strongly suspected and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than 12 per minute, Naloxone shall be administered via a Mucosal Atomizer Device or Narcan Nasal Spray

A
  1. D e. If an overdose is strongly suspected, and the patient’s respiratory rate is less than 10/minute, administer intra- nasal (IN) Naloxone, via: 1. Mucosal Atomizer Device (MAD): 1. ADULT patient: 1mg/ml in each nostril. Total of 2 mg/2ml. 2. PEDIATRIC patient: 0.5 mg/0.5 ml in each nostril. Total of 1 mg/1 ml. OR 2. Narcan® Nasal Spray: 1. Adult AND Pediatric patients: 4 mg/0.1ml in ONE nostril. If, after 2- 3 minutes there is no or minimal response, repeat administration of 4mg/0.1ml with a second device into OTHER nostril.
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12
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 12: Engine 99 arrives at the scene of a CFR-D response where they find an unconscious patient in his bed, who apparently has overdosed on fentanyl. 12. When treating an ADULT or Pediatric patient for fentanyl use with Narcan Nasal Spray, it would be correct to state that Engine 99 should administer? (HM 18 — 4) A. 4mg/0.1 ml in each nostril, and if after 2 - 3 minutes there is no or minimal response, administer a repeat dose in both nostrils with a second device B. 4mg/0.1 ml in only one nostril, and if after 2 - 3 minutes there is no or minimal response, administer 4mg/ml in the other nostrils with a second device B. 4mg/0.1 ml in each nostril, and if after 5 minutes there is no or minimal response, administer a repeat dose in both nostrils with a second device D. 4mg/0.1 ml in only one nostril, and if after 5 minutes there is no or minimal response, administer 4mg/ml in the other nostrils with a second device

A
  1. B 1. Adult AND Pediatric patients: 4 mg/0.1ml in ONE nostril. If, after 2- 3 minutes there is no or minimal response, repeat administration of 4mg/0.1ml with a second device into OTHER nostril.
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13
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 13 - 14: Members are operating at a 10-75 when after the fire is controlled, they determine they have been exposed to synthetic opioids during the firefighting operations. 13. Regarding the decontamination of the members PPE, they should? (HM 18 — 5.2) A. Spray the bunker gear with copious amounts of water, so it will excessively drip off B. Spray the bunker gear with just enough water to lightly wet it, so it will not excessively drip off C. Spray the bunker gear with a medium amount of water, so it will significantly drip off D. Not wet the bunker gear at all. Instead, leave it dry, and have the gear removed using techniques to prevent aerosolizing powdered contaminants

A
  1. B 5.2 PPE Decontamination If exposure to synthetic opioids occurs during firefighting operations, the PPE should be lightly wetted (sprayed with just enough to wet the gear and not excessively drip off), removed, and stored in a bag (refer to sec 5.3) until proper decontamination can be performed.
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14
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 13 - 14: Members are operating at a 10-75 when after the fire is controlled, they determine they have been exposed to synthetic opioids during the firefighting operations. 14. BC Question - After the Bunker Gear is removed from members, the IC should know that the __________ will determine the decontamination method for the PPE? (HM 18 — 5.2) A. Haz-Mat 1 B. Safety Battalion C. Decon Support Unit in consult with the Haz-Mat Battalion D. Safety Battalion in consult with the Haz-Mat Battalion

A
  1. C It is not necessary to positively identify the substance; if there is any reason to suspect exposure or contamination, follow the procedure in section 5.3. The Decontamination Support Unit in consultation with the Haz-Mat Battalion will determine the decontamination method.
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15
Q
  1. An officer drilling on Lithium Ion Energy Storage Systems (ESS) was incorrect when he made which one of the following points? (HM 19 — 3, 4) A. Lithium Ion ESS that support the utility electrical grid should not be shut down without consulting the Con Ed White Hat Representative B. Lithium Ion ESS that provide back up for critical infrastructure as an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS), should not be shut down without consulting a building engineer C. Lithium Ion battery fires may be deep seated, and may not be picked up by a Thermal Imaging Camera D. Lithium Ion ESS that were involved in fire may re-ignite for a period of up to 60 minutes after final extinguishment seems to have been accomplished.
A
  1. D  Re-ignition after extinguishment: Even after final extinguishment seems to have been accomplished, Li-ion-ESS may re-ignite hours to days after being involved in a fire.
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16
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 16 - 17: E285, L142, Battalion 39 arrive at the scene of an alarm for a Lithium Ion ESS installed in Ozone Park to support the Con Ed Utility Grid. On their arrival, they note there are 8 containers with Lithium Ion batteries, but no smoke or fire is showing from any container. 16. First arriving units would be correct to take which action? (HM 19 — 5 - Pgs 4-5) A. Establish an initial Danger Zone with a 40 foot radius from any container B. Establish an initial Danger Zone of 100 feet from any container exhaust fan. Exhaust fans will usually be located on a container on the same side as where the Fire Department Connection (FDC) is located C. Stretch and charge a supply line to the Fire Department Connection (FDC). If the FDC is located closer than 50 feet from the nearest container, personnel may only enter this 50 foot area with the approval of the IC. D. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 to insure the response of Haz-Mat 1, a Haz-Mat Technician Unit and the Haz-Mat Battalion

A
  1. D o Minimum of 50 ft radius from container(s)/cabinet(s) o Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s/cabinet’s side opposite FDC). Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.  Engine companies secure water source, stretch a precautionary handline and stretch supply lines to supply FDC of the water extinguishing system of the container/ cabinet if available. Cabinets may not have FDC serving the installation.  Transmit a 10-80 code 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.
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17
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 16 - 17: E285, L142, Battalion 39 arrive at the scene of an alarm for a Lithium Ion ESS installed in Ozone Park to support the Con Ed Utility Grid. On their arrival, they note there are 8 containers with Lithium Ion batteries, but no smoke or fire is showing from any container. 17. BC Question - The Haz-Mat Units arrive and inform Battalion 39 that there is a rising temperature in some of the battery modules. In this situation of rising temperature, the Chief would be incorrect to think that? (HM 19 — Pg 5) A. Water supply lines to the FDC should be charged B. The ESS should be shut down under the guidance of the Con Ed White Hat C. An exhaust fan override switch will be located at the Fire Department Connection (FDC) D. The exhaust fans should be operated before charging the water extinguishing system

A
  1. D  Exhaust the container/cabinet after charging water extinguishing system (exhaust override switch at the FDC).
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18
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 19: First alarm units arrive at the scene of an alarm for a Lithium Ion ESS that is installed outdoors. On their arrival, they note there are containers and cabinets containing Lithium Ion batteries, and smoke is showing from one cabinet. 18. In this situation, the first alarm units would be correct to think? (HM 19 — Pg 6) A. Danger Zones must be established—at least a 50’ radius from containers / cabinets and 100 feet from any possible exhaust fans. B. The cabinets will always have exhaust fans. C. The ESTOP at the Fire Department Connection must be shut, but only Haz-Mat Units are permitted to shut down the ESS, under the guidance of a subject matter expert D. Exterior handlines may be used to cool adjacent containers / cabinets. Use a wide fog (30 degrees or greater) from a close approach to cool uninvolved, adjacent containers / cabinets E. Transmit a 10-80 Code 2 for a Haz-Mat response

A
  1. A Cabinets may not have exhaust systems.  Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at FDC or inside the electrical room if ESS is supplying a building. Use narrow fog or straight stream application and maximum reach of streams if possible.  Transmit a 10-80 code 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response
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19
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 19: First alarm units arrive at the scene of an alarm for a Lithium Ion ESS that is installed outdoors. On their arrival, they note there are containers and cabinets containing Lithium Ion batteries, and smoke is showing from one cabinet. 19. After the fire is controlled, the DC orders a fire watch and leaves the Battalion to handle post-fire considerations. FDNY members should be aware that in this situation? (HM 19 — 6) A. Subject Matter Experts are required to be on scene within 3 hours B. FDNY personnel may open container / cabinet doors to vent make entry for search, only after consulting a subject matter expert C. FDNY personnel may conduct overhaul operations only after consulting a subject matter expert D. The IC should transfer responsibility to the Subject Matter Expert for decommissioning the Fire Watch established by the Deputy Chief

A
  1. D 6. POST FIRE Considerations Containers/Cabinets  Consult SME on scene – SME is required to be on scene within 2 hours.  FDNY personnel may open container/cabinet doors after consultation with SME and the fire is extinguished.  FDNY PERSONNEL SHALL NOT ENTER ANY CONTAINER.  NO OVERHAULING SHALL BE PERFORMED ON ANY ESS.  Incident Commander should transfer responsibility to subject matter expert for decommissioning\fire watch.
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20
Q
  1. An officer drilling on the KO Curtain was correct to state that? (TB Tools 2 — 1, 3.1, 6.3) A. Its dimensions are 10’ x 12’ and it weighs 40 pounds B. It has four—10 foot long fire-proof ropes, one at each end of the curtain. C. It should be inspected daily and after each use D. If there is any doubt as to the serviceability of the KO Curtain, it should be placed out of service
A
  1. D Weight 26.5 Pounds Dimensions 8’ x 6’ Ropes Four 3/8 inch diameter, 15 foot long fire-proof ropes. One at each corner of the curtain. 3.1 The KO Curtain shall be inspected weekly during MUD and after each use.
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21
Q
  1. First alarm units have just completed operations at a 10-77 where the KO Curtain from Ladder 121 was deployed by the Roof FF of Ladder 121. After the fire is placed under control, it would be incorrect to think that? (TB Tools 2 — 6.1, 6.2, 6.3) A. The IC should secure the KO Curtain until the arrival of the Safety Battalion or their designee B. If the Safety Battalion is not available, secure the KO Curtain and notify R & D C. The Officer of Ladder 121 should prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command with a copy to the Chief of the Fire Academy D. Ladder 121 should obtain a replacement Curtain from R & D
A
  1. D 6.3 Contact the administrative Division for a replacement KO Curtain.
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22
Q
  1. Under no circumstances is a company’s KO Curtain or Fire Window Blanket to be deployed for drill purposes. (TB Tools 2 - 6.5, Tools 3 - 4.4)) A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A 6.5 Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes. Each Division has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill. Repeated use of the KO Curtain for drill can cause unnecessary damage to the KO Curtain.
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23
Q
  1. An officer drilling on the Fire Window Blanket was incorrect to state that?
    (TB Tools 3 — 1, 3.2, Picture on Page 3)
    A. Its dimensions are 10’ x 12’ and it weighs 40 pounds
    B. It has five supporting straps, three at the top and two on the bottom.
    C. It is large enough to cover at least two windows
    D. The bottom of the blanket is weighted to facilitate positioning
A

4. B

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24
Q
  1. Regarding the deployment of the Fire Window Blanket, it would be correct to state?
    (TB Tools 3 — 3.4, 3.5)
    A. Only Ladder, Rescues or Squads may be used to deploy the blanket
    B. An exterior spotter with a HT and binoculars from a Battalion vehicle shall observe the deployment, and report any change in conditions to the IC
    C. The officer of the blanket deploying unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the blanket. In an emergency situation, the blanket may be deployed prior to these members reaching the floor below
    D. The blanket can be lowered from 2 floors above, if the officer of the blanket deploying unit deems it necessary
A
  1. B

Any unit or units may be used to deploy the blanket

The officer of the blanket deploying
unit will assign members to the floor below to secure the Fire Window Blanket. These
members must be in place prior to deploying the blanket.

3.5 Due to the length of the top supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from two floors
above, if the IC deems this necessary.

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25
Q
  1. BC Question - A Battalion Chief has just operated at a 10-77 / 2nd alarm where the Fire Window Blanket from Ladder 134 was deployed by Engine 268. After the fire is placed under control, the BC must perform the follow-up procedures as the Deputy Chief has another fire to respond to. In this situation, it would be incorrect for the BC to? (TB Tools 3 — 4.1, 4.2, 4.3)
    A. Secure the Blanket until the arrival of the Safety Battalion or their designee
    B. If the Safety Battalion is not available, secure the Blanket and notify R & D
    C. Have the Officer of Engine 268 prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations via the chain of command with a copy to the Chief of the Fire Academy
    D. Have Ladder 134 request a replacement Blanket from R and D if it is during normal business hours, or contact SOC at Roosevelt Island after business hours
A
  1. C

4.2 The officer of the confiscated Fire Window Blanket will prepare a brief letterhead report to
Chief of Operations detailing the use of the device and a description of any damage that may
have occurred from the deployment of the device at the incident. The officer shall also
include any additional information that may be important to the future use of this device and
forward report via chain of command with a copy to the Chief of the Fire Academy.

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26
Q
  1. It would be correct to state the Fire Window Blanket shall be inspected?
    (TB Tools 3 — 4.6)
    A. Daily. Any holes, tears, or damage to the straps shall cause it to be placed out of service
    B. Weekly, and this should be done at MUD. Any peeling of the aluminized foil shall cause it to be placed out of service
    C. Weekly. Any holes, tears, or damage to the straps shall cause it to be placed out of service
    D. Weekly at MUD. Any peeling of the aluminized foil shall cause it to be placed out of service
A
  1. C

4.6 Fire Window Blanket shall be inspected weekly. If the inspection reveals holes, tears or
damage to the straps, the blanket shall be placed out of service. The officer on duty shall
notify R&D. The R&D Unit will conduct an inspection to determine the serviceability of
the Fire Window Blanket. Company Officers shall comply with section 4.3.

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27
Q
  1. The Captain of Ladder 161 is supervising members repacking their new Fire Window Blanket. He should know that which point below is incorrect? (TB Tools 3 — Add 1)
    A. The words “Top” and “Bottom” are stenciled on the blanket and straps for easy identification
    B. Both the top and bottom straps should be taped to create a handle
    C. After folding the side edges of the blanket onto itself, roll the blanket from the bottom towards the top, then fold the blanket in half, before placing the bag over the blanket
    D. The bottom straps must stay inside the folded blanket. Do not tuck the top straps into the rolled blanket as they remain outside the blanket
A
  1. B

 Place tape to secure the top strap, create a handle with tape for easy removal. Only tape top
straps. Never use tape on bottom straps. (Photo 3)

28
Q
  1. Regarding the inspection and usage of the PSS, it would be incorrect to state it?
    (TB Rope 4 — 2.1, 2.2, 5.1.1, .5.1.2, 5.4.1, 5.4.6)
    A. Is a one-time use system; after use it is to be placed out of service
    B. Is only to be used as a last resort
    C. Should be inspected at the start of each tour. If any doubt exists about the serviceability of any component of the PSS, it shall be placed out of service
    D. Should be repacked and inspected quarterly as part of the quarterly Safety Equipment Inspection
    E. Should be inspected after concluding operations; members should inspect the outside of the bag for any signs of exposure to heat, defects and / or contamination
A
  1. D

5.4.1 PSS shall be repacked semi-annually as part of the Semi-Annual Safety
Equipment Inspection, and as needed. (See Training Bulletin, Rope 4 Data Sheet 1
for repacking instruction).

29
Q
  1. Ladder 157 returns from a fire where inside team members were exposed to high heat conditions. All members then inspect their PSS equipment, and they note the following:
     The Officer’s PSS bag and harness are melted from heat exposure
     The Can FF’s PSS bag shows discoloration from heat exposure
     The Irons FF’s PSS bag shows charring from heat exposure
     The OV FF’s rope is discolored in spots indicated by dark shading to the rope
    In this situation, the Officer would be correct to place the entire PSS System out of service for which members? (TB Rope 4 — 5.3.3, 5.4.3)
    A. Officer only
    B. Officer and Irons
    C. Officer, Can, and Irons
    D. Officer, Can, Irons, and OV
A
  1. C

5.3.3 If the bag (or any component of PSS) shows signs of heat exposure (discoloration,
degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO, and
harness) should be placed out of service as specified in section 6. (Figure 9)
5.3.4 The PSS outer flap should be opened and a visual inspection conducted. The
anchor hook, EXO and carabiner shall be checked for any deformities, sharp
edges, or defects. Depress the cam and pull 3-6 inches of rope through the EXO
to ensure the device functions properly. Pull rope back through the EXO leaving
8 inches between the EXO and the Anchor hook. Replace the EXO and Anchor
hook into the bag and ensure the rope separation flap Velcro is secured and EXO
is properly positioned on top of it (TB Rope 4, Data Sheet 1). Close the bag,
securing components inside. If any doubt exists about the serviceability of any
component, the PSS should be placed out of service as specified in section 6.

30
Q
  1. Ladder 44 returns from a 2nd alarm fire in an H-type building where two members used their PSS, which must both be placed out of service. Regarding the placing of the PSS out of service, it would be incorrect to state? (TB Rope 4 — 6.9, 6.15, 6.16)
    A. The Officer must complete an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forward it through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety
    B. An investigation of the circumstances as stated in the (SCF-2) report is required by the Battalion Chief on duty, and should be indicated in the Chief’s endorsement
    C. If a firefighter is not equipped with a PSS and a response is received, the firefighter will respond with their unit, and that member shall be counted towards that unit’s staffing, but shall not enter or operate in an IDLH
    D. When a Chief Officer or Company Officer is not equipped with a PSS, the unit they are working in shall be placed out of service until a replacement PSS is obtained
A
  1. C

When the firefighter is not
equipped with a PSS and a response is received before a replacement is obtained, they
will respond with their unit. However, that member shall not be counted towards that
unit’s staffing as it relates to the provisions of AUC 287, section 8 (reduced
staffed/understaffed unit). Upon arrival, the Company Officer shall inform the Incident
Commander (IC) of the unit’s status, and the IC shall adjust his/her strategy accordingly.

31
Q
  1. It would be correct to state that if a PSS, PSS bag or Personal Harness is?
    (TB Rope 4 — 6.8, addendum 1)
  2. Contaminated from fireground contaminants — it shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water only. Never use a detergent.
  3. Contaminated from blood or other potentially infectious material — members shall follow procedures in the CFR-D manual (for example - minor contamination shall be spot cleaned)
  4. Grossly contaminated, from other than fireground contaminants - it shall be placed out of service
    A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. 1, 3 D. 3 only
A
  1. B

6.8.1 When the PSS has been contaminated from fireground contaminants, the PSS
shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent
may be used if necessary.

6.8.2 When the PSS has been contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious
material, the members shall follow the procedures outlined in CFR-D Manual,
Chapter 3.

6.8.3 When the PSS has been grossly contaminated from other than fireground
contaminants it shall be placed out of service.

32
Q
  1. If a member needs a replacement PSS Bag, PSS or a loaner personal harness, the Company Officer shall call the _____________ for immediate replacement? (TB Rope 4, Add 1)
    A. Administrative Battalion
    B. Administrative Division
    C. Special Operations Command
    D. Haz-Mat Decontamination Support Unit
A
  1. B
33
Q
  1. A Captain conducting drill on the Search Rope was incorrect in which one of the following statements that he made? (TB Rope 6 — 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 12.2)
    A. The Search Rope is 200 feet long, but due to shrinkage, distance knots and directional knots it may be short by 25 feet or more
    B. The yellow carry bag for the search rope shall be marked with the company number
    C. A company ID tag shall be attached to the rope and another tag attached to the bag
    D. The Search Rope shall be repacked quarterly
A
  1. D
  2. 2 Repack monthly.
34
Q
  1. Search ropes shall be deployed in large areas, complex areas, and below grade areas when there are medium to heavy heat and smoke conditions. Light smoke and heat conditions do not require a Search Rope at these locations. (TB Rope 6 — 1.2)
    A Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. D

Note: Search rope shall be deployed in the above locations even in light to moderate
heat and smoke conditions since conditions can deteriorate rapidly.

35
Q
  1. Regarding the knots that are used on the search rope to identify distance and direction, it would be correct to state that? (TB Rope 6 — 3.2—3.5)
    A. The intervals of the distance knots are 25 feet. A single knot is tied at 25 feet, two knots tied at 50 feet, three knots tied at 75 feet….
    B. Spacing between the distance knots is 9 inches.
    C. A single directional knot is located 18 inches before the distance knots when traveling in the direction of deployment. The directional knot will always be closer to the fire.
    D. All distance knots (25’, 50’, 75’…) will have a direction knot
A
  1. A

3.4 Spacing between the distance knots is approximately six inches. A single direction knot
is located 18 inches before the distance knots when traveling in the direction of
deployment. This knot will always be closer to the tie off or exit.

Note: The 25 foot distance knot will not have a direction knot.

36
Q
  1. A ladder company officer is deploying a Search Rope at a 10-75 for a fire in a large area commercial occupancy. After securing the end of the Search Rope to a substantial, non-movable object outside, he was incorrect in which action? (TB Rope 6 — 5.4, 5.5, 5.6, 5.9)
    A. He wore the bag over his shoulder, then payed out the rope keeping it taut, and maintaining a handhold on it at all times
    B. He tied the rope off at intervals to keep it taut, and also tied the rope off when he changed direction or grade
    C. He maintained the rope 6-12 inches above the ground to keep it out of water
    D. When he became low on air and requested relief, there was nothing to tie off to, so he took a few wraps around the bag with the rope
A
  1. C

The rope
shall be maintained approximately one to two feet above ground.

37
Q
  1. Regarding the use of the Search Rope at fire operations, which point below is correct?
    (TB Rope 6 — 6.3, 7.1, 7.2, 8.2)
    A. Searches off the rope are not to be conducted unless approved by the Sector Chief or IC
    B. Under most conditions, the number of members assigned to the Search Rope should be limited to four
    C. A unit (other than 1st alarm) ordered to search an area requiring the use of a Search Rope should maintain unit integrity and perform this function with all members operating as the search team on the search rope
    D. If a company is ordered to relieve another unit at a forward point of the search, the relieving company should enter the area to be searched with their right hand in contact with the search rope (if possible)
A
  1. B

7.1 Under most conditions, the number of members assigned to the search rope team should
be limited to three.

38
Q
  1. BC Question - A Battalion Chief operating at a fire where search rope(s) are going to be utilized should know how many of the following statements are accurate? (TB Rope 6 — 10)
  2. Additional ladders may need to be special called to support the overall operation
  3. A special called ladder may be assigned to the tie off point
  4. The use of search ropes shall be included in progress reports
  5. Whenever one or more search ropes are deployed in an area with any type of fire condition, the IC should consider assigning a Chief Officer to supervise
    A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A
  1. C

10.3 When two or more ropes have been deployed in the same area with a serious fire
condition the IC should consider assigning a chief officer to supervise.

39
Q
  1. If the address of a fire or emergency is not a CIDS building, but is on the same side of the street and is within? (Comm 4 — Page 4-2)
    A. Two house numbers of a CIDS building, the dispatcher will always notify the IC of this fact via radio
    B. Three house numbers of a CIDS building, the dispatcher will always notify the IC of this fact via radio
    C. Two house numbers of a CIDS building, the dispatcher will notify the IC of this fact via radio if preliminary or progress reports indicate exposures are a consideration
    D. Three house numbers of a CIDS building, the dispatcher will notify the IC of this fact via radio if preliminary or progress reports indicate exposures are a consideration
A
  1. D
40
Q
  1. An officer operating at a 3rd alarm is ordered by the IC to submit an “Immediate Entry” of CIDS for an imminently hazardous condition. The officer should be aware that she should? (Comm 4 — Page 4-3)
    A. Enter the proposed CIDS into eCIDS electronically and phone the administrative BC. Upon notification and BC approval, the BC shall enter the eCIDS electronically and then notify the administrative DC by phone
    B. Fax the proposed CIDS to the Battalion and phone the administrative BC. If approved, the BC shall fax the CIDS to the Deputy, and notify the administrative DC by phone
A
  1. A
41
Q
  1. An officer is preparing a CIDS entry for a building where the posted address is “100-104 Williams Avenue”. After conducting research, she determines there are 3 official addresses for the building (100, 102, and 104), but only 100 and 104 are actually used by the occupants. In this case, the officer should enter how many CIDS messages? (Comm Pg 4-5)
    A. One message — for “100 Williams Avenue”
    B. One message — for “100-104 Williams Avenue”
    C. Two messages — one for “100 Williams Avenue”, and one for “104 Williams Avenue”
    D. Three messages — one for “100 Williams Avenue”, one for “102 Williams Avenue”, and one for “104 Williams Avenue”
A
  1. C

Single Building - Multi-Number Address Range Posted - Multiple
Addresses and/or Address Range(s) Found During Research- When a
single building has an address range posted on the building, Example
“100-112 Williams Ave.”, the unit officer must enter a CIDS message for
the first and last posted address numbers of such range. The combined
number 100-112 should also be included in the “Transmitted Data” portion
of each CIDS entry (Example- “AKA 100-112 Williams Ave.”). The unit
officer shall determine if additional CIDS entries are required for any
other applicable addresses or AKA’s associated with the building. See the
2nd & 3rd paragraphs of section 4.4.2.
Note: The above example only applies when an address range is posted
on the building.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following CIDS entries are properly prepared? (Comm 4 Pg 4-7)
  2. MD 6 STY 100X80 CL3-DUPLEX APTS ON
    2ND TO 3RD FL-SPKR SIAMESE ON EXP 4 SIDE
  3. PD 4STY 20X60 CL4LW-RENOVATED
    BROWNSTONE-L/W WOOD JOIST TRUSS
    ON ALL FLOORS-YEAR ALTERED 2018
  4. MD 5STY 20X60 CL2LW-RENOVATED
    ROW FRAME-C JOIST USED ON ALL
    FLOORS & WALLS-YEAR ALTERED 2017
    A. 1, 2 B. 2, 3 C. Only #1 D. Only #2 E. None of them
A
  1. E

Information in this section must be listed in the following priority order.
The eCIDS application will assist user in placing the transmitted data
information into proper order. See addendum 2 of this document for
detailed instructions concerning the eCIDS application.
1. FD DESIGNATION: If applicable, one of the following
designations may be used: BWSTRG, CFRH (revision of entries
with current CFRH status only), MJALT, PG, REHAB or
MEGA.
Note: Application for new CFRH status will be handled as per
addendum 1 of this document.
2. OCCUPANCY: Choose from the provided dropdown list or
enter your own.
3. DESCRIPTION OF BUILDING:
 Height in stories
 Dimensions of building
 Construction Class
1938 Building Code Construction Classifications
Class 1: Fireproof Structure
Class 2: Fire-Protected Structure
Class 3: Non-Fireproof Structure
Class 4: Wood Frame Structure
Class 5: Metal Structure
Class 6: Heavy Timber Structure

43
Q
  1. An Engine Captain is submitting a CIDS entry for a HIP Center to have the facility designated as a “CFR Hold”. On duty personnel in the facility are trained in CPR, providing oxygen, use of a defibrillator and they are available during all hours of operation. The Captain should be aware that the CFRH will be in effect for which responses? (Comm 4 — Add 1—1.2, 2.1)
    A. Segment 3 only
    B. Segment 2, 3 only
    C. Segment 1, 2, and 3
A
  1. B

Therefore, for segment one type calls classified
as cardiac arrest or choking, CFRD units will respond to facilities listed and approved as
CFRH in CIDS. For all segment two and three requests, the CFRH will be in effect and
no CFRD unit will be dispatched.

44
Q
  1. BC Question - A Chief reviewing an eCIDS submission can? (Comm 4 — Add 2—Pg 21-22)
  2. Approve the eCIDS
  3. Disapprove the eCIDS — but then must enter a reason for the disapproval
  4. Revise and approve the eCIDS — but then must enter a reason for the revision
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A

Note: If the BC disapproves the CIDS, an additional field (max 500 characters) will
appear in which a reason for disapproval must be entered.

The BC revising and approving a CIDS will be required to
enter a reason (max 500 characters) for the revision and approval in order to inform other
levels of command of changes made.

45
Q
  1. BC Question - Regarding the Structural Response Assignment on the First through Fifth Alarm, it would be incorrect for a Battalion Chief to think that? (Comm 5 — Pg 4)
    A. Signal 7-5 means “All Hands and Doubtful”
    B. Every multiple alarm will provide one Battalion Chief assigned as a “Sector / Group Supervisor” on that alarm
    C. A Second Alarm will provide the IC with a “Safety Officer”, “Resource Unit Leader”, and “2nd Alarm Chief”, in that order.
    D. Each multiple alarm will bring four additional engines and two additional ladder companies
A
  1. C

* 3rd Battalion Chief shall be designated as a Sector/Group Supervisor. (2nd Alarm Chief)
4th Battalion Chief shall be designated the Resource Unit Leader. (RUL)
5th Battalion Chief shall be designated the Safety Officer.

46
Q
  1. BC Question - Chiefs should be aware that under normal conditions (No Fallback), any alarm received by dispatchers from a single source (ERS or telephone) reporting smoke and / or fire shall receive a minimum response of a Battalion Chief plus? (Comm 6 — 6.2.2)
    A. Two engines and one ladder
    B. Two engines and two ladders
    C. Two engines and two ladders
    D. Three engines and two ladders
A
  1. D

Note: Any alarm received from a single source (ERS or telephone) reporting
smoke and/or fire in a structure shall receive a minimum response of three
Engines, two Ladders and a Battalion Chief.

47
Q
  1. BC Question - Minimum responses based on a CIDS or a Box number are?
    (Comm 6 — 6.4.3)
    A. Always in effect
    B. Suspended in Fallback 1, 2, or 3
    C. Suspended in Fallback 2 or 3
    D. Suspended in Fallback 3 only
A
  1. D
48
Q
  1. An additional ladder company (above the FAST Truck) shall be assigned by the dispatcher when the first two ladder companies are responding with 4 firefighters to any? (Comm 6 — 6.9.1)
    A. Reported structural fire
    B. Reported fire or emergency
    C. Incident—only if a 10-75 is transmitted
    D. Incident—only if a 7-5 signal is transmitted
A
  1. C

6.9.1 Ladder Companies with 4 Firefighter Staffing
 An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a
10-75 when both of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report
responding with 4 firefighters.
 The additional Ladder Company shall be the 3rd Ladder Company, and the 4th
Ladder Company shall be designated as the Fast Truck.

49
Q
  1. Which point below is not accurate regarding the response procedures to Verbal Alarms?
    (Comm 6 — 6.5.1, 6.5.2)
    A. The Verbal Button on the PCATS should be used only if an alarm is within 2 blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction
    B. If a Verbal Alarm is more than two blocks from quarters, the unit should respond and give the alarm information and alarm location via the apparatus radio
    C. If a unit is observes or receives a Verbal Alarm of a fire or emergency while 10-8, they should immediately notify the dispatcher of the alarm location, nature of the incident and proceed to the verbal alarm location
    D. If a unit is observes or receives a Verbal Alarm of a fire or emergency while responding to another alarm, they should immediately notify the dispatcher of the verbal alarm location, nature of the incident and unless otherwise directed by the dispatcher, proceed to the verbal alarm location
A
  1. D

B. In the event the unit is responding to another alarm and it is evident human
life is not in jeopardy at the scene of the verbal alarm, the unit shall proceed
to the original alarm after transmitting radio notification of a verbal alarm to
dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement.

50
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.
1. Regarding the Fire Sector, it would be incorrect to state that?
(FFP High Rise 6.2 C-1, 4, 6.4.2 A, 6.4.4-A)
A. The Fire Sector Supervisor is most likely to be located on the 21st floor
B. A company officer from one of the first arriving units should be designated by the first BC to act as the Fire Sector Supervisor. This officer will coordinate operations on the fire floor and floor above until the second BC is in position to assume these duties.
C. Units operating under the Fire Sector shall communicate directly to the Fire Sector Supervisor on HT 1 — the primary tactical channel.
D. Once the Fire Sector is established, units operating on the fire floor and floor above shall not communicate with the Incident Command Post under any circumstances.

A
  1. D
  2. HT communications on the primary tactical channel with the units
    under his or her command. When the Fire Sector/Branch is
    established, units under its command shall not communicate with
    the ICP unless urgent.
51
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.

  1. BC Question - Regarding the responsibilities of the Fire Sector Supervisor, it would be incorrect to state that the Fire Sector Supervisor shall? (FFP High Rise 5.5.3 H, 6.2 C-4, 6.4.3—C, E, 6.4.5—A)
    A. Be equipped with a Post Radio and a copy of the floor plan
    B. Operate on HT-1, the Primary Tactical channel, and the Fire Sector Supervisor’s Aide will operate on Channel 2 — the Command Channel
    C. Ensure the attack stairway has been cleared of building occupants on at least the fire floor and floor above
    D. Keep in reserve an adequate number of units assigned to the Fire Sector for the orderly relief of units
A
  1. C

A. Ensure that the attack stairway has been cleared of building occupants for
at least five floors above the fire.

52
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.

  1. Units directed to report to the SAE Group Supervisor at this fire should know that he will be located on at least the ________ or higher?
    A. 27th floor B. 28th floor C. 38th floor D. 39th floor
A
  1. D

If possible, the SAE Group Supervisor shall choose a location on a floor
which is not serviced by the same bank of elevators as the fire floor and at
least five floors above the fire floor. (Figure 18)

53
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.

  1. Regarding the SAE Group, it would be incorrect to state that? (FFP High Rise 6.2 D-1, 2, 3, 6.5.5 D)
    A. All units assigned to the SAE Group shall bring a spare SCBA cylinder—this includes the 4th operating ladder on the 10-76
    B. The SAE Group Supervisor shall operate on HT-3, the Secondary Tactical channel, and the SAE Group Supervisor’s Aide will operate on Channel 2 — the Command Channel
    C. Units operating under an established SAE Group shall communicate directly to the SAE Group Supervisor on HT 3 — the secondary tactical channel.
    D. Once the SAE Group is established, units operating within the SAE Group shall not communicate with the Incident Command Post under any circumstances.
A
  1. D
  2. HT communication with the units under his/her command on the
    secondary tactical channel. When the SAE Group is established,
    units assigned to the SAE Group shall switch to secondary tactical
    channel and shall not communicate with the ICP unless urgent.
54
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.

  1. BC Question - The Forward Staging Area Manager is responsible for which of the following tactic(s)? (FFP High Rise 6.2 E-2, 6.6.5—A, B, E, F,)
    A. Control of all units held in reserve
    B. Control of all units on R & R
    C. Maintaining at least 20 spare cylinders; and maintaining 3 engines and 2 ladders in reserve
    D. Providing transportation of injured members or building occupants to the Forward Triage Area or to the lobby
    E. The Forward Staging Area Manager shall operate on HT-1, Primary Tactical, and the Aide will operate on Channel 2 — the Command Channel
A

5-(A, B, C, D)

  1. The Forward Staging Area Manager shall operate on the command
    channel. His/her aide shall monitor the primary tactical channel.
55
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.

  1. At this fire, members should expect that the Forward Staging Area would be established on the ________ floor. (FFP High Rise - 6.6.2—A)
    A. 21st B. 20th C. 19th D. 18th
A
  1. B

6.6.2 The Forward Staging Area shall be established two floors below the original fire
floor, when the following conditions permit:
A. Where there is adequate space to hold units and equipment in reserve.
B. Where the units have ready access to the Fire Sector/Branch and attack
stairway(s).
C. That provides hard wire communications to the ICP.
D. That provides reliable HT communications between the Forward Staging
Area and the Fire Sector/Branch, SAE Group and the ICP.
E. That is accessible to units reporting to it.
F. Area is a non-IDLH environment.

56
Q

Answer questions 1 - 7 based on the following scenario:
First alarm units respond to a 10-76 for fire on the 22nd floor of a 56-story High Rise Office building in January on a cold winter night. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-19; the B Bank serves floors 19-38: the C Bank serves floors 38-56. There are access stairs from floors 25-27. There is a positive stack effect in this building, so there is no smoke condition on the floors below, allowing the Fire Sector and Forward Staging Areas to be set up at their preferred locations.

A
  1. D

6.7.3 The FTA shall be established in an environmentally safe location on a floor below
the Forward Staging Area. If conditions deteriorate on this floor, EMS personnel
shall change locations. The IC shall be advised.

57
Q
  1. When a unit arrives at the Fire Command Station they will find an informational display unit capable of monitoring numerous building systems. For FDNY purposes, the priority item this unit is capable of displaying is? (FFP High Rise 7.2.2 B)
    A. Manual Fire Alarm C. Sprinkler Water Flow
    B. Smoke Detector D. Elevator Lobby Detector
A
  1. A

An information display unit capable of monitoring the following systems
in order of priority:
1. Manual fire alarm.
2. Smoke detectors.
3. Sprinkler water flow alarms.
4. Elevator lobby detectors.
5. Fire alarm activation.
6. Central office notification.
7. Fan system on / Fan system off.
8. Locked door fail safe system.
9. Fire system trouble.
10. Fire signal trouble.
11. Tamper switch alarm.
12. Power source indicator.
13. Test/normal mode switch.
14. Other information displays as desired

58
Q
  1. All members should be aware that two-way communications are possible between the? (Select all the correct points) (FFP High Rise—7.2.1-C, 7.2.2-C, 7.2.3-C 7.3.2C-2)
    A. Fire Command Station and Floor Warden Stations
    B. Fire Command Station and Air handling control rooms
    C. Fire Command Station and Mechanical Control Center
    D. Fire Command Station and Elevators
    E. Fire Command Station and Elevator Control Room
    F. Fire Command Station and Fire Pump Room
    G. Floor Warden Station on one floor to another Floor Warden station on another floor
A

9-(A, B, C, D, E, F)

C. Two-way communications between the fire command station and the
following:
1. Floor warden stations.
2. Mechanical control center.
3. Elevators.
4. Air handling control rooms.
5. Elevator machinery rooms.

WAMEEP, also p for pump room

59
Q
  1. Which of the following devices, if activated, will automatically recall elevators in a High Rise Office Building? (FFP High Rise—7.2.5, 7.2.6)
  2. Elevator Landing detectors
  3. HVAC detectors
  4. Sprinkler Water Flow alarms
    A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3
A
  1. B
60
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. Units should expect which of the following to occur at this alarm? (7.2.5 A-1, 2, 5, 6, 7, B)
    A. Elevators will be automatically recalled
    B. Fire alarm signals will be sounded on only the 30th and 31st floor
    C. Air supply into and return air from — will be stopped on only the 30th and 31st floors
    D. Air exhaust fans and dampers in the smoke shaft will be activated or pressurizing fans in stair enclosures will be activated
    E. Doors on the locked fail-safe system will unlock
A

11-(D, E)

7.2.5 An approved combustion ionization detection device or a combination of an
approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic
device shall be installed:
A. At each elevator landing, the activation of this device shall:
1. Recall the elevators.
2. Sound the fire alarm signal on the fire floor and the floor above.
Note: In buildings built under the 2008 Building Code, the alarm
will also sound on the floor below.
3. Cause a fire alarm signal to be transmitted to the Fire Department
via a central station.
4. Cause a fire alarm signal to be sounded at the fire command
station, the mechanical control center and the regularly assigned
location of the fire safety director.
5. Stop the air supply into and the return air from the floor where
activated.
6. Activate the air exhaust fans and dampers in the smoke shaft or the
pressurizing fans in the stair enclosure.
7. Unlock the doors on the locked fail safe system.
B. Within the HVAC system, the activation of this device shall accomplish all
of the actions listed in 7.2.5A with the exception of recalling the elevators.

61
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. The OV from the first arriving ladder now sees smoke showing from a window on the 30th floor and informs his officer of this. A 10-76 / 2nd alarm is now transmitted by the ladder officer. Regarding the duties of the first arriving ladder company, it would be correct to state that they should? (FFP High Rise—6.3.4-A, 8.3-E—1, 2, 3, 4)
    A. Ensure the ICP is staffed by a FDNY member, preferably the first arriving Engine Officer
    B. Obtain a copy of the floor plan of the fire area. However, it should never be removed from the Fire Command Station
    C. Provide a report to the Incident Command Post on conditions on the fire floor concerning heat, smoke and life hazards and verification of the fire floor.
    D. Select a stairway, with or without a standpipe, that will provide the best attack on the fire
A
  1. C

The first arriving officer shall establish the ICP. In the event that he or
she leaves the ICP before the arrival of a Chief Officer, he or she shall
designate a member to staff the ICP, preferably the chauffeur of the first
arriving ladder company

  1. Obtain floor plan of the fire area. If only one copy is available,
    do not remove it from the fire command station.
  2. Determine the location of the fire on the floor and select a stairway
    with a standpipe that will provide the best attack on the fire.
62
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. The first and second ladder company should both work together to provide a coordinated primary search of the fire floor and evacuate the fire floor as necessary. If possible, they should both attempt to use the same elevator car, staffed by a member of the first ladder company to provide safe access to the fire area. (FFP High-Rise—8.4.2 A-1, 2, 4)
    A. Agree or D. Disagree?
A
  1. A

If possible, the same
elevator car used by the 1st arriving ladder (staffed by a HT radio
equipped member of the 1st ladder company) should be utilized.
If a different car must be utilized, a HT radio equipped member of
the 2nd ladder shall be assigned to remain with the elevator and
operate car until relieved.

63
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. The Officer of the 3rd to arrive Ladder Company would be correct to think that his unit should? (FFP High Rise—8.5.1B—2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
    A. Take the attack stair to the floor above, the 31st floor, and conduct a primary search on that floor
    B. Determine which stair is the best stairway to be used for evacuating occupants and advise the Fire Sector Supervisor of this fact
    C. Check the floor above for heat, smoke, evacuation, and fire extension. Also check to determine if there are access stairs down to the 30th floor, or up to the 32nd floor
    D. Examine all stairways for occupants and smoke condition. If difficulty is encountered clearing the attack stair of occupants, advise the first arriving engine officer or the Fire Sector Supervisor to withhold the attack until occupants have been safely removed
A
  1. C
  2. Proceed to the floor above the fire via a stairway other than the
    attack stairway.
  3. Determine which stairway is the best stairway to be used by the
    occupants for evacuation and advise the ICP.
  4. Examine all stairways for occupants and smoke condition.
  5. Remove all occupants from the attack stairway for a reasonable
    distance above the fire floor and prevent its use by the occupants.
  6. If difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of
    occupants, the officer shall advise the first arriving ladder
    company or the Fire Sector Supervisor or Fire Branch Director if
    established, to withhold the attack until the occupants have been
    safely removed.
64
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. The 4th arriving ladder would be correct to think that they should? (FFP High-Rise—8.6.1A-2, B-3, C, E, G, H, I)
    A. Take the high-rise bank to gain access to the roof
    B. Advise the SAE Group Supervisor of all means available for roof ventilation. Roof ventilation shall not be initiated unless ordered by the SAE Group Supervisor
    C. Conduct a primary search of floors 55-60
    D. Drop down to the upper floors of the B Bank when initial operations are completed on the upper floors of the building, unless otherwise ordered by the Incident Commander
    E. Operate under control of the Fire Sector Supervisor until the SAE Group is established
A
  1. A

Not undertake roof ventilation unless ordered by the Incident Commander.

Conduct a primary search of the top five floors.

Remain in the roof area to monitor and report any changing condition until
otherwise ordered by the IC.

Operate under the control of the IC until the SAE Group is established.
They shall then operate under the command of the SAE Group Supervisor.

65
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. Regarding the engine operations at this fire, it would be correct to state that?
    (FFP High-Rise - 9.3.1B, 9.4.1—B, E, F)
    A. The first engine should remain at the Fire Sector post on the floor below the reported fire floor, until the first ladder has verified the fire location.
    B. The second engine should report to the vicinity of the standpipe outlet with a Post radio to provide a communication link between the lobby and the fire area pending establishment of a Fire Sector / Branch
    C. The second engine officer should remain at the standpipe outlet to provide HT communications between the standpipe outlet and the nozzle until the first hose line has been supplied with water
    D. The second engine should not enter the fire area at all, so as not to deplete their air supply
A
  1. B

B. Remain at the ICP until the first ladder company has verified the fire
location.

E. Provide HT communications between the standpipe outlet and the nozzle
by having the officer of the second arriving engine company remain at the
outlet until the hoseline is operating at the correct nozzle pressure.

F. Leave the fire area when the hoseline has been stretched and is operating
so as not to deplete their air supply.

66
Q

Use the following scenario to answer questions 11 - 17:
First alarm units arrive at the scene of a reported odor of smoke in a 60-story High Rise Office Building that was constructed in 2017. On arrival, the Fire Safety Director indicates that an HVAC detector has activated on the 30th floor. There are 3 elevator banks in the building: the A Bank serves floors 1-20; the B Bank serves floors 20-40: the C Bank serves floors 40-60.

  1. Greater alarm engines or ladders shall report to the ICP in the lobby, or if staffed, the ___________. Upon its establishment, greater alarm engines or ladders shall report into the _________________? (FFP High-Rise—8.7, 9.6.1)
    A. Lobby Control Unit, Forward Staging Area
    B. Communications Unit, Staging Area
    C. Lobby Control Unit, Staging Area
    D. High Rise Unit, Staging Area
A
  1. C
67
Q
  1. Local law 26 of 2004 was promulgated to address non-fire emergencies in Class E and Class B Office buildings and mandates an Emergency Action Plan for these occupancies. Regarding this local law, which point is incorrect regarding significant emergencies in these buildings? (FFP High-Rise—3.1, 4.2, 4.3 Note)
    A. A Building Information Card (BIC) must be maintained at the Fire Command Station. This BIC can be used by the FDNY IC at fires or emergencies to develop strategies or make tactical decisions
    B. A list of special needs occupants and their location in the building—who have requested assistance if the EAP is implemented—must be maintained at the Fire Command Station
    C. The IC can direct the EAP Director to make announcements to occupants as necessary
    D. The use of elevators by building personnel to move occupants is not permissible if the EAP has been implemented.
A
  1. D

Note: The use of elevators by building personnel to facilitate the movement of occupants
is permissible and should be anticipated under the EAP.