FO CLASS #7-Week of 32419 Ladders 3 Pgs 39 to end, T.B. – Gas No Add's, T.B.–Tools#34-38, Journal Guide, PAIDS – 1-11, 1-13&2-13 Instructor DC Jim DiDomenico.pdf

Question 1

1. The FDNY Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is designed to prevent and minimize instances of violence in the workplace. It also encourages employees to report all instances of physical violence, attempted assaults, and threats reasonably perceived to result in physical violence. Regarding this policy, which of the following item(s) are prohibited in the workplace? (Indicate all of the prohibited choices) (PAID 1-11—7.1.4) A. A firearm that a member has a license for that is kept in his locker B. A club or bat in a Department Messenger Van kept there solely for personal protection C. Explosive devices kept in the rear of the firehouse for an upcoming barbecue D. Switchblades or knives kept at the housewatch desk in case of a terrorist attack

Answer 1

A, B, C, D Prohibition on Firearms and Other Harmful Devices - Every employee is prohibited from possessing firearms, switch blades, knives, swords, bats, clubs, any explosive, caustic, incendiary or poisonous substance or device, any type of ammunition and any type of device or object designed to harm another, in the workplace including work lockers and/or vehicles used to conduct City business. This prohibition applies even if the employee is licensed to carry firearms or transport a device or substance prohibited herein.

Question 2

2. An employee who has secured an Order of Protection and is concerned that the person from whom protection has been sought may attempt to contact the employee at his / her work location should submit a copy of such order to? (PAID 1-11—9.1, 9.2) A. Bureau of Investigation and Trials C. FDNY Legal Division B. Bureau of Fire Investigation D. Their Commanding Officer

Answer 2

B 9.1 An employee who has secured an Order of Protection and is concerned that the person from whom protection has been sought may attempt to contact the employee at his/her work location should submit a copy of such Order to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

Question 3

3. A Workplace Violence Report (WPV-1) should be submitted in which of the following situations? (PAID 1-11—10) 1. Circumstances which present a potential for workplace violence—this report submit should be submitted to the immediate supervisor 2. An actual incident of workplace violence—the report may be submitted by the victim or a witness to the reporting employee’s supervisor 3. Imminent danger—may be reported verbally and then documented in a report to the supervisor A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 3

D 1, 2, 3 10.1.1 Fire Department personnel shall report circumstances that they believe present a potential for physical violence (assaults and homicides), attempted assaults, threats reasonably perceived to result in physical violence, or other conduct that would be reasonably expected to lead to an assault or a homicide. The employee shall submit a Workplace Violence Report (WPV-1), which is available on the Department Intranet, in hard copy format, to his/her immediate supervisor. 10.2.1 Fire Department employees (or their duly designated employee representative) who have been the victim of, or who have witnessed, a workplace violence incident such as a physical assault shall prepare a Workplace Violence Report and submit it to the reporting employee’s supervisor. 10.2.1 Fire Department employees (or their duly designated employee representative) who have been the victim of, or who have witnessed, a workplace violence incident such as a physical assault shall prepare a Workplace Violence Report and submit it to the reporting employee’s supervisor.

Question 4

5. You are an Officer working on a 9 x 6 tour where you determine there is a potential for workplace violence between members on duty. In this situation you would be correct to think that in consultation with the chain of command you may take all of the following actions except? (PAID 1-11—11.2.1) A. Take any measure within your authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or respond to an incident B. Permanently re-assign personnel C. Refer personnel for discipline D. Contact law enforcement authorities

Answer 4

B including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.

Question 5

6. A workplace violence incident occurs on a 6 x 9 tour in Engine 99 as one member physically assaults another member. In this situation, members should know that this action is? (PAID 1-11, 15.1.6) A. A crime and should be reported only to 911 B. Not a crime and should be reported only to BITS C. A crime and should be reported only to BFI D. A crime and should be reported to 911, and then BFI should receive a secondary notification

Answer 5

D 15.1.6 Law Enforcement - Workplace violence (e.g., physical assaults) is a crime. Employees who believe that they are the victim of a crime should call 911. A secondary notification should be made to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

Question 6

7. Regarding the definition of hazing and bullying, it would be incorrect to state that? (PAID 1-13—2.1, 2.2, 2.4, 2.5) A. Hazing includes, but is not limited to, any form of initiation or rite of passage into an employee group, unit or work location that has the potential for or causes physical injury, mental harm or personal humiliation B. Bullying is conduct that can be humiliating, intimidating, demeaning or cruel to a colleague in order to exclude or reject another member from the team C. Hazing / Bullying may occur between piers, from superiors to subordinates, or by junior personnel toward those more senior in rank D. Hazing / Bullying cannot be claimed under any circumstances for routine authorized activities like committee work or training.

Answer 6

D 2.5 Hazing/Bullying does not include authorized activities such as required operational or training exercises/activities (but not including abuse of those activities as listed in Section 2.3); remedial training selected by the employee or as directed by Training Academy staff or other training or instruction authorized by the Chief of Training, Chief of Operations or Chief of Department; as well as daily work, e.g., roll call, inspection of equipment, housewatch duties, committee work (maintaining the bunkroom, cleaning bathrooms, preparing meals, etc.).

Question 7

8. An employee who has been hazed or bullied may report it? 1. Through the chain of command by notifying their supervisor 2. Through the chain of command by notifying their supervisor and additionally report it to either BITS or EEO 3. Directly to BITS or EEO, only if the member provides their name and contact information A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 7

A Employees have the option to submit a report anonymously to BITs or EEO. However, providing one’s name and contact information is encouraged.

Question 8

9. Once a supervisor or officer is informed or made aware of any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying, they shall report it in writing through the chain of command to the? (PAID 1-13—4.4) A. Chief of Operations C. Fire Commissioner B. Chief of Department D. Bureau of Investigations and Trials

Answer 8

B 4.4 Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel, in writing, up the chain of command to the Chief of Department. The Chief of Department, in consultation with and working in conjunction with BITs, will determine what action is appropriate following a reported incident of hazing/bullying, and whether such action shall be taken within the chain of command or by BITs.

Question 9

10. Members of Engine 99 and Ladder 98 want to create and maintain a social media site for their firehouse. They should be aware that they need to request authorization for this site by submitting a Social Media Registration Form to the? (PAID 2-13—4.1.2) A. Office of Public Information B. NYC Department of Information Technology and Telecommunications C. Chief of Department D. Fire Commissioner

Answer 9

A 4.1.2 No Department-related social media site or application is to be created or maintained, except as authorized by the Fire Commissioner and OPI. - Requests for
authorization are to be submitted to OPI via the Website/Social Media
Registration Form attached to this policy.

Question 10

11. Which one of the following would be an appropriate use of social media as per the FDNY Social Media Policy? (PAID 2-13—5.2.5, 5.2.6, 5.2.7) A. A member posts a photo of himself wearing his uniform at his promotion party at McSorleys Old Ale House in Manhattan B. A member posts a photo of herself wearing her uniform at the Medal Day Ceremony C. A member posts a photo that she took with her cell phone of the fire conditions on arrival of her first good nozzle job D. A member becomes Facebook friends with a woman he rescued at a 2 alarm fire

Answer 10

B FDNY personnel shall not post photographs of themselves in uniform, unless the uniform was worn during an event for which a uniform is required. FDNY personnel are prohibited from posting a photograph of themselves if, at the time, the wearing of a uniform is prohibited. These prohibitions will not apply to photographs taken at official Department ceremonies (e.g., promotions, Medal Day). Members of the Department are prohibited from taking photographs, videotaping or recording audio while working unless authorized to do so by OPI. Employees are prohibited from engaging in any type of social media contact with patients, fire victims or any members of the public with whom they interact in their capacity as FDNY employees, to the same extent contact is prohibited by other means of communication.

Question 11

1. Ladder 28 arrives first at a fire in a 4-story OLT that has 4 windows per floor. Regarding their sizeup of the number of apartments per floor, they would be correct to think that? (L-3—5.4.1—A, B, C) A. A front fire escape normally indicates that there are 2 to 4 apartments per floor B. A front fire escape always indicates that there will be 3 to 4 apartments per floor C. The lack of a front fire escape always indicates that there will be railroad flats D. A corner building without a front fire escape may or may not have railroad flats

Answer 11

D When the building has four (4) windows per floor and no front fire escape, it indicates two (2) railroad flats (Old Law Tenement) with a rear fire escape. (Figure 5L) This does not necessarily apply to a corner building. When the building has four (4) windows per floor and a front fire escape, it usually indicates three (3) or four (4) apartments per floor with another fire escape in the rear. (

Question 12

2. Regarding the interior sizeup at a fire in an OLT building, which point indicated below would be incorrect? (L-3—5.4.2—A, B, C) A. The total number of mail boxes in a 5-story OLT is an indicator of the number of apartments per floor B. Apartment numbering and lettering systems are indicators of the number of apartments per floor C. If four doors are found on each floor, this indicates 4 apartments per floor D. Most railroad flats have the kitchen in the rear, so that the normal entrance door will be the rear door

Answer 12

C Most Old Law Tenements have four doors on each floor, but this is not always an indication that there are four apartments. (When forcing entrance to an apartment with two doors, choose the door normally used for entrance.)

Question 13

3. First alarm units arrive at a fire in an OLT building where they see smoke issuing from the cornice upon arrival. In this situation they would be correct to think which TWO thoughts? (L-3—5.4.3 A) A. This is positive evidence that there is fire in the cockloft B. This is positive evidence that smoke and heat are entering the cockloft C. The cornice should be opened as soon as possible to check for the existence of fire in the cockloft or the cornice itself D. Opening the ceilings below or opening the returns if present can help determine if there is fire in the cockloft

Answer 13

B & D Smoke may be seen issuing from the cornice upon arrival. Without investigation this cannot be taken as positive evidence that there is actually fire in the cockloft. The only valid conclusion that can be drawn is that smoke and heat are entering the cockloft. Under no conditions should the cornice be opened for smoke. If still doubtful about the existence of fire in the cornice or cockloft, it can be examined by opening the ceiling below, or opening the returns if present. This is a quicker and easier operation than opening the roof.

Question 14

4. A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels, visible over the roof top of an OLT frequently is an indication that the fire is? (L-3—5.4.3 B) A. On the top floor C. In an open shaft B. In the cockloft D. In the roof bulkhead

Answer 14

C B. A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels, visible over the roof top of the building frequently is an indication that the fire is in an open shaft. Due to the shafts area and the heat created therein, the appearance of this heated column is readily distinguished from that rising from a chimney.

Question 15

5. An officer conducting a company drill on proper search procedures was correct when she stated that? (L-3—5.5.2, 5.5.4) A. The secondary search is rapid, but thorough and systematic and must include the entire perimeter of the building, and all shafts, basements or cellars. B. Officers shall ensure that the area in the vicinity the entrance door and behind the entrance door are searched quickly after the search of a room or an apartment has been completed C. If a primary or secondary search is delayed, or not completed for any reason, the IC must be notified D. If fire on a lower floor requires the search of a number of apartments, it may be quicker to enter these apartments from their fire escape, starting on the floor immediately above the fire apartment

Answer 15

C Secondary Search - Is a thorough and painstakingly complete search, to ensure that no possible victims are overlooked, as children may hide in closets or under beds or in bathrooms. The secondary search must also include the entire perimeter of the building and all shafts, basements/cellars, etc. - Officers of units performing search shall be certain that the area in the vicinity of the entrance door, and behind the entrance door are searched for possible victims. After a quick check of this area the room or apartment search can begin. - If for any reason a thorough search of an area has not been completed the firefighter’s officer must be informed

Question 16

6. First alarm units arrive at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5-story OLT that has 2 railroad flat apartments per floor. Regarding the search operations at this fire, it would be incorrect to state that? (L-3—5.5.6, 5.5.9) A. If the first OV is unable to enter the fire apartment from the rear fire escape, he should probe the immediate area with hand, foot or tool. B. When operating on the floors above the fire, members should force one or more doors on each floor to provide an area of refuge if they have to vacate the interior stairs C. When operating on the floors above the fire, if you cannot gain entry into a safe area and the attack line is in position and ready to advance, you must return to the fire floor as soon as possible after the door to the fire area is opened D. Secondary searches shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit and shall be conducted by units other then those who conducted the primary search of these areas

Answer 16

C If you cannot gain entry into a safe area and the attack line is in position and ready to advance, you must immediately return to the fire floor, BEFORE the door to the fire area is opened. You must not delay the start of fire extinguishment.

Question 17

7. It would be most correct to state that prior to proceeding above the fire, the second ladder officer should ensure that the Engine and Ladder officers on the fire floor are aware of their intention to operate above the fire. (L-3—5.5.8, 5.5.9 Note)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree?

Answer 17

A

Prior to proceeding above the fire, the
second arriving officer should ensure that the officers on the fire floor are made
aware of his/her intentions so that those operating above can be warned of any
situation necessitating withdrawal.

Question 18

8. When conducting a search, a member finding narrow, tapered legs, with wheels would most likely indicate they have found a? (Pg 45-picture)
   A. Bunk bed
   B. High Chair
   C. Crib
   D. Playpen

Answer 18

C

Question 19

9. It would be incorrect to state that energy efficient windows found in modern buildings will cause? (L-3—5.6.4)
   A. High heat buildup in the fire apartment and floor above
   B. Difficulty in order to vent them properly
   C. Difficulty in determining the fire location
   D. Discolored windows, which will be readily apparent from the exterior

Answer 19

D

Discoloration due to high heat is not readily apparent

Question 20

10. Members entering an IDLH must be teamed up with another member in all instances except for when there is a known life hazard and an immediate action could prevent the loss of life. A known life hazard for these purposes is correctly indicated in which of the following? (Indicate all correct) (L-3—5.7.3 Pg 49)
    A. The victim can be seen by the rescuer
    B. The victim can be heard by the rescuer
    C. A credible source at the scene states there is someone definitely in the building, but not sure where
    D. The owner of a store at the scene states there is a worker in the building in the rear of the first floor
    E. A police officer at the scene states he saw two kids in the top floor deadman’s room
    F. A person at the scene states their neighbor is usually home at night and most likely on the second floor of the 2-story PD

Answer 20

A, B, D, E

A known life hazard is defined as follows:
 A victim can be seen by the rescuer
 A victim can be heard by the rescuer
 A member has information from a credible source or a person at the scene
indicating the location of the life hazard

Question 21

11. BC QUESTION - If a member takes individual action for a known life hazard, the IC shall forward a report to the Chief of? (L-3—5.7.3 Pg 49 Note)
    A. Safety B. Operations C. Department D. Training

Answer 21

B

NOTE: In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander
shall forward a report to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review
of each of these incidents will be conducted.

Question 22

12. An OV from Ladder 33 is operating on the 3rd floor fire escape of a NLT building and will be ventilating for search purposes. In this situation, she would be incorrect to think? (L-3—5.7.3)
    A. The ladder officer must be notified of a member’s intent to ventilate for search before the FF enters.
    B. The ladder officer may decide to disapprove the entry to search in order to limit any negative impact caused by ventilation
    C. After the FF ventilates the window and clears out the window for access, the priority action is for the FF is to immediately search the room and locate any victims
    D. If a victim is found, the FF should transmit radio code 10-45, including their location and planned exit route

Answer 22

C

Upon completion of clearing the window and before entering, reassess the
smoke and heat condition to determine if the area is still tenable. If
conditions now prevent access, immediately notify the Ladder Company
officer of this situation.
 If interim conditions are tenable the member should reach in and probe the
immediate area for potential victims

Question 23

13. Regarding ventilation tactics in OLT buildings, which statements below are correct? (L-3—5.8 Note)
    #1— All horizontal ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated to and coordinated by the ladder company officer.
    #2— All vertical ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated to and coordinated by the ladder company officer.
    A. Only #1 B. Only #2 C. Both #1 and #2 D. Neither statement

Answer 23

A

NOTE: All horizontal and initial vertical ventilation tactics must be
controlled, communicated to and coordinated by the ladder
company officer.

Question 24

14. A Roof FF from Ladder 132 is operating on the roof of a tenement building that has heavy fire on the top floor requiring the roof to be cut. In this situation, he would be correct to think? (L-3—5.9.4, 5.9.6)
    A. If possible, cut directly over the fire. To determine this location, members can check for soft spots or use their sense of touch on the base of a soil pipe or vent pipe
    B. Initially a 6’ x 6’ cut is recommended
    C. The 3rd cut he makes should be the knockout corner cut for tool insertion
    D. Other than the knockout cut, all other cuts should be approximately 3 feet

Answer 24

A

Initially approximately a 3x6 coffin cut is
recommended - Cut #2 “knock out” corner cut for tool insertion - Cut #3 approximately 6 feet.

Question 25

15. First alarm units operating at a top floor fire in an OLT would be incorrect to think that? (L-3—5.9.6, 5.9.8 B, C)
    A. If a fire is burning in a top floor OLT apartment, members should wait until the fire is knocked down before examining the cockloft
    B. If fire is seen in the cockloft from an inspection hole made in the ceiling, ventilate all windows in the apartment while waiting for a hose line
    C. Using the back of the hook is generally more efficient when pushing down ceilings after cutting a roof
    D. Members should always cut roofs with the wind at their back

Answer 25

A

When a fire is burning in a top floor apartment, it is not efficient to wait until the fire
is “knocked down” before examining the cockloft.

Question 26

16. A member operating at an OLT fire is trapped in a rear room and attempting to go thru a partition wall to escape. In this situation, he would be incorrect to think that? (L-3—6.1.1—6.1.5)
    A. The order of preference to accomplish this task is using the axe, then the halligan, or lastly the hook
    B. The member should start this tactic by punching a hole slightly below the waist level
    C. After anchoring the tool against the opposite side of the partition, pull the tool towards them self using short strokes, then kick the lath off the far side of the bay
    D. Use the Swim Move or Reduced Profile Maneuver to move through the opening

Answer 26

A

6.1.1 Use the halligan, hook or axe. This is the order of preference but all can do the job.

Question 27

17. An officer conducting drill on the construction of OLT buildings was correct to state that? (L-3—7.1.6, 7.1.7, Figure 7A, 7.2.6)
    A. Partitions that separate apartments in an OLT are fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the under-side of the floor above
    B. Floor beams in OLT’s are laid perpendicular to the front of the building
    C. The horizontal arteries in OLT’s are interrupted by hall and stairs which will retard lateral extension
    D. Steel Columns, I-Beams and girders are never found in any OLT buildings

Answer 27

C

The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are not fire stopped
between the ceiling of one floor and the under side of the floor above - In Old Law Tenements, the floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the
building thus forming horizontal channels for fire travel as far as both side walls
(bearing walls) of the building. This construction not only permits lateral fire
spread within the building but allows possible extension into adjoining buildings
via beam ends and/or defective masonry. An exception exists where these
horizontal arteries are interrupted by public hall and stairs which retard lateral
extension.

Question 28

18. Regarding the operations of Ladder companies at OLT fires, it would be incorrect to state that? (L-3—Page 60—picture, 7.3.1, 7.3.2)
    A. A Roof FF detecting heat at the base of a soil pipe should cut an inspection hole in the roof
    B. On the floor above the fire, high temperatures, even if only at the ceiling level, justify calling for a hand line
    C. If fire is found in a bay, it and both adjoining bays should be opened for examination
    D. If a floor needs to be cut, the most efficient way to cut the floor is cutting it with an axe at a 60 degree angle and on a bias

Answer 28

D

Primary Method:
A. Cutting with saw - Because it is the most efficient. Area must be vented to
prevent buildup of carbon monoxide.
B. Cutting with axe - Cut floor at a 60 degree angle and on a bias as shown.
This is easier than cutting across the grain.

Question 29

19. BC Question - In warm or hot weather, the IC, during overhaul may permit members to remove their? (L-3—8.4)
    A. Bunker coats only
    B. Bunker coats and bunker pants
    C. Bunker coats and helmets
    D. Gloves only
    E. Members must wear all PPE

Answer 29

fire tech says A but I say E

8.4 When performing overhaul operations, all members must wear their Department issued PPE
including bunker coat, bunker pants, bunker boots, helmets, protective hoods and gloves.

Question 30

20. When throwing material out of a window, a member should be posted in the yard or street below and the yard examined before discarding any material to insure no occupants jumped. After taking these precautions at a fire, if members were throwing involved material out of the window, it is permissible to throw it where? (Indicate any correct choices) (L-3—8.13, 9.9)
    A. Onto another building roof
    B. Onto a 1-story setback
    C. Into a narrow shaft
    D. Into a wide, enclosed shaft
    E. Into a wide, open shaft

Answer 30

E

No material shall be thrown onto roof of buildings
or into narrow shafts or setbacks.

9.9 The removal of involved materials to enclosed shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be
permitted.

Question 31

21. Which one of the following items should not be removed under any circumstances from an OLT during overhauling, regardless of charring? (L-3—9.3, 9.8)
    A. Floor joists C. Lintels
    B. Roof joists D. Wooden structural members like wall studs

Answer 31

C

LINTELS in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not
be removed, regardless of charring, as they support a considerable amount of brickwork.
To remove them from their anchorage could result in injury and considerable property
damage through partial collapse.

Question 32

1. When making entries in the company journal, it would be incorrect to state that? (2.1, 2.7, 2.13)
   A. The Housewatch FF shall make entries in blue or black ink
   B. Entries made by all members, other than the Housewatch FF, shall be in red ink
   C. At the beginning of each calendar day, before taking over housewatch duties, the day and date shall be written across the page below the last entry and the time column shall read “2400”
   D. Military time shall be used when making entries except that the terms 9 x 6 and 6 x 9 shall be used to designate tours of duty

Answer 32

C

2.7 At the beginning of each calendar day, immediately following 2400 hrs. and before
taking over of housewatch duties, the day and date shall be written across the page on
line directly below last entry of the previous calendar day. Also, on same line in “Time
Column” 0001 shall be written.

Question 33

2. An Officer and four firefighters from an Engine Company all report for duty between 1700 and 1800 hours and find that the Engine is out at a 3rd alarm about 6 blocks away. At 1800 hours, the Officer calls the dispatcher who informs her to report to the fire as per the IC in order to relieve the day tour. In this situation, she would be correct to think that she should? (2.10)
   A. Conduct a Roll Call, write the Roll Call, and make entry of departure
   B. Conduct a Roll Call, make entry of departure, then write the Roll Call upon return from operations
   C. Not conduct a Roll Call, but rather immediately leave and make entry of departure
   D. Not conduct a Roll Call, but rather immediately leave. No entry of departure is required

Answer 33

B

2.10 Incoming member reporting for duty and finding unit out of quarters shall record his
entry in company journal. Officer on duty shall call the roll, make entry of departure and
proceed as per Section 11.1.6, Regulations. Particulars of roll call shall be duly recorded
upon return from operations.

Question 34

3. A civilian employee from the FDNY Fleet Maintenance arrives at quarters to perform repair work on the apparatus brakes. Regarding the civilian employee entry into quarters, it would be most correct for the? (2.11)
   A. Housewatch FF to record the entry in blue or black ink
   B. Officer to record the entry in red ink
   C. Civilian member to record the entry in red ink
   D. Chauffeur to record the entry in red ink

Answer 34

C

• -2.11 Civilian employees of the Department shall make entries in their own handwriting in
  company journal when entering and leaving quarters.

Question 35

4. The Officer of Engine 99 has started writing a Roll Call and is partially done when the Engine gets a run for a CFR-D response. After the Engine leaves, FF Square wants to make an entry regarding his departure from quarters to work overtime in Ladder 98. In this situation, FF Square should? (2.14)
   A. Make the necessary entry in the journal without skipping any lines
   B. Make the necessary entry in the journal, but skip a few lines to allow for completion of the Roll Call
   C. Leave a note / or sticky for the officer to give him a mark in the journal
   D. Call the firehouse later to have the officer make the omitted entry

Answer 35

A

2.14 If a unit is required to respond to an alarm while the officer is in the process of writing
the roll call, members shall be permitted to make necessary entries in company journal
e.g. OT entries.
The officer shall when returning to quarters from the response, continue the roll call.
Members are not to skip any lines when making their entries.

Question 36

5. An appropriate Company Journal will have all of the following except? (3.1, 3.2)
   A. Chief’s visits recorded on pages 500 to 498
   B. Company drills recorded on pages 497 to 495
   C. Battalion Depot (mask cylinder) entries starting on page 494
   D. A current, accurate company roster affixed to the first page

Answer 36

D

Inside the front cover affix a current accurate company roster made in accordance with
Specimen Roster on page 17 of this booklet.

Question 37

6. Which of the following are correct “Flagging Column” entries for the Company Journal? (Indicate all of the correct choices) (5)
   A. PP
   B. LV
   C. OT
   D. RX
   E. PRP
   F. MSK
   G. EI
   H. ACC

Answer 37

B, C, F, G, H

Question 38

7. Below is a Roll Call written by Lt Brady at 0900 hours where groups 4 - 9 are in on the day tour and 19 - 24 are in on the night tour:
   0900 Roll Call conducted - Engine 98; members accounted for viz:
   OD (9 X 6) Lt Brady 5, FF Amendola 6, FF Gronkowski 7, FF White 22, FF Gordon 23
   IC (6 x 9) Capt. Bellicheck 23, FF Edelman 20, FF Michel 21, FF Hogan 8, FF Kraft 22
   FF White assigned as chauffeur for the 9 x 6 tour
   EE Dept PAQ and journal entries examined as per 15.2.3 Regs
   Lt Thomas Brady
   Is this 0900 roll Call is written correctly?
   A. Yes - written correctly B. No - written incorrectly

Answer 38

A but firetech says B

Question 39

1. It is July 7th on a 96-degree day when Engine 92 and Ladder 44 respond to a report of a fire in a 6-story MD. The Battalion asks for a 10-12 because he is at a Division Conference. When they arrive Ladder 44 investigates a food on the stove condition in apartment 6E as the Lieutenant in Engine 92 orders his unit to start stretching a precautionary line. The Captain of Ladder 44 then tells his LCC to transmit a 10-18 for a 10-26, no extension and advise the Battalion that they will forward the particulars. When both officers come back to the street, they can see that the members need some relief and rehabilitation from the oppressive heat conditions. In this situation, the Captain as the IC should know which point below is incorrect? (AUC 230—6.1, Add 1—3.1)
   A. A RAC unit may be special called by an IC
   B. Rehabilitation can take place with or without the establishment of a formal functional area
   C. During routine incidents, companies can conduct rehabilitation on their own
   D. Company rehabilitation should not occur during an SCBA cylinder change, the transition from active fire attack to overhaul, or other similar situations

Answer 39

D

6.1 Company rehabilitation can occur during an SCBA
cylinder change, the transition from active fire attack to overhaul, or other similar situations.

3.1 One RAC Unit will respond to Signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, and
when special called by the Incident Commander. At an expanding or extended operation,
additional RAC Units may be special called.
3.2 An additional RAC Unit will respond on the transmission of a 3rd Alarm, unless an
additional RAC Unit has already been assigned.

Question 40

2. Members should be aware that effective Rehabilitation and Recovery of all members is a high priority of the FDNY. When units are operating at certain incidents, a RAC unit, EMS and other resources are assigned to establish rehabilitation and care procedures. In this regard, it would be incorrect to state that? (AUC 230—6.1.1, Add 1—3.1)
   A. RAC units are automatically dispatched on a 10-75, 10-76, 10-77, or 10-60.
   B. RAC operations will be conducted at an area known as the “Forward RAC Area”
   C. The “Forward RAC Area” will be the location of the Rehabilitation Group
   D. The aim is to have the “Forward RAC Area” within 50 feet of the fire building and within eyesight of the Incident Command Post whenever possible

Answer 40

D

Question 41

3. BC QUESTION - A Chief should be aware that a Rehab Group shall be established by the IC at which type(s) of incidents indicated below? (Indicate all of the correct points)
   (AUC 230—7.1)
   A. 10-75 or greater alarms
   B. Long duration incidents
   C. Physically demanding incidents
   D. Long duration or physically demanding Incidents especially during extreme temperatures

Answer 41

A, B, C, D

A Rehabilitation Group shall be established by the IC at every 10-75 and greater alarms,
10-60, 10-76, 10-77, and at long duration and/or physically demanding incidents, especially
during times of extreme temperatures. The IC should verify the establishment of the
Rehabilitation Group and assume the responsibility of the Rehabilitation Group if it is not
delegated

Question 42

4. A Rehabilitation Group at a 10-75 will consist of what units below? (AUC 230—7.1.1)
   A. RAC Unit, BLS Crew, EMS Officer
   B. RAC Unit, ALS Crew, EMS Officer
   C. RAC Unit, BLS Crew, BLS Crew, EMS Officer
   D. RAC Unit, BLS Crew, ALS Crew, EMS Officer

Answer 42

D

The Rehabilitation Group will consist of an EMS Officer, a BLS and ALS crew and
a Rehabilitation and Care (RAC) Unit. At second or greater alarms and prolonged
incidents the Rehabilitation Manager will supervise the RAC Unit and assist in the
coordination of additional resources needs for the Rehabilitation Group.

Question 43

5. BC QUESTION - A BC should be aware that which of the following point(s) are correct? (Indicate all of the correct points) (AUC 230—7.1.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4)
   A. At second or greater alarms, 10-60, and prolonged incidents a Rehabilitation Manager will supervise the RAC Unit and assist in coordinating of additional resource needs for the Rehabilitation Group
   B. At second or greater alarms, or when special called, the Resource Unit Leader shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group.
   C. Units shall be sent to the Rehabilitation Group in manageable groups, usually three units at a time
   D. Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 30 minutes before being reassigned
   E. At expanding incidents, the Medical Branch Director, in consult with the IC or Rehabilitation Manager shall reevaluate the location of the Forward RAC Rehabilitation Area.

Answer 43

A, B, E

Units shall be
sent in manageable groups, usually FOUR units at a time, so as to not overcrowd the
Rehabilitation Group. - 7.2 Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes
before being reassigned.

Question 44

6. Special Units, Squads, Rescues, and Haz-Mat Ops Units shall be given priority for medical monitoring when the Unit’s release is pending completion of the monitoring activities. (AUC 230—7.1.4)
   A. Agree or D. Disagree

Answer 44

A

7.14 Special Units, Squads, Rescues and Haz-Mat Ops Units shall be given priority for
medical monitoring when the Unit’s release is pending completion of the monitoring
activities.

Question 45

7. Regarding RAC Units, it would be incorrect to state that? (AUC 230—Add 1—2.2.2, 3.2, 4.3)
   A. If a RAC Unit is staffed with one FF and responding, an additional RAC Unit will be requested by the responding RAC FF
   B. A second RAC Unit operating because the first RAC Unit had only one FF will operate until released by the IC or Rehabilitation Manager
   C. An additional RAC Unit will respond on the transmission of a 4th alarm, unless an additional RAC Unit has already been assigned
   D. RAC Firefighters will be responsible for the collection of member’s personal hoods who operated in an IDLH to have them decontaminated. This is not optional.

Answer 45

D

RAC Firefighters will be responsible for the collection of member’s personal hoods who
wish to have them decontaminated by the FDNY Decontamination Support Unit.

Question 46

1. The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire is by using a? (Tools 34 - 1.2)
   A. Purple K extinguisher C. Class D extinguisher
   B. Carbon Dioxide extinguisher D. Copious amount of water

Answer 46

C firetech says A

The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire is with the use of a class D
extinguisher because it absorbs heat and smothers the flames cutting off oxygen.

Question 47

2. A Lieutenant conducting drill on MET-L-X extinguishers was incorrect when he stated that? (Tools 34—2.1, 2.2, 2.3)
   A. MET-L-X can be used on certain alkali metals including Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium. It was specifically developed for Lithium fires (batteries)
   B. The salt in the MET-L-X extinguisher forms a crust excluding air from contact with the metal. A plastic additive melts to hold the crust together until the metal is cooled below its ignition temperature
   C. MET-L-X is suitable for fires in solid chunks such as casings
   D. The MET-L-X extinguisher has a yellow label that states “MET-L-X FOR CLASS D (or symbol) FIRES ONLY”

Answer 47

A

It is specifically developed for fires involving certain alkali metals, including sodium and
potassium, and can be used on other metals including magnesium, titanium, and
zirconium.

Question 48

3. A Officer continued drill on LITH-X extinguishers and this time he was incorrect when he stated that the LITH-X extinguisher? (Tools 34—3.1, 3.2, 3.3)
   A. Can be used on certain alkali metals including Lithium, Sodium, and Potassium. It was specifically developed for Lithium fires (batteries)
   B. Powder will cake and form a crust just like MET-L-X.
   C. Excludes oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire
   D. Has a label affixed that states “LITH-X”. There will be no yellow label.

Answer 48

B

It does not cake or
crust like MET-L-X but it does exclude oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat
away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire.

Question 49

4. It would be correct to state LITH-X? (TOOLS 34—3.3)
   A. Is superior in a very hot burning metal fire such as lithium
   B. Effectiveness on vertical surfaces is superior
   C. Will cling to metal surfaces, so it will not be necessary to cover the burning material completely
   D. Is superior to MET-L-X at adhering to hot vertical surfaces

Answer 49

A

The LITH-X effectiveness on vertical surfaces
is diminished. LITH-X does not cling (adhere) to metal surfaces so it is necessary to
cover the burning metal completely. The MET-L-X extinguisher is superior to the
LITH-X extinguisher at adhering to hot vertical surfaces.

Question 50

Use the following scenario to answer questions 5 - 6:
A Captain from a SOC Support Ladder is ordered by the IC to get the LITH-X extinguisher to extinguish a combustible metal fire which has a vertical surface.
5. In this situation, the Officer would be correct to think that the? (Tools 34 - 4)
A. Optimum distance to start extinguishment is approximately 12 feet from the burning material
B. Discharge time for the extinguisher is about 60 seconds
C. Extinguisher will cover 3 square feet at a 1-inch thickness
D. Entire thickness of the material does not have to be covered
E. Temperature restrictions on the extinguisher are from (-20 F to 150 F)

Answer 50

C

 Optimum distance to start extinguishment is approximately 10’ from the burning
material which is well within the range of these extinguishers.

 Discharge time approximately 30 seconds. Coverage up to 3 square feet at a
1” thickness. Lith-X coverage will be reduced depending upon the thickness of the
material. (Lith-X doesn’t cling well to vertical surfaces so the entire thickness of the
material has to be covered with the agent.)

 Temperature restrictions -40 F to 120 F

Question 51

Use the following scenario to answer questions 5 - 6:
A Captain from a SOC Support Ladder is ordered by the IC to get the LITH-X extinguisher to extinguish a combustible metal fire which has a vertical surface.

6. When operating at this fire, members would be incorrect to think that they should? (5 - E, F, G, H)
   A. Direct the powder at the base of the burning material
   B. First apply a thin layer of agent evenly over the burning mass
   C. Once control of the fire is established, cover the metal completely from close range applying a heavier layer usually at least 3-inches thick.
   D. Delay overhaul until the fuel has cooled; this may take up to 30 minutes

Answer 51

C

6. When operating at this fire, members would be incorrect to think that they should? (5 - E, F, G, H)
   A. Direct the powder at the base of the burning material
   B. First apply a thin layer of agent evenly over the burning mass
   C. Once control of the fire is established, cover the metal completely from close range applying a heavier layer usually at least 3-inches thick.
   D. Delay overhaul until the fuel has cooled; this may take up to 30 minutes

Question 52

7. Regarding the distribution and inspection of CLASS D extinguishers to FDNY units, it would be inaccurate to state that? (6.1, 7.1, 7.2, 7.3)
   A. One MET-L-X extinguisher and one LITH-X extinguisher has been issued to HAZ-MAT, Rescue, Squad, HMTU’s, SOC Support Ladders and Purple K units
   B. These extinguishers shall be inspected daily and after each use
   C. Periodic changing of the powder in these extinguishers is not necessary
   D. Anytime the MET-L-X or LITH-X extinguisher is used at an incident or a defect is discovered, it should be forwarded to HAZ-MAT Operations for replacement

Answer 52

B

The MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers shall be inspected weekly and after each use.

Question 53

8. NYC-DOT has installed bollards at pedestrian / bike entrances on the Williamsburg, Manhattan and Brooklyn Bridges. Regarding these bollards, it would be incorrect to state? (1.1, 2, 2.1)
   A. Some bollards are removable, some are retractable
   B. The removable bollards require a custodian bollard wrench to unscrew the locking rod and a lifting bar that is placed through holes near the top of the fire bollard pipe
   C. A metal halligan hook may be used in place of the lifting bar for removable bollard operations
   D. The items removed from the bollard shall be placed to the side out of the path of pedestrians and vehicles. If staffing is insufficient, the removed items may be left unattended.

Answer 53

D

Do not leave items unattended.

Question 54

9. Retractable bollards electronically retract into the ground and are operated by a key switch. Sets of keys are issued to first due units to perform this operation. Regarding operations at these bollards it would be inaccurate to think? (Tools 35—3)
   A. If there is an object on a retracted bollard, it will not rise because there are loop detector zones on each side of the bollard
   B. There are two key switches inside of the control box. The top one is for FDNY use
   C. To unlock the control box a member will insert the key marked “CB” and turn it clockwise
   D. The member will then insert the key marked “EM” into the FDNY key switch and turn it to the EMERG position to lower the bollard. The key is not removable in the EMERG position
   E. A member must be assigned to remain at the control box throughout the operation. Keys must not be left unattended in the key switch at anytime

Answer 54

C

To lower the bollards, the member approaches the control box and unlocks the control
box door by inserting the key marked “RB” and turning counterclockwise.

Question 55

10. If the Control Box to a retractable bollard is opened and a key is not placed in the key switch within _____ seconds, the system will switch to tamper mode causing an alarm to sound and power to be cut from the system? (Tools 35—Page 9)
    A. 15 B. 30 C. 45 D. 60

Answer 55

B

Question 56

11. An Officer conducting drill on the Digital In-Line Gauge used for standpipe operations was correct when he stated that? (Tools 36—3.1—A, B, C, D, E)
    A. The gauge should be pre-connected to a folded length of hose
    B. The green ON/OFF button must be pressed and held for 1-2 seconds to activate it; Then release the ON/OFF button and the digital readout will show “0” pressure and “0” flow.
    C. After opening the standpipe control valve, static pressure will immediately be indicated in the bottom blue LED digital readout
    D. The goal is a static pressure of 70 psi for a 3 length stretch or 80 psi for a 4 length stretch
    E. An effective stream for a 2 ½ inch hoseline with a 1 1/8 inch MST is between 225 and 250 gallons

Answer 56

E -

Connect the Digital In-line Gauge to the standpipe outlet. (The gauge is not to be
pre-connected to a folded length of hose). - An effective firefighting stream for a 2 ½” hoseline with a 1 1/8” MST is between
225 and 250 gallons per minute (GPM). Therefore the goal is to obtain a residual
pressure (nozzle open, water flowing) of approximately 70 PSI for a 3 length
stretch or 80 PSI for a 4 length stretch with a flow of 225-250 GPM. - Firmly press and hold the green ON/OFF button for 4 to 5 seconds. Four dashes
will appear under PRESSURE and “r3.00”will appear above FLOW. (Photo 4) - When ordered to start water, open the standpipe control valve. Static pressure
will immediately be indicated in the top red LED digital readout. Static pressure
(control valve open, nozzle closed, no movement of water) is not an indicator of
sufficient nozzle pressure.

Question 57

12. FF Smith is operating as the Control FF at a 10-77 in a HRFPMD. While utilizing the Digital IN-LINE Gauge, he would be correct to think that? (Tools 36—3.1 E, F, Note, 4.1)
    A. If the pressure reading is normal or higher and the water flow is reduced, he should suspect a burst length
    B. If the pressure reading is normal or lower and the water flow is increased, he should suspect kinks
    C. If the gauge fails to display upon initial startup, he should make another attempt to turn it on. If the second attempt fails, he must remove the gauge from the standpipe outlet
    D. There are pressure and flow alerts incorporated in the gauge. These pressure and flow alerts are not a direct indication of an unsafe condition

Answer 57

D -

Suspect kinks if the pressure reading is normal or higher and the flow is reduced
below normal. Suspect a burst length if the pressure reading is normal or lower
and the flow is increased above normal.
Note: If the Digital In-Line Gauge fails to display upon initial start-up, make another
attempt to turn the gauge on. If this attempt fails, the control firefighter shall
verify with their officer that the nozzle team is receiving proper pressure and
flow. Since the Digital In-Line Gauge does not regulate water flow, hoseline
operations can continue without the display functioning properly. The officer
must monitor water pressure and flow and communicate the need for any
adjustments to the Control Firefighter.

Question 58

13. Regarding the pressure and flow alerts and special features of the Digital In-line Gauge it would be correct to state that? (Tools 36—4.1, 4.2)
    A. “HI-P” will alternately flash on the red digital readout when pressure exceeds 150 psi
    B. “HI-F” will alternately flash on the blue digital readout when water flow exceeds 250 gpm
    C. “LO-F” will alternately flash on the blue digital readout when water flow is less than 180 gpm
    D. If there has been no water flow for 15 minutes, the digital display will power off automatically

Answer 58

B -

 The red digital readout will alternately flash a high pressure alert -“HI-P” when
pressure exceeds 200 psi.
 The blue digital readout will alternately flash high flow alert “HI-F” when water flow
exceeds 250 gpm.
 The blue digital readout will alternately flash a low flow alert “LO-F” when water
flow is less than 80 gpm. -  If there has been no water flow for 15 minutes, the digital display will go into a
“sleep” mode and not display any readings. The resumption of water flow during this
“sleep” mode will re-activate the digital display automatically.
 If there has been no water flow after 30 minutes, the digital display will power off
automatically. If operations are then resumed, the Digital In-line Gauge will need to
be re-started by firmly pressing and holding the green ON/OFF button for 4 to 5
seconds.

Question 59

14. The Digital In-line gauge is powered by a special 9V rechargeable lithium ion battery. No other 9V battery may be used with this gauge. Units are issued 4 batteries for this gauge. Regarding these batteries, it would be incorrect to state that? (Tools 36—5.2, 5.3)
    A. One battery is installed in the gauge, one in a clear battery pouch of the carry case, and two batteries are to be placed in the charging unit at quarters
    B. A fully charged battery will supply about 5 hours of operation
    C. The digital readout will slowly flash “LO batt” when there is about 90 minutes of battery life left.
    D. The digital readout will rapidly flash “LO batt” when there is about 30 minutes of battery life left.

Answer 59

D

Question 60

15. If the gauge is slowly flashing “LO-batt” during a fire operation, the Control FF should know that the battery should be swapped? (Tools 36—5.3)
    A. As soon as possible and this requires water to be shutdown
    B. As soon as possible and this can be done with water flowing
    C. Within 30 minutes and this can be done with water flowing
    D. At the conclusion of the operation

Answer 60

D

A fully charged battery will supply approximately 5 hours of continuous operation. After
3.5 hours of usage, the digital readout will slowly flash “LO batt”. This is an indication
that approximately 90 minutes of battery life remains. If a slowly flashing
“LO batt” is displayed, the battery shall be swapped at the conclusion of the operation.
When 10 minutes of battery life remains, the digital readout will flash “LO batt” rapidly.
If a rapidly flashing “LO batt” is displayed the battery shall be swapped with the
replacement in the carry case as soon as possible. This can be done when water is flowing.

Question 61

16. Regarding inspection and maintenance of the Digital In-line gauge, it would be incorrect to state? (Tools 36—5.4, 5.6, 5.7, 7.1)
    A. The gauge should be inspected for damage and operability each tour
    B. The battery test feature should be pressed each tour to check battery condition. “Batt Good” indicates the battery is serviceable
    C. Batteries should be rotated and recharged weekly and after use
    D. A slowly blinking red color from a battery charger indicator indicates a battery is charging

Answer 61

D -

A slowly blinking red color indicates a defective
battery that must be replaced.
Photo

Question 62

17. Floor jacks have been issued to units to be used at a variety of operations including vehicle lift operations. Which point below is incorrect regarding these floor jacks? (Tools 37—1, 4.3, 5.1, 5.6)
    A. Their maximum capacity is 3 tons (6000 pounds)
    B. Their lifting height ranges from 3 ½ inches to 18 inches; Five pumps will achieve the maximum height.
    C. When lifting, the load must be centered on the jack saddle
    D. Use the floor jack when the vehicle is on a relatively flat, level surface
    E. During the lifting process, do not get under the vehicle until the vehicle has been cribbed

Answer 62

A -

Maximum Capacity 2 Tons (4000 pounds)

Question 63

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 23:
A Satellite Company arrives at a 3rd alarm fire in a commercial building and the IC orders the unit to set up their “Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor” on the exposure 3 side of the structure on fire.
18. While operating, the Satellite Officer would be incorrect to think that the? (Tools 38—4.1, 4.2, 4.3)
A. Maximum inlet pressure is 200 psi
B. Horizontal stream range when stationary is +/- 20 degrees either side of the centerline
C. Vertical stream range is 10 degrees above to 86 degrees above the horizontal
D. The flow control handle has 6 detented positions which regulate the flow of water (GPM)

Answer 63

A -

4.1 The Blitzfire is designed for a maximum inlet pressure of 175 psi. Do not exceed this
pressure.

Question 64

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 23:
A Satellite Company arrives at a 3rd alarm fire in a commercial building and the IC orders the unit to set up their “Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor” on the exposure 3 side of the structure on fire.

19. When utilizing the oscillating mechanism to have the stream sweep back and forth, it would be correct for the Officer to think that? (Tools 38—6.1-6.4)
20. A minimum pressure of 175 psi is required for proper oscillating operation
21. The oscillating feature can be used with the master stream fog nozzle or stacked smooth bore tips
22. The horizontal stream range can be set for a 20, 30, or 40 degree sweep
    A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1, 2, 3

Answer 64

C -

6.3 A minimum flow rate of 175 gpm is required for proper oscillating operation.

Question 65

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 23:
A Satellite Company arrives at a 3rd alarm fire in a commercial building and the IC orders the unit to set up their “Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor” on the exposure 3 side of the structure on fire.

20. When supplying the Blitzfire Monitor, it would be correct for the Officer to supply it with? (Tools 38—7.1)
    A. One 2 ½” supply line C. One 3 ½” supply line
    B. Two 2 ½” supply lines D. Two 3 ½” supply lines

Answer 65

A

7.1 The supply inlet of the Blitzfire monitor is 2 ½” and it should be supplied with one 2 ½”
supply line.

Question 66

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 23:
A Satellite Company arrives at a 3rd alarm fire in a commercial building and the IC orders the unit to set up their “Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor” on the exposure 3 side of the structure on fire.

21. The Officer now chooses to use the “Max-Force Dual Pressure Automatic Nozzle”. In this situation, he would be correct to think that this nozzle? (7.4—A, B, C, D)
    A. Has a maximum flow capacity of 600 gpm if supplied with 175 psi
    B. Adjusts from straight stream to a 130 degree wide fog
    C. Has a fog tip that may be switched between a 120 psi standard mode and a 75 psi low pressure mode
    D. Can be used to apply finished firefighting foam

Answer 66

D

The Max-Force Dual Pressure Automatic Nozzle has a maximum flow capacity of
500 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the inlet. - The pattern adjusts from straight stream (rotate the tip all the way to the right) to a
120° wide fog as you rotate the tip back to the left. - The fog tip may be switched between 100 psi standard mode and a low pressure
mode of 55 psi

Question 67

22. The IC now orders the Officer to go back to using the solid stream tips. In this case, the Officer would be incorrect to think that? (Tools 38—7.5—A, B, C, D)
    A. The Blitzfire has an integrated stream shaper. However, better reach will be achieved if a second stream shaper is attached to the solid stream tip
    B. The 1 ¼” solid stream tip will flow 490 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the monitor’s inlet
    C. The 1 ½” solid stream tip will flow 600 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the monitor’s inlet
    D. The 2” solid stream tip will flow 800 gpm when supplied with 175 psi at the monitor’s inlet and is the preferred tip when large volumes of water are required

Answer 67

D.

The 2” solid stream tip should not be used with the Blitzfire monitor due to poor
stream reach and stream break up.

Question 68

Use the following scenario to answer questions 18 - 23:
A Satellite Company arrives at a 3rd alarm fire in a commercial building and the IC orders the unit to set up their “Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor” on the exposure 3 side of the structure on fire.

23. The safest method of restraining the Blitzfire Monitor is to use? (Tools 38—8)
    A. Utility rope placed around the monitor and a substantial object
    B. The Tie Down Strap keeping the entire length of the strap as close to the ground as possible

Answer 68

B - 8.1 The safest method of restraining the Blitzfire monitor is to use the tie down strap.
8.2 A forward attachment point and a tie down strap are supplied with the Blitzfire. The loop
on the end of the strap may be placed over the anchor point or the strap may be wrapped
around an object and the snap hook end of the strap passed through the loop and pulled
tight. Keep the entire length of the strap as close to the ground as possible. Snap the
hook into the hole in the front of the Blitzfire.

Question 69

4. In regards to forwarding a Workplace Violence Report (WPV-1) to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator, it would be correct to state that? (PAID 1-11—10.4, 10.5, 11.1.1)
   A. A Supervisor receiving a WPV-1 or a verbal report from an employee should never forward it through the chain of command
   B. Employees may not under any circumstances submit the WPV-1 report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator as it must go through the chain of command.
   C. Employees may submit the WPV-1 report directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator only when circumstances create EEO concerns.
   D. A Supervisor receiving a WPV-1 or a verbal report from an employee shall ensure it is forwarded via the chain of command on an expedited basis

Answer 69

D -

11.1.1 Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal
report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the
Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. - 10.5.2 Employees may submit reports directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention
Coordinator if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns. - 10.4.1 If an employee reasonably believes in good faith that submitting a Workplace
Violence Prevention Report to a supervisor would not result in corrective action,
the employee may submit the Workplace Violence Report directly to the
Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator.