FO CLASS #5 - Week of 30319FFP–TP  Pgs 36 to end,Comm.Man,Ch.9Add1-4,T.B.–SCBA Add.5-9,Evolutions1&1A,PAIDS–1-77,1-84&4-89BC Chris Paolicelli Flashcards

1
Q
  1. From the following choices choose the incorrect statement about the Battalion Recorder System. (Add.1 3.2, 3.3, 8.3, 8.7)
    A. The HT recorder will record all HT transmissions on all channels except channel 9 in Zone A on both Models I and II of the XTS3500R handie-talkies.
    B. The HT recorder does not record the transmissions to or from the borough dispatcher.
    C. Copies of recordings shall be kept in a designated secure location in the company office when not in use.
    D. Company Officers shall never request recordings for an incident in which that Officer’s unit did not operate.
A

D
8.3 It would be unusual for an Officer to request recordings for an incident at which that Officer’s unit did not operate. Any such request will be considered by the Bureau of Operations, but will be granted only if there are valid reasons justifying such request.

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2
Q
2. Requests for HT recordings of incidents involving serious injuries, fatalities or high profile incidents will be made available only at the direction of whom? (Add.1 8.7)
A. The Chief of Safety
B. The Chief of Fire Investigation
C. The Chief of Operations
D. The Chief of Communications
A

C

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3
Q
  1. Company Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on how many of the following channels? (Add.1 8.2)
    1) Primary Tactical Channel
    2) Secondary Tactical Channel
    3) Primary Command Channel
    4) Secondary Command Channel
    5) HT Channel 16
    A. 5
    B. 4
    C. 3
    D. 2
A

D (1 & 2)
Company Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on the Primary and Secondary Tactical channels. Chief Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on any of the available channels.

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4
Q
  1. BC Question - Chief Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on which of the following channels? (Add.1 8.2)
    A. Any available channels
    B. Tactical and Command Channels only
    C. Tactical, Command and Channel 16 only
    D. All channels other than repeater channels (11, 12, 14 and 15)
A

A
Company Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on the Primary and Secondary Tactical channels. Chief Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on any of the available channels.

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5
Q
5. Conducting an emergency roll call to account for members is a difficult and time consuming operation. The Bureau of Operations mandates training roll calls to be conducted how often? (Add.2 1.3)
A. Annually
B. Semi- Annually
C. Quarterly
D. Monthly
A

C

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6
Q
  1. Which one of the following choices states the correct way for a company officer to respond when called by the Roll Call Officer during an emergency roll call? (Add.2 1.4)
    A. State the number of firefighters they responded with and account only for the members within sight or hearing without using the HT.
    B. State the number of firefighters they started the tour with and account only for the members within sight or hearing without using the HT.
    C. State the number of firefighters they responded with and account only for the members within immediate supervision.
    D. State the number of firefighters they responded with and account for all members of their company.
A

A
For this reason, all officers of all companies will answer when called by the Roll Call Officer (RCO), stating the number of firefighters they responded with and accounting only for the members within sight or hearing without using the HT.

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7
Q
  1. At a recent multiple alarm fire, an emergency roll call was conducted after units were ordered to withdraw from the fire building. The following responses were made to the Roll Call Officer. Which response was given incorrectly? (Add.2 1.5)
    A. “Rescue 8 to RCO, we have 5 firefighters and my LCC, Irons and Can are accounted for.”
    B. “Squad 10 to RCO, we have 5 firefighters and my Can and Irons are accounted for.”
    C. “Ladder 99 to RCO, we have 5 firefighters and my Can and Irons are accounted for.”
    D. “Engine 200 to RCO, we have 4 firefighters and my Nozzle and Backup are accounted
    for.”
A

B

Squad company firefighters will answer a roll call as per engine company position assignment e.g., Nozzle, Back-up.

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8
Q
  1. Lt. Jones has been ordered by the IC at a collapse operation to conduct an Emergency Roll Call of all units at the scene. In order to obtain an updated list of all companies on scene, Lt. Jones should go to any apparatus MDT and take which of the following steps below? (Add.2 4.1)
    A. Press “Print, Incident Summary, Send, Next”
    B. Press “Incident History, Send, Next, Print”
    C. Press “Incident Summary, Send, Next, Print”
    D. Press “Send, Incident History, Next, Print”
A

C
 Press the “Incident Summary” button - A blank form will appear requesting several pieces of information e.g., date, box. This information does not need to be entered.
 Press “Send” - This will automatically default the report to the box the unit is currently assigned to. The MDT will indicate a message is waiting.
 Press “Next” to retrieve the rundown of units.
 Press “Print” for the MDT to print the rundown.

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9
Q
  1. Pre-printed Emergency Roll Call forms will help keep track of companies and members as they reply to the roll call. These forms can be found on which apparatus? (Add.2 4.3)
    A. All Battalion and Division vehicles
    B. Battalion vehicles only
    C. Division vehicles only
    D. All Engines, Ladders, Battalion and Division vehicles
A

A
4.3 Every Battalion and Division vehicle has a pad of pre-printed Emergency Roll Call forms. These preprinted forms will help keep track of companies and members as they reply to the roll call.

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10
Q
  1. Captain Degrom, who has been assigned as the Roll Call Officer (RCO) by the IC at a 2nd alarm fire, should know that which point below is incorrect regarding emergency roll calls? (Add.2 4.4, 4.6)
    A. The RCO and the member assisting and filling out the pre-printed form should be in an area close to the Command Post, allowing immediate notification to the IC if needed.
    B. Each incident will determine which companies should be called first when the emergency roll call is being conducted.
    C. If weather is an issue, the RCO and assisting member will have to take a position in a dry area, such as an apparatus cab or Battalion vehicle.
    D. After receiving a reply from the company officer, the RCO will then call the remaining members of that company.
A

A
4.4 The RCO and the member assisting and filling out the pre-printed form, should be in an area away from the Command Post. This will reduce radio feedback, thereby putting the roll call team in a better position to hear and talk over the HT roll call frequency.

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11
Q
  1. You have been assigned as the RCO at a 2nd alarm fire in a brownstone. When you attempt to contact the 1st arriving Engine Officer there is no response. Which one of the following members should you attempt to contact next? (Add.2 4.10)
    A. The FAST Unit Officer
    B. The IC to begin missing member procedures
    C. The 1st arriving Ladder Officer, operating in the same area
    D. The Control firefighter operating on the floor below
A

C
4.10 If a company officer does not answer when called, the RCO will either call a firefighter
operating with that officer or call another company operating in the immediate area of
that officer, in an attempt to locate them.

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12
Q
  1. While working in Ladder 100 on a 9x6 tour your Roof firefighter must take Emergency Leave at 1030 hours. At 1100 hours you respond 2nd due to a 10-75 in a 6 story H-Type. During the fire there is a collapse and an emergency roll call is conducted. When called by the RCO, how should you respond? (Add.2 5.4)
    A. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 has 5 firefighters, my Inside team is accounted for.”
    B. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 began the tour with 5 firefighters, my Can and Irons are accounted for.”
    C. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without a Roof FF, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
    D. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 has 4 firefighters, my Can and Iron firefighters are accounted for.”
A

C
12. While working in Ladder 100 on a 9x6 tour your Roof firefighter must take Emergency Leave at 1030 hours. At 1100 hours you respond 2nd due to a 10-75 in a 6 story H-Type. During the fire there is a collapse and an emergency roll call is conducted. When called by the RCO, how should you respond? (Add.2 5.4)
A. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 has 5 firefighters, my Inside team is accounted for.”
B. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 began the tour with 5 firefighters, my Can and Irons are accounted for.”
C. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 has 4 firefighters, we are riding without a Roof FF, my Can and Irons firefighters are accounted for.”
D. “L-100 to RCO, L-100 has 4 firefighters, my Can and Iron firefighters are accounted for.”

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13
Q
  1. It is imperative that members maintain radio discipline when an Emergency Roll Call is in progress. Members should not transmit messages over the HT unless certain situations arise. Which one of the following transmissions should not be made during an Emergency Roll Call? (Add.2 5.1)
    A. A ladder officer responds to the Roll Call Officer
    B. A firefighter transmits an Urgent message after finding extension in Exposure 2.
    C. A firefighter from the 2nd due ladder transmits that he has located a missing member.
    D. An engine officer requests that the ECC shuts down their hoseline.
A

D
5.1 Follow the directions included in the Mayday/Urgent transmission. Maintain radio
discipline. Do not transmit the following, unless:
 Called by the RCO
 You have to transmit a Mayday/Urgent of your own
 You have critical information affecting the Mayday/Urgent
 You have critical information regarding the on-going operation

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14
Q
  1. The Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) is installed on the MDT of all Battalion and Division vehicles. Choose an incorrect choice regarding the EFAS system. (Add.3 1.1, 1.3)
    A. It will immediately identify any member activating the Emergency Alert Button on their HT by displaying their company, position and name.
    B. The EFAS can replace the use of the Roll Call procedures by a Roll Call Officer using the Emergency Roll Call function.
    C. The EFAS can be used to track the HT transmission history of an operation.
    D. The EFAS firefighter can manually identify any member transmitting a Mayday via HT who was unable to activate the Emergency Alert Button.
A

B
EFAS does not replace the use of roll call procedures currently established and
outlined in Communications Manual Chapter 9, Addendum 2.

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15
Q
  1. The officer of Ladder 1 is drilling with his members on FAST Unit operations when the EFAS is discussed. From the following points made, which one was incorrect? (Add.3 3.1)
    A. Officers arriving at an incident, after transmitting their 10-84, must key their HT remote microphone three times in order to “check in”. Keying the HT microphone will have all members of the unit recognized by the EFAS.
    B. EFAS starts up on the MDT when the vehicle ignition is turned on. There is a one-minute start up delay to allow Starfire to connect. Do not attempt to select EFAS during this time.
    C. EFAS may capture routine transmissions during the course of the tour. In the event an emergency response is received, it may be desirable to clear the EFAS of all previously listed transmissions.
    D. When viewing the EFAS screen, units arriving on scene, and pressing the 10-84 will not cause the Battalion or Division MDT screen to automatically switch back to Starfire.
A

A
3.1.4 Officers arriving at an incident, after they have transmitted their 10-84 via the
MDT, must key their HT remote microphone once in order to “check in”. Keying
the HT remote microphone will have all members of the unit recognized by
EFAS.

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16
Q
  1. When a member activates their Emergency Alert Button, their identity line in the EFAS will automatically be highlighted in red in both the “Radio Status” and “Mayday” areas. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing what information? (Add.3 5.1.2)
    A. The member’s name, company and position
    B. The member’s name, company and time of Mayday
    C. The member’s company, position and time of Mayday
    D. The member’s company, time of Mayday and HT channel operating on
A

C
5.1.2 In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing the company, position and
time of Mayday. (Figure 7)

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17
Q
  1. Battalion Chief Green is conducting an EFAS drill with his companies at MUD. The Chief made the following statements. In which was he incorrect? (Add.3 1.4, 5.1.4, 6.1,)
    A. The EFAS is connected to Starfire, units assigned on the response ticket will be displayed as “Assigned Units”.
    B. EFAS has the capability of monitoring all HT channels other than the duplex channels (11, 12, 14 and 15).
    C. EFAS has the capability of handling multiple Emergency transmissions at the same time.
    D. Active “MAYDAYS” will appear in red in both the “Radio Status” and “MAYDAYS” area.
A

B
6.1 EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the 16
Channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels. However, it can only monitor one
channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in
conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use e.g.,
primary tactical, secondary tactical, primary command.

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18
Q
  1. A Lieutenant working at a multiple alarm fire in taxpayer where a collapse has occurred in Exposure 04B has been ordered by the IC to conduct an Electronic Roll Call via the EFAS system. The Lieutenant would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions? (Add.3 7.1.1, 7.1.2, 7.1.5)
    A. She instructed all units to prepare for an electronic Roll Call.
    B. She selected “BEGIN ROLL CALL” on the top of the EFAS screen.
    C. She instructed all members to fully depress and release their handie-talkie remote microphone 3 times when called.
    D. She began the Roll Call by contacting the 1st arriving units according to the response ticket.
A

D
7.1.5 The Chief or company officer conducting the Roll Call shall begin by contacting
the most severely exposed unit, sector or group i.e.: “All members of Engine 75
fully depress and release your handie-talkie remote microphone 3 times.” If a unit
by unit Roll Call is not feasible, the IC can vary from this procedure.

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19
Q
  1. BC Question - Portable EFAS tablets with attached HT radios have been issued to all Battalions. This allows the IC the ability to monitor EFAS from the early stages of an incident at the location where the Battalion is operating. Which statement below is incorrect regarding this device? (9.2, 9.3, 9.6)
    A. The IC can remove the tablet and radio from the Battalion vehicle and bring it to the command Post.
    B. The Battalion Firefighter can monitor the portable EFAS at the Command Post in lieu of the vehicle EFAS until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit. The FAST Unit member will still monitor the EFAS in a Battalion Vehicle.
    C. The Portable EFAS is removable from the yellow pelican case it is carried in.
    D. Chief Officers shall bring their Portable EFAS when assigned to a Branch/Sector/Group for better accountability of units operating in those areas.
A

B
9.3 The Portable EFAS does not replace the current procedures where EFAS is monitored in
the Battalion Vehicle by the Battalion Firefighter after performing his/her primary duties,
until relieved by an EFAS trained member of the FAST Unit.

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20
Q
1. When a member believes he or she has been a victim of or has witnessed discrimination, harassment (sexual or any other), intimidation, or retaliation, the member may file a complaint with the FDNY EEO officer within \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_from the date the alleged discrimination or harassment has occurred. (PA/ID 1-77 5.5)
A. One month
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
A

C
5.5 A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department’s EEO Officer within one (1) year
from the date the alleged discrimination or harassment occurred.

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21
Q
2. Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly to whom? (PA-ID 1-77 5.4)
A. BITS
B. The Inspector General
C. The Chief of Operations
D. The Fire Commissioner
A

A
5.4 Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly with the Fire Department’s Bureau of
Investigations and Trials at 9 MetroTech Center, Room 4E-6, Brooklyn, New York
11201, telephone number (718) 999-2646.

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22
Q
  1. You are the company officer working in Engine 400 on a Tuesday 9x6 tour when a firefighter informs you that they would like to file an EEO complaint. You take the following steps.
    1) You advise the member of their available filing options.
    2) You call FDOC to speak with the EEO Officer
    3) Since the member voluntarily provided you with information regarding the alleged incident, you complete the Confidential EEO Incident Report and submit it through the chain of command to the EEO Officer.
    4) You place a copy of the EEO Incident Report in the member’s personal folder.
    5) You did not take a mark in the Company Journal regarding the complaint.
    In how many actions were you correct?
    A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
A

A (1 & 5)
Upon completion, the Confidential EEO Incident Report shall be submitted DIRECTLY
to the EEO Officer in a sealed envelope marked “Confidential” without intermediate
endorsement. No copies of the Confidential EEO Incident Report shall be retained by the
Officer/Supervisor.
6.2.2 For incidents that effect operations, the Officer/Supervisor shall contact the EEO
Officer during office hours at (718) 999-1447 between 0800 to 1800 hours,
Monday to Friday. During non-office hours, the EEO Officer can be reached
through the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) at (718) 999-7900.

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23
Q
4. During a 9x6 tour a firefighter approaches you, the company officer, and states that they would like to meet privately with an EEO officer immediately. You are concerned that if the firefighter leaves quarters to meet with the EEO Officer, the company will not be fully staffed causing operational concerns. In this situation, you should contact whom to determine if the firefighter should be granted the leave? (PA/ID 1-77 7.2)
A. The Battalion Chief
B. The Division Chief
C. The EEO Office
D. FDOC
A

C
Officer/Supervisor shall allow
members to meet with an EEO Office representative at the earliest practicable time
consistent with the operational needs of their units. Concerns about the above should be
immediately addressed to the EEO Office.

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24
Q
  1. EEO Counselors responsibilities include all of the following except? (PA/ID 1-77 9.2)
    A. Providing guidance on FDNY EEO policy
    B. Providing guidance on alternative dispute resolution options
    C. Providing guidance on EEO processes and procedures
    D. Handling “Potential Claims” without alerting the EEO Office.
A

D
9.3.1 EEO Counselors shall provide guidance on the FDNY EEO Policy.
9.3.2 EEO Counselors shall provide general guidance on EEO processes and procedures.
9.3.3 EEO Counselors shall provide guidance on available alternative dispute
resolution option, such as mediation.

25
Q
  1. Regarding the use of EEO Counselors, it would be incorrect for members to believe which statement? (PA/ID 1-77 9.2.1, 9.4.6, 9.5)
    A. Members are required to contact the EEO Counselor designated for their assigned area.
    B. Counselors are not permitted to interrogate any individual involved in a potential claim.
    C. Inquiries may be made anonymously
    D. Counselors, under the direction of an EEO Officer, may provide assistance in resolving disputes
A

A
9.2.1 Employees who wish to make an EEO inquiry or complaint to an EEO Counselor
are encouraged, but not required, to contact the EEO Counselor designated for their
assigned area.

26
Q
7. All members of the FDNY may voluntarily refer themselves to the Counseling Services Unit (CSU) for assistance and will be offered one voluntary referral about which CSU will divulge no information regarding the member’s participation in treatment. If a member with a previous voluntary referral seeks assistance for a second time within a \_\_\_\_\_\_ period, the employee must execute a release of information to their commanding officer. (PA/ID 1-84 2.7, 2.8)
A. 1 year
B. 2 year
C. 3 year
D. 4 year
A

C
2.8.2 An individual with a previous voluntary referral seeks assistance for a second time
within a three (3) year period. In order to receive treatment, the employee must
execute a release of information for the commanding officer concerned or the
Commissioner’s designee, depending upon the specific facts of each situation.

27
Q
8. If an officer believes that a member is exhibiting abnormal behavior, a referral should be made to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, documenting the dates, times and places of such behavior as well as the names of any witnesses. (PA/ID 1-84 5.2)
A. The Chief Medical Officer
B. The Administrative Division Commander
C. The Borough Commander
D. The Chief of Operations
A

A

28
Q
  1. Which choice below shows a correct understanding of the FDNY Bereavement Leave policy? (PA/ID 4-89 2.1, 2.5, 2.6, 2.7)
    A. Bereavement Leave of not more than two 15-hour tours and one 9-hour tour may be granted by a Deputy Chief.
    B. Bereavement Leave will begin at the beginning of the member’s next scheduled tour following the time of death.
    C. Bereavement Leave may not be less than 4 calendar days.
    D. When Bereavement leave is granted, the officer on duty in the member’s unit must prepare a report in triplicate to the Bureau of Personnel.
A

C
2.1 Bereavement Leave of not more than two 15-hours tours or two 9-hour tours and one
15-hour tour may be granted by the Deputy Chief to a member in case of:
2.7 Bereavement Leave will begin at 0900 hours following time of death.
When Bereavement Leave is granted, the officer on duty in the member’s unit must
prepare a report (in duplicate) to the Bureau of Personnel including:

29
Q
  1. Bereavement Leave should be granted in how many of the following instances? (PA/ID 4-89 2.1)
    1) Death of a member’s parent, sibling or child (Natural, adoptive, step or foster)
    2) Death a member’s sister in-law
    3) Death of members aunt, who lives in the member’s house
    4) Death of a members grandparent (Natural or adoptive)
    5) Death of a member’s father in-law.
    A. 5
    B. 4
    C. 3
    D. 2
A

C(1, 3 & 5)

  1. 1.1 Death in the member’s immediate family.
  2. 1.2 Death of member’s domestic partner.
  3. 1.3 Death in immediate family of member’s spouse or domestic partner.
30
Q
  1. When cleaning and disinfecting the SCBA Regulator, all of the following steps should be taken except for which one? (Add. 5 1.2, 1.3 1.4, 1.5)
    A. Remove the breathing regulator from the facepiece by rotating the regulator ¼ turn clockwise.
    B. Remove any obvious dirt from the external surfaces of the regulator using 70% Isopropyl Alcohol with a sponge or soft cloth.
    C. If excessive dirt or soil is present, return the entire SCBA to the Mask Service Unit.
    D. Spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of the 70% Isopropyl Alcohol to the regulator surface, exhalation port and spray bar ports. Allow for 10 minutes of contact time to disinfect prior to rinsing.
A

D
Note: Alcohol and water should only be applied to the regulator surface and exhalation
port. Alcohol and water should not be directed into the spray bar ports.

31
Q
  1. A firefighter from your unit has approached you about obtaining a corrective lenses spectacle kit for use with the SCBA. You tell him the following statements. In which one were you incorrect? (Add. 7 3.1, 3.3)
    A. Members may wear contact lenses with the Scott SCBA facepieces.
    B. The member requesting the spectacle kit is responsible for completing a Spectacle Kit/ Corrective Lens Request form (MSU-1).
    C. Members shall submit a corrective lens prescription that is less than one (1) year old and contains their pupillary distance measurement. If the member is required to be examined by a physician or optometrist, the member may be excused for one 9x6 tour to visit the doctor.
    D. Once received, the completed spectacle kit shall be left inserted into the appropriate mask.
A

C
If the member is required to be examined by a physician or an
optometrist, the examination shall take place on the member’s own time.

32
Q
  1. The Pak-Tracker Firefighter Locator System is a distress alarm system designed to help identify and locate members in distress. The maximum range from an SCBA’s transmitter to a Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately _______ feet line of sight. (Add.8 2.1)
    A. 500 B. 750 C. 900 D. 1000
A

C

33
Q
  1. Units at MUD are discussing the use of the Pak-Tracker. Of the following comments made, which was stated incorrectly? (Add.8 3.1, 4.1, 4.1.1)
    A. The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is rated intrinsically safe and can be used in both potentially flammable and explosive atmospheres.
    B. The FAST Unit, rescue and squad companies shall bring Pak-Trackers to the Incident Command Post.
    C. A member of the FAST unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak-Tracker’s will remain at the command post, as a backup should the FAST unit be deployed.
    D. Unlike EFAS, the Pak-Tracker does not possess the ability to be updated when a spare mask is put in service.
A

A
3.1 The Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is not suitable for use in potentially flammable or
explosive atmospheres. Always check for the presence of a flammable or explosive
atmosphere before entering an unknown environment with the Pak-Tracker.

34
Q
  1. Ladder Company 500 has been assigned as the FAST Truck for a fire in a one-story taxpayer. Upon arrival at the scene, the members of this company should take all but which one of the following actions? (Add.8 4.2, 4.3)
    A. Have a member other than the member monitoring the EFAS monitor the Pak-Tracker.
    B. Ensure the FAST Unit’s Pak-Tracker is set to the “Tracking” setting, allowing it to capture both the initial and subsequent PASS alarm activations.
    C. If the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, the FAST member monitoring the Pak-Tracker shall immediately notify their company officer with the identity on the LCD screen (The member’s unit and assignment).
    D. If an alarm signal is received, the FAST Unit Officer shall attempt to contact the member to determine whether the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation.
A

B
This specific Pak-
Tracker must remain in the monitoring mode near the FAST unit’s assigned
position; this allows the Pak-tracker to capture both the initial and subsequent PASS
alarm activations and ensures continuous monitoring for distress signals.

35
Q
  1. Captain Adams and her ladder company are discussing the basic operations of the Pak-Tracker during a morning roll call. Which statement made during the roll call was incorrect? (Add. 8 5.1, 5.2 5.3, 5.4)
    A. To turn the Pak-Tracker receiver on, press and hold both the “Enter” and the “Scroll” buttons at the same time.
    B. When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full alarm for 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the screen will display the SCBA’s identity.
    C. The Pak-Tracker can receive and store up to 36 SCBA identities however the display screen is only large enough to display two lines of information.
    D. It is important to understand that a Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto the two SCBA identities shown on the LCD display screen. If additional PASS alarms are activated a separate Pak-Tracker will be needed to track the signal.
A

D
It is important to understand that a Pak-Tracker receiver can only
lock onto one SCBA at a time.

36
Q
7. An SCBA signal will pass through some building materials, but will not penetrate through other materials. Of the following, which one will the signal not penetrate through? (Add. 8 7.10)
A. Brick
B. Wood
C. Light building materials
D. Glass
A

A
7.10 An SCBA signal will pass through some materials, but will not penetrate through other
materials.
The signal from the SCBA to the Pak-Tracker will usually pass through:
 Glass
 Light building materials
 Openings such as gaps, holes, stairways, windows, or elevator shafts
 Wood
The signal will reflect and/or not penetrate through:
 Metal, including structural framework
 Large metal objects
 Concrete walls or floors
 Brick or concrete block construction
Note: The signal will attempt to pass around these objects.

37
Q
  1. The helmet, hood and SCBA facepiece function as an ensemble that is designed to encapsulate and protect a member’s head, neck, face and airway from burns and falling debris. The importance of properly donning this equipment cannot be overstated. A firefighter donning his gear took the following steps. How many steps were taken correctly? (Add.9)
    1) He adjusted the free end of the helmet chinstrap so there was just enough to grab with a gloved hand (approximately 1 inch).
    2) He held the regulator assembly in his left hand with the left thumb on the purge valve.
    3) With the head net on the inside, he brought the facepiece up to his face, then grabbed the helmet brim with his right hand and removed the helmet over the facepiece and left hand.
    4) The chinstrap passed over the facepiece and left hand to rest on the left forearm while the head net was grabbed with the right hand and pulled over his head.
    5) With both hands he tightened the facepiece against his face by pulling the two top straps and then the two bottom straps evenly straight back.
    6) He then inhaled sharply to activate the regulator’s inhalation valve, and after confirming no leaking air, he used both hands to pull the Nomex hood over the head net and frame of the facepiece lens.
    7) Finally, he placed his left hand back on the regulator with the left thumb on the purge valve and grabbed the helmet with his right hand to return it to his head.
    A. 7
    B. 6
    C. 5
    D. 4
A

B (1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7)
2.7 With both hands, tighten the facepiece against the face by pulling the two bottom straps
and then the two top straps evenly straight back.

38
Q
  1. During a recent Division Conference Battalion Chiefs were discussing recent taxpayer fires with the Deputy. Which one of the following statements made was not stated correctly? (5.7.4, 5.7.5, 5.7.8)
    A. At a minimum, at least two portable ladders shall be placed on the front of the buildings.
    B. When two handlines are operating on an advanced fire in a store, special call an extra engine and ladder.
    C. Transmit a second alarm for extension to the cockloft, adjoining occupancy or for an advanced fire in the cellar.
    D. At all confirmed taxpayer fires, if a tower ladder is not assigned on the initial response, special call one.
A

D
5.7.5 If a tower ladder is not assigned on the initial response, and its use is anticipated,
special call one. When a taxpayer faces more than one street, consider the need
for one on each street.

39
Q
  1. A fire in a taxpayer is usually a fast-spreading and difficult fire to control and extinguish. It calls for many handlines stretched quickly to proper locations to prevent a large loss. Which engine tactic listed below is incorrect according to the Taxpayer bulletin? (7.1.2, 7.1.3, 7.1.4, 7.1.7)
    A. At all taxpayer fires the initial lines should be 2 1/2”.
    B. Supplying the sprinkler system is to be given a high priority after the establishment of the initial line.
    C. When compatible with fire conditions, 1 ¾” lines may be used in exposures.
    D. For a fire that is traveling rapidly along a row of stores, it may be best to skip stores and stretch lines into alternate stores ahead of the fire.
A

A
7.1.2 When heavy or medium fire conditions are encountered the initial lines should be
2-1/2 inch.

40
Q

Answer Questions 3 - 5 based on the following scenario:
Units arrive at the scene of a fire in the cockloft of a taxpayer. The 1st arriving engine transmits a 10-75 and the following CIDS information is printed on the response ticket:
Commercial 1 STY 100X100 CL3
Taxpayer with 5 occupancies
L/W open web steel joist roof-
Spkr thruout-cellar ent in each occupancy
3. At this fire which engine company is responsible to ensure that the sprinkler system is supplied? (7.3.5 A)
A. 1st engine company
B. 2nd engine company
C. 3rd engine company
D. 4th engine company

A

C
Third engine company: - Ensure sprinkler system is supplied. Stretch a
line and operate as ordered by the Incident Commander.

41
Q

Answer Questions 3 - 5 based on the following scenario:
Units arrive at the scene of a fire in the cockloft of a taxpayer. The 1st arriving engine transmits a 10-75 and the following CIDS information is printed on the response ticket:

  1. The 1st arriving ladder would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions? (5.5.26 E, 8.3.3)
    A. The Forcible Entry Team forced entry into the fire occupancy, located the fire and performed a search.
    B. The Roof firefighter placed a portable ladder to the roof, brought a portable saw to the roof and cut an 8’ x 8’ hole for ventilation.
    C. The OV firefighter provided ventilation in the rear after communicating with the ladder officer.
    D. The LCC placed the aerial ladder away from the immediate fire building then proceeded to the roof to assist the roof firefighter.
A

B
E. Roofs of fire buildings with this type of roof support system must not be cut.
F. Vertical ventilation should be limited to removal of skylights and scuttle
covers if present.

42
Q

Answer Questions 3 - 5 based on the following scenario:
Units arrive at the scene of a fire in the cockloft of a taxpayer. The 1st arriving engine transmits a 10-75 and the following CIDS information is printed on the response ticket:

  1. Unless otherwise directed, the 2nd LCC after positioning the apparatus should report to which one of the following locations? (8.3.3 B)
    A. Join the forcible entry team from his unit.
    B. Assist the roof firefighters with ventilation.
    C. The cellar of the fire building to shut the utilities.
    D. The rear of the fire building to assist the OV firefighters with VEIS of the fire building.
A

A

43
Q
  1. Engine 227 arrives first for a fire in a one-story taxpayer. The officer instructs the members to perform a Backstretch of the company’s 2 ½” hose. The members of this company would be correct to take all but which one of the following actions? (Evolution 1 3.1, 3.2, 4.1, 4.4)
    A. The ECC stopped the pumper in the vicinity of the fire building so as not to impede the positioning of a truck company.
    B. One member mounted the rear step of the apparatus, placed his arm through the first 3 folds of hose, stepped down and walked backward, dragging the hose.
    C. The firefighter laid the hose on the ground about 5 feet from the apparatus and slightly to the side in the direction of the stretch.
    D. A second firefighter laid the next three folds directly to the rear of the apparatus and a third firefighter laid the next three folds slightly to the side away from the direction of the stretch.
A

B
Firefighter lays hose
on ground about 15 feet from apparatus and slightly to side in direction of stretch.

44
Q
7. Units are operating at an advanced fire in the cellar of a taxpayer. Which engine company has the responsibility to ensure that the sprinkler system is supplied at this fire? (7.2.3 C)
A. 1st engine company
B. 2nd engine company
C. 3rd engine company
D. 4th engine company
A

C

45
Q
  1. At 1000 hours a 10-75 is transmitted for a fire on the 1st floor of an occupied one-story taxpayer. The fire occupancy is a shoe store with an entrance door and two large showcase windows facing the street. The first arriving engines took the following actions. In which one were they incorrect? (7.3.1)
    A. The 1st engine stretched a 2 ½” line through the front door to protect the fleeing occupants and extinguish the fire.
    B. The 2nd line was stretched into the fire occupancy.
    C. An additional line was stretched to the roof to protect personnel and exposures once the roof was opened.
    D. Hoselines were made available to operate Stang nozzles and tower ladder streams.
A

A
At taxpayer fires during business hours, there may be major life hazards.
The first arriving engines must position their lines if possible, between the
people and the fire. Break the store front windows for line advancement
and leave the exit doors free for the people to use.

46
Q
  1. Queens units are drilling at the site of a recent multiple alarm in a taxpayer in which the first arriving engine used in-line pumping (ILP) upon arrival. Which statement made about in-line pumping was correct? (Evolution 1A Notes)
    A. The hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 4” or larger main.
    B. Not more than 8 lengths of 3 ½” hose shall be used in the initial supply line.
    C. The ECC of the IP should have the water supply augmented when the intake pressure drops below 20 psi.
    D. Two buzzer tones shall be sent from the back step buzzer when the hose firefighter is in position and the pumper is ready to proceed.
A

D
2. Hydrant selected for ILP must be on a 6” or larger main. During Water Alert, ILP shall
not be used unless absolutely necessary.
4. Not more than 6 lengths of hose shall be used in the initial supply line.
When intake pressure drops below 15 psi, the pump operator shall have his intake supply
augmented. (See section 3.8)

47
Q
  1. Choose the incorrect choice regarding cockloft fires in taxpayers. (7.3.3)
    A. The roof should be ventilated to control the fire spread and permit units to advance into occupancies.
    B. Ceilings shall be pulled in occupancies to expose fire and define the extent of the fire.
    C. It is generally a good practice to operate roof handlines into roof openings to confine and extinguish advanced cockloft fires.
    D. On older type taxpayers there may be vents or store signs attached to the front of the building covering openings into the cockloft. Streams can be directed into these openings to effect extinguishment.
A

C
Operate hoselines directly into roof openings. This generally is not a good
practice but in some cases may be the only way of hitting the fire and
controlling it.

48
Q
11. FDNY units arriving at a late night taxpayer fire find heavy fire in the cockloft of the middle occupancy, a closed pizzeria, of 5 occupancies. Ladder members report slight extension into exposure O2, an occupied Dunkin Donuts and heavy extension into exposure O4, a closed jewelry store. At this fire where should the 1st engine stretch their handline? (7.3.5 B)
A. Into the pizzeria
B. Into the Dunkin Donuts
C. Into the jewelry store
D. To the sprinkler system
A

B
Stretch a handline into the most seriously exposed
occupancy/building, depending on life hazard and the location and
severity of the fire.

49
Q
  1. When fire has control of the cockloft and the need for exposure protection is critical, what should be the 2nd arriving engines first priority? (7.3.5 B)
    A. Assist the first engine with the first line
    B. Stretch a line into a seriously exposed structure/ occupancy and operate into the cockloft
    C. Supply the sprinkler system
    D. Stretch a line to the roof to protect operating members
A

A
Second engine company: - When fire has control of the cockloft, and the
need for exposure protection is critical, assist first engine with initial line.
When staffing and conditions permit, stretch a line into another seriously
exposed building/occupancy and operate into the cockloft to confine and
extinguish the fire. It may be advisable to skip stores in order to confine a
cockloft fire.

50
Q
13. At taxpayer fires tower ladders should be positioned in front of the building in preference to conventional aerials. The basket of the TL can be positioned \_\_\_\_\_-\_\_\_\_\_ feet above the street level and the TL stream can be directed into the store or stores. (8.1.20)
A. 1 - 2
B. 2 - 3
C. 4 - 5
D. 5 - 6
A

A

51
Q
14. Of the following choices, which is responsible for shutting the utilities at taxpayer fires? (8.2.2 A, 8.3.3 A)
A. 1st LCC
B. 2nd LCC
C. 1st Forcible entry team
D. 2nd forcible entry team
A

C

52
Q
  1. A tower ladder arriving first at a taxpayer cellar fire would be correct to take all but which one action below? (8.2.2 A)
    A. The forcible entry team performed a search of the store and ventilated the store windows.
    B. The Roof firefighter placed a portable ladder to the roof and vented the skylights and scuttle after communicating with the 1st ladder officer.
    C. The OV firefighter vented the rear of the store and conducted searches of the 1st floor after teaming up with the 2nd OV.
    D. The LCC placed the apparatus in front of the building, then joined the Roof FF to assist with roof ventilation.
A

D

Join the forcible entry team, if not directed otherwise.

53
Q
  1. Where do most taxpayer fires originate? (8.3.1 A)
    A. In the cellar area, near the utilities.
    B. In the store at street level, in storage or utility areas.
    C. In the cockloft area, usually due to faulty electrical equipment.
    D. On the roof in HVAC systems
A

B
Most taxpayer fires originate in the store occupancy at street level. The
occupancy usually consists of a sales area, a storage area and a utility area.
Fires in these premises generally originate in the storage or utility area,
which in most occupancies are in the rearmost portion of the building.

54
Q
  1. A Lieutenant drilling with his members on store fires in taxpayers stated the following points. Which was stated incorrectly? (8.3.1)
    A. All areas must be searched for removal of the occupants with particular attention given to the rear and main selling areas.
    B. The cellar, rear or mezzanine areas may contain accommodations for the employees of the store to rest.
    C. The probing of the ceiling area with a hook upon entering will give some indication of conditions in the cockloft.
    D. Ventilation of the store at the front by removal of show windows shall be done if ordered by the ladder company officer in the fire area.
A

D
Ventilation of the store at the front by the removal of show window shall
be done if ordered by the Incident Commander.

55
Q
18. Of the following members listed which one should not operate on the roof at a cockloft fire? (8.3.3)
A. 1st LCC
B. 1st OV FF
C. 2nd OV FF
D. 2nd Roof FF
A

B
1st due Outside Vent Firefighter (OV)
a. Check the rear for access.
b. After communicating and coordinating with Ladder officer
in the area to be vented, provide ventilation at the rear.
c. When access in the rear is available, attempt entry when
teamed with the 2nd Ladder OV (or another available
member). Notify the company officer, and conduct
searches.

56
Q
  1. Which choice correctly shows the tools the OV should operate with at taxpayer fires? (8.4.3 B)
    A. The halligan and a maul
    B. The halligan and a maul or flat head axe
    C. The halligan and a pike head axe
    D. The halligan and a six-foot hook
A

A
Obstructions which may be encountered in the rear are doors
sealed with wood or metal and bricked up windows. The tools
taken must be commensurate with goals. The maul and halligan
are required. A hook, pike head or flat head ax will be inadequate
in this situation.

57
Q
  1. A Captain discussing the different tools that may be required at taxpayer fires would be correct to state all but which one of the following statements? (8.4.3, 8.4.4)
    A. The maul and duckbill lockbreaker maybe required for some padlocks.
    B. The Bam-Bam tool and screwdriver set is effective on brass cylinders but not on case hardened locks.
    C. All trucks should report in with 10 and 12 foot hooks in addition to their normal tool compliment.
    D. When a member going to the roof is carrying the saw, a hook must also be taken. Members going to the roof subsequently should bring an ax or iron with the saw if available.
A

C
Truck companies, OTHER THAN first or second arriving on
the initial alarm, should report in with their 10 and 12 foot hooks besides their
normal tool complement. The hooks will be used by them or other personnel on
the scene.

58
Q
  1. A fire originating on the second floor of a two-story taxpayer may be treated as a fire originating on the first floor of a taxpayer. All of the following are true regarding these fires except for which choice? (9.2)
    A. Aerial ladders may be needed for roof ventilation.
    B. Second floor occupancies such as dance halls or meeting halls have ceiling beams that span greater areas, causing higher ceilings with cocklofts that may not be as deep.
    C. If the second floor is divided into multi-occupancy use, the penetration of heavy caliber streams will be limited due to partitions subdividing the floor area.
    D. The probability of a fire extending into the cockloft is greater.
A

B
In a second floor occupancy with large unobstructed areas, such as a dance hall or
meeting hall, the ceiling beams span greater distances, the cocklofts may be
deeper and the ceilings may be higher.