FO CLASS #8 - Week of 33119 FFP-Collapse,T.B.–Gas All Add's,T.B.–Tools24,26&27,Evo21A,Regs Ch. 11 DC Pat Sheridan Flashcards

1
Q
  1. According to the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), structural collapse is a single command event and the FDNY has been designated as the IC for collapse operations. Which choice is incorrect concerning incident management at a structural collapse? (Sec. 1.2, 2.1, 2.2, 2.3) (A) All city agencies, including the Police and Buildings Departments, operate under the direction of the FDNY during a structural collapse rescue operation. (B) NYPD ESU members, performing life safety rescue operations (digging for buried victims, etc.), shall be ordered to stop their operations upon the arrival of FDNY units. (C) Personnel from other agencies will be under the control of their superior officer/supervisor, who shall report to the Incident Command Post (ICP) for instructions. (D) When the rescue and removal of all persons involved in the incident, and stabilization of all threats to public safety have been accomplished, the scene becomes the jurisdiction of the Department of Buildings and/or the NYS Department of Labor (for buildings under construction/demolition).
A

B - 2.1 Both the Fire and Police Departments will dispatch resources to the scene. The first arriving resources capable of performing rescue activities will initiate life safety operations. Life safety operations in progress will not be disrupted or suspended because of the arrival or transition of Command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. First arriving units at the scene of a collapse shall notify the Dispatcher of all of the following with the exception of which choice? (Sec. 4.3) (A) The address and nature of the incident. (B) The need for additional FDNY units or other agency resources. (C) Signal 10-60 with appropriate code shall be transmitted for every collapse. (D) Location of the ICP for the response of Fire, EMS and PD Supervisors. (E) At least one tower ladder shall be special called to every major collapse if none was assigned of the initial alarm.
A

C - Transmit signal 10-60 (Major Emergency Response) with appropriate code when necessary, and if conditions warrant, an additional alarm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Safety at the scene of a collapse is the single most important consideration during the operation. Choose an incorrect tactic taken. (Sec. 4.4) (A) Identify and immediately report any sign of structural defect that could lead to a secondary collapse. (B) Isolate areas subject to secondary collapse with barrier tape and/or other suitable means. (C) Never enter a danger zone. (D) At all explosions and major collapses, SOC Units shall ensure the immediate area is monitored for the presence of radiological/chemical agents.
A

C - o Do not enter any danger zones except to save life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Units arrive on the scene of a complete collapse of a 5 story 25’x50’ OLT, which was in the middle of the block with several similar attached buildings on each side. After transmitting a 10-60 Code 1, which unit was positioned correctly? (Sec. 5.3, 5.4) (A) The 1st and 2nd arriving engines took separate hydrants on the block. (B) The 3rd and 4th engines took separate hydrants on the cross streets, at a position from which they could see the front of the building. (C) Two of the 2nd alarm ladder companies were used to seal off the ends of the street. The LCCs remained near the apparatus, in case the IC requested they be moved. (D) The 1st arriving Tower Ladder was placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone. (E) The 2nd arriving ladder apparatus, an Aerial Ladder, was positioned near the 1st Tower Ladder, in front of the collapsed structure.
A

D -  If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants OUTSIDE the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. The third and fourth engines should take similar positions at the rear of the structure.  Two of the second alarm ENGINE companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street. The chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the apparatus if directed by the IC. - Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure. Additional units should be directed to a designated staging area, unless required elsewhere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - The IC must ensure that special units are positioned properly for effective operations. Which choice is incorrect? (Sec. 5.4, 5.5, 5.6, 5.7, 5.8) (A) SOC Support Ladder Companies, whose main apparatus is an aerial ladder, shall position their second piece near the front of the building. (B) Rescue companies and collapse units should be placed outside of the collapse danger zone but as close as possible to the front of the building. (C) Ambulances need to be visible from the scene, but out of the way of rescue and firefighting operations. Drivers with keys must remain with ambulances at a secure staging area. (D) Heavy equipment, such as cranes, front-end loaders and dump trucks must be assured access to the site. (E) The IC should request the PD to provide tow trucks to remove any vehicles impeding operations at the scene, including unattended emergency vehicles. Tow trucks shall be staged several blocks away.
A

A -  SOC Support Ladder Companies shall position the same as other ladder apparatus, with their second pieces located near the main apparatus.  Personnel can carry equipment, tools, etc., to scene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - The 1st arriving Chief Officer at the scene of a structural collapse has many duties. Which choice contains only correct points concerning these duties? (Sec. 4.6, 6.1, 6.2, 6.5, 6.7, 6.8, 6.9, 6.10) (1) Evaluate the previously established ICP, ensuring that it is clearly visible from the collapsed structure, located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site, and is in an area outside the operations site and collapse zone. (2) Reevaluate the location of the staging area, and assign the second arriving Chief Officer to be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by another BC. (3) Interview witnesses/victims using the Collapse Survivor Interview Form. The Battalion FF can aid in its completion. (4) Establish contact with the Law Enforcement Group or Branch, who can search the area for secondary devices if a bombing is suspected. (5) Ensure a Hazard Assessment was performed. Assign hazard identification and control to the first Haz-Mat Technician Unit on scene. (6) All requests for additional assistance shall go through OEM. (A) 1, 2, 3,4,5,6 (B) 2,6 only (C) 1,3,4,5 only (D) 1, 2,4,5,6 only
A

C - Reevaluate the location and assign a company officer to be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by a Battalion Chief. - All requests for additional assistance shall go through the borough dispatcher. Requests for outside agency assistance may simultaneously be made through the OEM as well as the dispatcher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Units arriving at the scene of a natural gas explosion that has resulted in a building collapse have many things to consider. From highest to least priority, choose the correct actions to take by the 1st alarm engine companies. (Sec. 7.1) (1) Extinguish fire in the affected building (2) Protect Exposures (3) Extinguish fire in the surrounding debris (4) Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse. (A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, 2, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4, 3 (D) 2, 1, 3, 4
A

B - 7.1 Engine Company Responsibilities In order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to:  Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.  Protect exposures.  Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.  At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation. In addition, a 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first arriving tower ladder.  At a suspected terrorist event, 2½” hoselines should be located between two apparatus, or other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from secondary blasts set to injure emergency responders. Note: If flooding occurs, shutting off the water mains and obtaining dewatering pumps will aid victims trapped in the lower areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which operation undertaken by an Engine company at the scene of a building collapse should be corrected? (Sec. 7) (A) The 1st arriving Engine Company may have to take a position within the block for use of the apparatus master stream. (B) The 1st arriving Engine Company should stretch a 2 ½” handline of sufficient length to cover the entire site. (C) The 2nd arriving Engine Company will assist the 1st Engine Company with stretching handlines, ensure a 3 ½” supply line is stretched to the 1st Tower Ladder, and if necessary perform CFR-D duties. (D) The 3rd and subsequent arriving Engine Companies shall be utilized for void searches. (E) The 1st and 2nd arriving Engine company members shall remain together as a unit unless otherwise ordered by the IC.
A

D -  First Arriving Engine Company Members  Position and operate handlines as ordered.  Members will remain together as a unit unless otherwise ordered by the IC.  Second Arriving Engine Company Members  Assist the first engine company with stretching initial handlines and tower ladder supply.  Members of the second engine company will remain together as a unit unless otherwise ordered by the IC.  If necessary, members of the second arriving engine company may perform CFR-D duties. - Under the direction of the IC, the third and any subsequent arriving engines will be utilized to perform the following:  Fire Control.  Stretching additional lines.  Augmenting the water supply to first alarm units.  Perform CFR-D duties.  Assisting in the removal of lightly buried victims.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The 1st and 2nd arriving Ladder Companies perform many vital duties at a building collapse. Choose the incorrect choice concerning these duties. (Sec. 7.5) (A) The 1st Arriving Ladder Company performs reconnaissance, removes surface victims, and performs a preliminary void search. (B) The 2nd arriving Ladder Company, in addition to shutting down the gas, electric, and water service, ensures the dispatcher notified the utility company emergency crews. (C) When performing preliminary void searches, Ladder Company members may only cut load bearing members to save life. (D) The 2nd arriving Ladder Company may assist with life safety if necessary and augment search and rescue efforts. (E) The Officer of the 1st arriving Ladder Company has the option of splitting the company into separate teams to cover more area.
A

C - o Visually search accessible voids - DO NOT cut, lift or remove load bearing members. Call and listen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - Battalion Chiefs may be called upon to fill several roles at a major collapse. Which BC assignment is incorrect? (Sec. 8.6, 8.7, 8.8) (A) The Rescue Operations Battalion is designated as a Search and Rescue Branch Director or Sector/Group Supervisor. (B) The Victim Removal Leader will normally be filled by a Rescue Company Officer until relieved by the Rescue Operations Battalion once he or she is relieved as the Search and Rescue Branch Director. (C) The 2nd Arriving BC may be designated as the Fire Branch Director or Fire Sector/Group Supervisor. (D) The first arriving BC may be reassigned as the Planning Section Chief upon the arrival of the first arriving DC. (E) The BC designated as the Resource Unit Leader (RESL) will report to the Logistics Section Chief. When relieved by the second DC responding on a 10-60 Code 1, the RESL shall report to the Logistics Section Chief for reassignment to either a Situation Unit Leader, or a position necessary to support the Operation.
A

E -  The BC designated as the Resource Unit Leader by the respective Borough Dispatcher, shall report to the Planning Chief and begin tracking resources, both assigned and operating, from all agencies involved. He/she shall remain at this position until relieved by the Officer of the Field Communications Unit, who shall assume that role upon his/her arrival. At this time, the BC shall report to the Planning Section Chief for reassignment to either a Situation Unit Leader, or a position necessary to support the Operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The Street Coordination Manager will prevent needless congestion and repositioning of apparatus as an incident escalates. Which choice is incorrect concerning this position? (Sec. 8.8) (A) Only a Battalion Chief may be assigned as the Street Coordination Manager. (B) The Street Coordination Manager operates under the Logistics Section. (C) He/she shall establish contact with PD and EMS Officers for traffic flow. (D) They shall coordinate the Casualty Collection Point with an EMS Officer.
A

A - A company officer will be assigned as the Street Coordination Manager, with the following responsibilities:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. An emergency evacuation is necessary when an imminent collapse is obvious, or has already happened. Which choice is incorrect concerning the evacuation signaling method used by the FDNY? (Sec. 9.1) (A) Each lookout, Safety Officer, and member monitoring a transit shall be equipped with handheld air horns. (B) All Battalions, Divisions, SOC Units and Collapse Rescue Units are equipped with handheld air horns. (C) 1 Long Blast (3 seconds) indicates that members shall evacuate the area. (D) Apparatus air horns may also be used. They may be beneficial after the initial HT announcement to evacuate, followed by another HT announcement after the air horns have ceased
A

C - 1 Long Blast (3 seconds) Cease Operations/All Quiet 3 short blasts (1 second each) Evacuate the area 1 long and 1 short blast Resume Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Collapse operations require many precautions to be taken to ensure members’ safety. Which choice would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 9.1, 9.4) (A) At construction or demolition sites, seek out the Site Safety Manager or Construction Manage for information about previous conditions. (B) Rotate personnel frequently, at least every hour if possible. (C) If terrorism is suspected, use the NYPD to block access to the site. Do not use apparatus, as this would place members in danger. Members can be used to search for secondary devices. (D) A Rescue Company shall be assigned as the FAST Truck, working in the Logistics Section.
A

A -  Rotate personnel frequently, every half-hour or less if possible. -  If terrorism is suspected, use the apparatus and NYPD to block access to the area. Also request that NYPD check for secondary devices.  A SOC Support Ladder could be utilized as an additional FAST truck, working within the Search and Rescue Sector or Branch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - The FDNY has several special units specializing in collapse rescues that may be automatically assigned or special called to any incident. Which choice is correct concerning these units? (Sec. 10) (A) At least one Rescue Company should be deployed at each buried victim location, unless it is a large scale incident with multiple buried victims. In that case, the IC may assign a Squad Company to sites where there is no Rescue Company available. (B) If dangerous void entries or tunneling operations are to be made, the IC shall request a 3rd Rescue Company to respond to the scene to assist in the void entries or tunneling. (C) Squad Companies carry all the necessary equipment and are trained to perform tunneling, trenching, and shoring. (D) If additional lumber is needed, any Chief Officer on scene can request the response of a Collapse POD. (E) Due to the difficulty in securing the scene of a major collapse, Fire Marshals shall be used exclusively for scene security.
A

A - If dangerous void entries or tunneling operations are to be made, a third Rescue Company should be relocated to quarters near the incident or assigned to the staging area for rapid intervention of members if a secondary collapse occurs. -  Their apparatus does not carry all the necessary equipment to perform tunneling, trenching, or shoring, but they are trained to use equipment found on Rescue apparatus, Collapse Rescue Units, and in Collapse PODs. -  Only a Command Chief can request the response of the PODS. - The IC should request the Police to provide site security if necessary. - An NYPD Officer will assume command of the Law Enforcement Group with responsibility for traffic control, perimeter security, investigation of suspicious packages and devices, force protection and disorder control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Place the following five stages of a collapse operation in the proper sequence. (Sec. 11.1) (1) Search of the voids (2) Reconnaissance (3) Selected Debris Removal (4) General Debris Removal (5) Accounting for and removal of the surface victims (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (B) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 (C) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4 (D) 3, 4, 1, 2, 3
A

B -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Which choice concerning the Victim Accounting Manager is incorrect? (Sec. 11.3, 11.4) (A) It must be a Battalion Chief. (B) They must keep track of all people removed from the debris, including their name and where they were located when the collapse occurred. If time permits, they should ask the victim to point out their escape route (C) They should note any injuries suffered by removed victims. If the victims were removed to a hospital, they should note the hospital and the transporter. (D) All information gained about victim location from witness interviews, from EMS or Fire Marshal’s canvassing hospitals, from initial units rescuing survivors, as well as security video must be relayed to the Victim Accounting Manager. (E) In the case of a fire related collapse, the results of unit roll calls must be relayed to the Victim Accounting Manager.
A

A - Immediately designate an officer to keep track of all persons who are removed from the debris. - The member designated to obtain victim information is the Victim Accounting Manager. -

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. There are many different methods that can be used to locate victims in a collapse. Which choice is correct concerning these methods? (Sec. 11.4) (A) Hailing, which uses verbal contact, requires a degree of silence that may not be present in the early stages of an operation. (B) The “Around-the-clock” method entails placing members at various locations around the area where a voice is heard. The members shall call out at the same time and determine who is closest to the response. (C) Thermal imaging cameras are not useful, because everyone in the debris pile is likely to be covered in the same exact color of dust. (D) Life Detection Systems (Electronic Listening Devices) are located on all Squad and Rescue Apparatus, and may be used effectively during the initial stages of a collapse.
A

A - The “around-the-clock” method may be useful: members position themselves at various locations around the area where a voice is heard, and TAKE TURNS calling out and listening for the victim, in an attempt to triangulate their position. - Utilize a Thermal Imaging Camera to help detect body heat of unconscious individuals and look for movement as they breathe. - Electronic listening devices: They are not practical to be used during the initial stages of a collapse, for there is too much activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Shoring is the installation of temporary structures to support a load. Choose the incorrect point concerning shoring. (Sec. 11.5) (A) First arriving units may be forced to perform some emergency shoring using available materials on hand to safely reach trapped victims. (B) Once a Rescue Company is on scene, the installation of additional shoring should generally be left to these units, supported by Squad and SOC Support Ladder Companies. (C) When requested by DOB or HPD, the FDNY will install shoring in certain instances. However, the FDNY will never shore vacant, unoccupied, or buildings that are going to be demolished. (D) Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area.
A

C -  A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to substantially improve the overall outcome.  If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of occupants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. BC QUESTION - Which choice is incorrect concerning Selected Debris Removal and Tunneling? (Sec. 11.6, 11.6.7) (A) Selected debris removal is used to reach specific locations where victims are located or suspected to be. It is not a useful tactic if we have no idea where the victims are located. (B) The Rescue Operations Battalion should be assigned as the Victim Removal Leader to supervise selected debris removal. (C) Only collapsed trained members of SOC units are to perform tunneling or trenching involving the cutting of potentially load bearing structural members. (D) Rotate members out for a rest at frequent intervals, 30 minutes is the recommended maximum work time. (E) When attempting to remove a victim a single approach should be used. Using more than one approach will decrease the chances of success.
A

E - Utilize multiple methods to remove victims; for many of them are time consuming and may not always be successful. Two or more approaches could increase the chances of success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. A Rescue Paramedic shall be given access to a patient in all but which one of the following choices? (Sec. 10.1.14, 11.6, 11.8.3, 11.9.5) (A) If the victim has been pinned for more than one hour or appears to have suffered serious injuries, a Rescue Paramedic must be given access to the patient as soon as there is access in order to treat for Crush Syndrome. (B) As soon as the patient is sufficiently exposed to permit the establishment of an IV, as long as the area around the patient is stable. (C) As soon as the patient is reached and the space is stabilized. (D) Not until the patient is completely extricated and the patient’s entire body is exposed.
A

D - The entire victim does not have to be exposed; an arm, a leg, or even the neck is all that is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Members drilling on tools to be used at building collapses were incorrect in which choice? (Sec. 11.13) (A) Jackhammers, concrete cutting saws and torches are required for Class 1 buildings. (B) Chainsaws are appropriate at most buildings with wooden floors and roofs. (C) Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) may only be used during the Selected Debris Removal stage if there is adequate supervision. (D) Once the operations come within reach of the victim, all work should proceed with only hand powered tools, unless the object and the victim are visibly clear and injury is not likely.
A

C - Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) is forbidden during the Selected Debris Removal stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Choose the incorrect point concerning General Debris Removal and Demobilization, which occur in the latter stages of a collapse operation. (Sec. 11.12, 12) (A) General Debris Removal begins when it is certain there are no other survivors, all voids have been searched and the Selected Debris Removal and tunneling demonstrates there is no chance for survival of missing victims. (B) The General Debris Removal is performed when all other methods have been employed and persons are still missing and their location is unknown. (C) The Fire Department will maintain a watchline as long as there are personnel operating in the debris pile for search or investigative purposes. (D) Tools shall not be considered expendable. Members may enter hazardous areas to retrieve tools if they are supervised.
A

D - All tools are to be considered expendable. No lives shall be endangered to remove shoring or retrieve other tools or equipment that may have been left in hazardous locations once the life hazard has been resolved. Tools and equipment that can be retrieved without entering hazardous areas shall be returned to service. Other equipment will be retrieved as the building is either demolished or made safe by contractors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. A Con Edison Vacuum Truck responds on a 10-60 signal. Which choice concerning the Vacuum Truck is incorrect? (Add. 4 Sec. 1,2,3,4) (A) Tubing 8” wide can be connected up to 150 feet. 4” tubing can be added for an additional 50 feet. (B) The Vacuum Truck has the ability to remove liquid, sludge, dirt, sand, grain, store stock, cans, bottles and building debris. (C) The size of the hose limits the size of the material that can be used. Material that clogs the hose can be easily removed and operations can be resumed. (D) FDNY members shall always operate the Vacuum Truck. (E) FDNY members shall always operate the suction hose at the extrication site.
A

D -Con Edison employees shall operate the vacuum truck if the work area is safe. An FDNY HT equipped member shall be positioned with the Con Edison employee at all times.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. In building collapses, there are four common types of void spaces created that could shelter victims. Which one is described incorrectly? (Sec. 11.4)
    (A) In a Lean-to void, there is an excellent chance of survival for persons who were on the floor below if they were near the remaining wall.
    (B) In a Lean-to void, the smallest chance for survival is for anyone on the lower floor in the vicinity of the failed wall.
    (C) In a V-shaped void, survivors will most likely be found along the remaining walls.
    (D) In a V-shaped void, victims directly below the collapse will have the least chance of survival.
    (E) Locating the victims of a pancake collapses is the most difficult of all types of collapse, since the victims are likely to be thrown in a random pattern.
A

E - Locating the
victims of pancake collapses is often simpler than in other types of collapses,
since the floors usually maintain their physical aspect and the victims aren’t as
likely to be thrown as they would if the floor were to incline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. While conducting a search at a large collapse site, you come across this marking at an opening in a collapsed structure. Which choice is correct concerning this marking? (Sec. 1.6, 2, 3, 4)
    (A) It should be made using lime-yellow paint and a square box should be drawn around the 2” x2” marking.
    (B) The markings are made at the point that Lad-14 exited the area.
    (C) The Top Quadrant indicates that Lad-14 entered the structure at 1400 hours November 11, 2002.
    (D) The Bottom Quadrant indicates that there are 2 live and 3 expired victims still inside the structure.
    (E) The “X” marking, using two slashes, shall be made in one operation prior to entering the structure.
A

D - 2.1 Consists of a 2’x2’ marking that when completed, will form the letter “X” with designated
markings in each quadrant.
2.2 It is made using the same lime-yellow colored reflective spray paint currently used to
mark vacant buildings.
2.3 Two cans of lime-yellow colored reflective spray paint are to be carried on all apparatus. - The markings are made at the point
the unit/team makes entry. - Top Quadrant: The time and date that the company/team
personnel left the structure/area. - The second, crossing slash shall be drawn when all
personnel exit from that structure or area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. When using the Search Assessment Marking System, there are several key points to remember. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 1, 1.2, 1.4, 1.5 Sec. 4 Note)
    (A) At large scale events, a unit that sees a void or area that has already been searched should move on to other areas that have not yet been searched.
    (B) The markings are used when searching multiple buildings, large areas of buildings, or large debris piles at collapse sites.
    (C) The markings indicate a search is in progress or has already been completed.
    (D) Markings shall never be crossed out.
    (E) Markings are made specific to each area of entry or separate part of the building.
A

D - 1.5 These markings are dynamic; they should be updated as new voids become accessible.
New markings should be made and old markings crossed out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which point concerning the Victim Location Marking above is incorrect? (Add. 2 Sec. 5)
    (A) The “V” approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a known or potential victim.
    (B) The arrow is added next to the “V” pointing towards the victim’s location if not clearly visible or if not immediately nearby.
    (C) A circle is painted around the “V” when the location of a potential victim has been confirmed, whether visually, vocally, or by hearing sounds that indicate a high probability of a victim.
    (D) The horizontal line shall be painted through the “V” when the victim is confirmed deceased.
    (E) The vertical line painted through the confirmed victim mark indicates the secondary search is complete.
A

E - A vertical line is painted through the confirmed
victim mark after the victim/s have been removed
from the specific location identified by the marking.
This marking should not be taken to mean the
secondary search is complete, rather it means that
all victims that have previously been located have
been removed.

28
Q

Addendum 1 – Con Ed Gas Transmission System Repair

  1. BC QUESTION - When Con Ed performs repair work on their Gas Transmission System, they notify the Borough Dispatcher. Which choice is incorrect concerning FDNY actions to take upon this notification? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2)
    (A) The nearest available Battalion and Engine or Ladder Company shall be assigned for an administrative assignment.
    (B) The assigned units shall respond in emergency mode.
    (C) Upon completion of the familiarization, the BC shall notify the DC and 1st alarm companies of the location and relevant aspects of the planned repair work.
    (D) If deemed necessary, the BC shall schedule units for additional familiarization visits.
A

B - Units shall respond in
non-emergency mode to the incident location.

29
Q

Addendum 2 – MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter

  1. The Altair Digital Gas Meter has been issued to all Engine and Ladder Companies. Which choice is incorrect concerning this meter? (Sec. 1.2, 2.1, 2.3)
    (A) Although the meter is calibrated to methane, it can be used to accurately detect many other types of combustible gases.
    (B) Before turning the meter on, the member must be in an area free of contamination.
    (C) During the self-check test, which takes approximately 40 seconds, the meter will momentarily activate all three alarm types (audible, visual and vibrating) and the display will scroll through several LCD screens.
    (D) The Fresh Air Setup (FAS) is used to “zero” the LEL sensor to ambient air. Not performing FAS may affect the accuracy of the readings.
    (E) While air monitoring, the meter will emit a vibrating pulse and flashing green LED light every 30 seconds.
A

A - 1.2 The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter is equipped with two sensors, one for combustible gas
and the other for oxygen. The meter is calibrated to methane, the major component of
natural gas. Although the meter is capable of detecting other combustible gases, the
displayed readings will not be accurate. For this reason, the meter should NOT be used
to detect gases other than natural gas.

30
Q

Addendum 2 – MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter

  1. While using the Altair Meter, the Officer notices that it appears to not be working properly. The Officer would be correct to take which action? (Sec. 3, 6.1)
    (A) The Officer called Haz-Mat Operations and requested a replacement meter.
    (B) The Officer sent the meter through the bag for the Division Messenger to deliver the meter to Haz-Mat Operations.
    (C) When the unit received the replacement meter, the Unit Number was marked on the meter.
    (D) The meter requires monthly recalibration, which should be performed prior to placing the meter out of service.
    (E) Questions concerning the operation of meter or operational procedures at natural gas incidents shall be directed to Technical Services.
A

A - Haz-Mat Operations shall
arrange for pick-up of the out-of-service meter and issuance of a replacement.
Meters shall not be sent through the bag. - Units shall not place
identifying markings on the (loaner) meter. - 6.1 Questions concerning the operation of the MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter or operational
procedures at natural gas incidents can be directed to the Haz Mat Battalion. - 3.2 Calibration dates are displayed on the LCD screen during warm-up operation. Meters will
be re-calibrated based on a schedule established by Haz Mat Operations.

31
Q
  1. The Altair Digital Gas Meter is equipped with two sensors, one for combustible gas and the other for oxygen. Which choice concerning the Combustible Gas Sensor is incorrect? (Sec. 4)
    (A) Normal air readings should display 0.0% LEL on the meter LCD. The meter will alarm at 10% LEL, the action level for indoor operations, but does not alarm at 20%, the action level for outdoor operations.
    (B) As the action levels are approached, ventilation procedures should be initiated to reduce the concentration of gas.
    (C) A series of “XXX” under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is above 100% LEL. Members are prohibited from operating in this atmosphere.
    (D) If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated.
    (E) In addition to ventilation procedures, the IC should initiate a Haz-Mat response for their advanced metering and technical expertise.
A

C - 2.5 The meter will alarm at the following LCD readings:
 LEL 10.0%
 O2 23.5% (Oxygen enriched)
 O2 19.5% (Oxygen deficient)

32
Q
  1. The Oxygen sensor was included on the Altair Digital Gas Meter since the LEL sensor requires oxygen to function properly. Choose the incorrect point concerning this sensor. (Sec. 5)
    (A) The normal oxygen reading on the meter is 20.8%. The low oxygen level alarm is set at 19.5%, and the high oxygen sensor will alarm at 23.5%.
    (B) Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, members shall don their SCBA facepiece and notify the IC of abnormal oxygen readings on the Altair meter.
    (C) Upon activation of the oxygen sensor, notify the Dispatcher of conditions, and have the utility company respond and request an ETA.
    (D) A series of 3 large “+” along the screen under the O2 icon indicates that the atmosphere is at 25% oxygen.
A

D - A series three large “+”
along the screen under the O2 icon indicates the atmosphere is above 30% oxygen
(Photo 1).

33
Q

Addendum 3 Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector
6. The Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector is a combustible gas detector carried by Battalions, Haz Mat Co. 1, HMTU, Rescue and Ladder Companies. Which choice is incorrect concerning this meter? (Sec. 1, 2, 4)
(A) It provides a “Geiger Counter” like ticking sound that increases in frequency when a gas source as low as 20 ppm of Methane is detected.
(B) The meter may be used in any situation where combustible gas, vapor, or residues need to be located, including Carbon Monoxide.
(C) The Sensit Meter can be used at gas line and pipes, fuel in marine bilges, exhaust and fuel leaks, and manholes.
(D) The Altair Meter must be used in conjunction with the Sensit Meter when surveying for leaks.

A

B - Note: The SENSIT TKX Combustible Gas Detector will not detect Carbon Monoxide.

34
Q

Addendum 3 Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector

  1. Ensuring that the Sensit Meter has a working battery is extremely important. Choose an incorrect procedure concerning the battery. (Sec. 3, 5)
    (A) Turn the detector off before recharging. A recharge takes 2 to 5 hours and the LED will illuminate green to indicate a fully charged battery.
    (B) A fully charged battery supplies approximately 20 hours of continuous use.
    (C) If the LED blinks green or does not illuminate, the battery needs to be recharged.
    (D) If recharging does not produce a solid green LED after 5 hours, notify Haz-Mat Operations.
    (E) If it appears the battery is not retaining a charge, members shall replace the Lithium Ion Battery Pack with the assigned spare.
A

E -  Replacement of the Lithum Ion Battery Pack is to be done by Haz-Mat Operations
personnel ONLY.

35
Q
  1. An incorrect operation of the Sensit Meter is shown in which choice? (Sec. 4)
    (A) Turn the tick adjust dial fully counterclockwise, and turn the meter in a non-contaminated atmosphere. The green LED will illuminate.
    (B) Rotate the tick adjust dial in a clockwise direction until a uniform ticking sound is heard. The red LED will begin to flash.
    (C) Approach the area of the suspected leak with the sensor until the ticking sound begins to increase. When the ticking increases, rotate the tick adjust dial counterclockwise and continue to approach the suspected area of the leak.
    (D) A decrease in the ticking sound and flashing of the green LED indicates that you are approaching the leak.
A

D -  An increase in the ticking sound and flashing of the red LED indicates that you are
approaching a leak. A decrease in both the ticking sound and the flashing red LED
indicates that you are moving away from the leak.

36
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. Which point concerning the use of chain saws is incorrect? (Sec. 2.1, 3.1.2, 3.2, 3.5.3, 3.5.6, 3.7, 7.7)

(A) The chain saw is not to be used for the ventilation or overhauling of any structural fires.

(B) When starting and operating the saw, always keep the body to the left of the chain.

(C) Do not attempt cutting above chest height. Never overreach or operate the saw above your

shoulders.
(D) When operating on slopes, the chain saw operator must always stand on the uphill side of the tree/log when cutting.

A

A - Except for pier fire operations, the chain saw is not to be used for the ventilation or
overhauling of structural fires.

37
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. Members can cut downward or upward with the chain saw. Which choice is incorrect concerning these operations? (Sec. 3.10, 3.11)

(A) When cutting downward you will experience a pulling reaction. Pull-in occurs when the chain on the bottom bar is suddenly stopped.
(B) Pull-in frequently occurs when the bumper spike of the saw is not held securely against the tree or limb and when the chain is not rotating at full speed before it contacts the wood.

(C) During upward cutting a pushing reaction will be felt. Pushback occurs when the chain on the top of the bar is suddenly stopped.
(D) To avoid pushback, do not cut more than 3 logs at a time.

A

D - Do not cut more than one log at a time.

38
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. Which choice concerning cutting operations is incorrect? (Sec. 4.4, 4.5, 4.7, 4.8, 4.10)

(A) A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10’ will be established before the commencement of cutting.
(B) The saw operator, control person, and Officer are the only personnel allowed in the circle of danger during cutting.

(C) Due to the noise level and use of hearing protection, hand signals must be established between the operator, control member and Officer.
(D) Hearing protection devices must be worn during operational and training sessions by members within the circle of danger.

(E) Saw refueling area is to be located outside the circle of danger.

A

B - The saw operator and control person will be the only personnel in this area during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the control person.

39
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. Which choice is incorrect concerning the operational precautions that must be followed during chain saw operations? (Sec. 5.2)

(A) Do not attempt cutting an object which has fallen against a structure and is now supported by it.
(B) If a branch, tree section or other object is hanging, leaning or otherwise damaged, cutting it down is not to be attempted.

(C) Prior to cutting operations, members are to survey area for electrical wires in contact with tree. Trees are good conductors of electricity.
(D) If using the tip of the blade to make a plunge cut, use the upper 90 degree Quadrant.

A

D. - Never make plunge cuts with the tip of the blade. Never use the tip of the saw blade for cutting. This practice can cause a violent, uncontrollable kickback. (See figure 5).

40
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. After a storm, Ladder 411 used the chain saw for several cutting operations. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 6.2.1, 6.6, 6.7, 6.8, 6.9)

(A) When cutting a log resting on a car that was acting as a fulcrum point, the member made a rip cut straight through the log on the overhanging end of the log.
(B) Wood on the ground under tension was cut on the compression side first. Thereafter the cross-cut was finished from the tension side.

(C) When removing branches from a fallen tree, the saw was not run at full throttle and the nose of the bar was not used.
(D) When cutting a tree that was blown uprooted, the member cut the trunk from the topside, working toward the stump.

(E) When bucking, or cutting a log into sections, the member stood on top of the log to hold the log in place with his foot.

A

E - 6.9.3 Never permit another person to hold the log. Never hold the log in place with your leg or foot.

41
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. Which safety requirement concerning the chain saw is incorrect? (Sec. 7)

(A) The saw shall not be operated from a ladder, unless it is secured at the butt and tip.

(B) Carry the saw with the guide bar to the rear when climbing uphill and to the front when

going downhill.
(C) Always hold a running saw with two hands.
(D) When operating a chain saw, secure or remove your Handie-Talkie.

A

A - Saw shall not be operated from a ladder.

42
Q

Tools 24 – Chain Saw Operations

  1. After establishing a schedule for the weekly testing of the chain saw, Capt. Johnson discussed the protective equipment required. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 2.4, 7.3, 7.3.1, 7.3.2, 8.1.3)

(A) The operator and control person’s PPE shall include a long sleeve shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, and bunker boots.

(B) Members must wear firefighting gloves whenever testing or operating the saw.

(C) The operator and control person must wear saw protected chaps over either long pants or

bunker pants.

(D) Chaps shall never be worn over shorts.

A

B -

Saw Protected Gloves - NFPA approved protective gloves that are specifically designed to prevent serious injury by causing the chain saw blade to bind and stop if contact is made. Members must wear saw protected gloves whenever testing or operating chain saw. Saw protective gloves are not approved for firefighting purposes.

Note: Firefighting gloves are not approved for chain saw operation.

43
Q

Tools 26 – Hydra Ram

  1. After assigning the Forcible Entry position to FF Red, Lt. Happy drilled on the Hydra Ram. Which point should be corrected? (Sec. 2.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.3, 4.2)

(A) It can be used to force outward and inward opening doors.

(B) It can provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for placement of an

extinguishing agent.
(C) It can be used under water.

(D) If necessary, it can be struck with a Halligan to make an initial purchase.

(E) It can operate in any position.

A

D - 4.2 Never strike the Hydra Ram with a tool to gain a purchase.

44
Q

Tools 26 – Hydra Ram

  1. Which choice concerning the operation of the Hydra Ram is incorrect? 3.4, 4.1, 4.3)

(Sec. 3.2,

(A) Always position yourself in a fashion that would protect you in the event that the tool slips out from the work.
(B) Always maintain control of the door being forced.
(C) When bleeding the tool at the conclusion of operations, if the working piston does not retract by itself, apply steady pressure.

(D) When the Hydra Ram reaches its maximum opening of 4 inches and resistance is felt, it will be necessary to force the door conventionally with an axe and halligan.
(E) Use full firefighting gear with eye shields down or safety goggles when operating the Hydra Ram.

A

D - If the 4-inch opening is not enough, retract the piston and place an axe head or other substantial spacer flat on the door to provide additional opening distance.

45
Q

Tools 26 – Hydra Ram

  1. Proper maintenance of the Hydra Ram is necessary to ensure proper performance. Which choice is incorrect concerning the maintenance of this tool? (Sec. 5)

(A) After each use, the tool should be inspected for damage, tested for leaks, cleaned and lubricated.
(B) The Ram does not use Hydraulic Fluid, but rather Propylene Glycol, which will not cause injury to skin. The Ram requires no replenishment of fluids.

(C) The tool shall be cleaned and lubricated in 3 locations. Only use “3 in 1” oil to lubricate the tool.
(D) The tool can only be stored on the floor of the apparatus near heating vents if it is in the storage case.

A

D - The Hydra Ram can be affected by storage at or near areas of the apparatus where heat comes
in contact with the tool. The heat dries out the pistons and seals.

46
Q

Tools 27 – Thermal Imaging Camera

  1. Thermal Imaging Cameras (TICs) detect infrared energy, which is unaffected by smoke, and electronically processes it and displays it into a viewable image. The image on the TIC is a pictorial representation of temperature differences. Which point concerning the TIC is incorrect? (Sec. 2.3)

(A) Black indicates the presence of the least amount of heat or the coolest object in the scene.

(B) White images will only appear when something is on fire.

(C) Black and white images are relative to the overall image being viewed.

(D) Shades of gray represent the temperature range between black and white. These shades of

white, black and gray and their differences in colorization are known as Thermal Contrast.

A

B - WHITE being the presence of the most heat in the scene. Example - A handprint on the wall may appear WHITER than the surrounding area. It does not mean it is on fire, it only means that it is hotter than the rest of the area being viewed

47
Q

Tools 27 – Thermal Imaging Camera

  1. The more heat present, both generated and subsequently absorbed by objects, the clearer and sharper the image will usually appear on the TIC. Which choice is incorrect these contrasts? (Sec. 2.6, 2.7, 2.8, 2.9, 2.10)

(A) When the area reaches the point of thermal saturation, everything in the viewing area is heated to temperatures beyond the capabilities of the TIC, and the overall area being viewed will appear white and featureless.
(B) Changing thermal contrast is when the conditions change from cooler to hotter back to cooler, the image on the TI will change. Changing thermal contrast may be an indication that the fire is in close proximity.

(C) When using the TIC, convected heat movement will appear as White swirling waves or smoke. When this is detected, the TIC cannot be used to locate the fire.
(D) When searching for fire with the TIC, walls or multiple layers and thickness of materials such as drop ceilings and insulation may conceal fire.

(E) When searching for life with the TIC, furniture or layers of blankets, sheets and clothes may conceal a person.

A

C - When searching for fire location or extension, operators should make every attempt to detect the presence of convected heat along with its direction and velocity earlier rather than later. This movement may give the operator an indication of the location of the fire.

48
Q

Tools 27 – Thermal Imaging Camera

  1. The TIC shall be carried and used at all structural responses by all units equipped with the TIC. Which choices concerning the use of this tool is incorrect? (Sec. 3, 3.3, 3.9, 3.10, 4.3)

(A) Operators of the TIC shall utilize the carrying strap to allow them to have both hands available to perform search, rescue and firefighting operations.
(B) Operators should stay low and slowly scan the area, beginning at the ceiling and using a slow side-to-side scanning motion, slowly working their way to the floor area.

(C) The TIC can be used to locate a person under water.
(D) The TIC can be used to determine liquid levels in containers.

A

C - 4.3 Thermal imaging will not see through water.

49
Q

Tools 27 – Thermal Imaging Camera

  1. Choose the incorrect point concerning the TIC. (Sec. 4.1, 4.2, 4.7, 4.8, 5.4.3)

(A) Thermal imaging does not see through clear glass or plastic. These act as a mirror to infrared energy.
(B) Shiny surfaces, such as glass, waxed floors, tiled walls, some painted or polished surfaces or water on the floor, will reflect infrared energy creating a mirror effect. The actual source of the image may be opposite the reflected surface.

(C) If there is fogging or condensation build up on the SCBA facepiece, wiping the SCBA facepiece, and also the display screen and camera lens of the TIC, will greatly improve the clarity of the image.

(D) Thermal imaging cameras are not rated as intrinsically safe.

(E) TICS are waterproof, and can be submerged in water if absolutely necessary.

A

E - The TIC is water-resistant, not waterproof. NEVER submerge the camera.

50
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. Engine 32 and Ladder 75, housed in a newly constructed firehouse with an open apparatus floor without a dividing wall, receive a response for a fire in a Private Dwelling. Engine 32 is assigned 3rd due, and Ladder 75 is assigned 1st due. Which choice is correct concerning their response? (Sec. 11.1.12)

(A) Ladder 75 shall leave quarters first, unless circumstances make it impracticable.

(B) Engine 32 shall leave quarters first, unless circumstances make it impracticable.

(C) Ladder 75 shall always leave quarters first.

(D) Engine 32 shall always leave quarters first.

A

B - When an engine company and any other unit are housed in the same quarters
without a dividing wall, the engine company shall, when both are assigned on
the same alarm, leave quarters first, unless circumstances make it impracticable.

51
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. Lt. Smith is responding with Tower Ladder 100, driven by FF Jones, to the scene of a major building collapse. Which communication from Lt. Smith to FF Jones while responding is not in accordance with the Regulations? (Sec. 11.1.13)

(A) Sensing that FF Jones is overeager, Lt. Smith instructs him to slow down.

(B) Aware that it is FF Jones first time driving the apparatus to a response, Lt. Smith reminds

him to ensure that the apparatus is in an optimal position before setting the jacks and outriggers. (C) Familiar with the traffic in the area, Lt. Smith directs FF Jones to take Utah Avenue, which is the most direct route.
(D) When the Dispatcher notified Tower Ladder 100 that there was an explosion, Lt. Smith relayed this information to FF Jones.

A

B - Responses to alarms shall be made with all proper speed consistent with safety. Officers shall not converse with the chauffeurs, except when necessary to regulate the speed of apparatus, determine route to be taken, or to relay information received by radio.

SIR

52
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. When turning corners, no apparatus shall be driven in excess of ____ mph. (Sec. 11.1.17)

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 30

A

A

53
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. Lt. Green discussed several guidelines with the Chauffeur of Ladder 99. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 11.1.17)

(A) When responding to an alarm, drivers may proceed past a steady red signal, a flashing red signal, or stop sign, but only after slowing down as may be necessary for safe operation.
(B) When responding to alarms, use one-way streets against traffic for more than one block only when absolutely necessary.

(C) When responding on a one way street against traffic, a full stop shall be made before entering an intersection.
(D) Parkways or express highways shall not be used by apparatus responding to alarms.

A

D - Parkways or express highways shall not be used by apparatus responding to alarms, except in emergency when their use would facilitate response. Such highways shall not be used by apparatus returning from alarms. This does not apply to passenger type vehicles of the Department.

54
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. When performing a secondary search of the apartment directly above the fire apartment in an OLT, a member of Ladder 200 finds a diamond ring on the floor and gives it to her Captain. What would be an incorrect action to take? (Sec. 11.3.15)

(A) The Captain gave the ring to the 1st arriving BC, who was the IC due to the DC leaving the scene after placing the fire “Under Control”.
(B) The IC gave the ring to a woman who stated that she lived in the apartment, after first checking her Driver’s License to confirm she was the occupant. A receipt was obtained.

(C) After determining that the occupant of the apartment was not present, the ring was given to the occupant of the apartment next to the fire apartment, after evaluating his ability to provide adequate security. A receipt was obtained.
(D) After determining that the occupant of the apartment was not present, the BC gave the ring to a Police Officer on scene, and obtained a receipt.

A

C - When members find articles of value, such articles shall be turned over to their immediate supervisory Officer, who in turn shall deliver them to the Officer in Command. Such articles shall be restored to the owner upon proper identification, delivered to the Police Department if owner is not available, or upon proper identification to an authorized representative of the owner. In all cases a receipt shall be obtained.

55
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. After extinguishing a car fire where a 10-18 signal was transmitted and the BC did not arrive on scene, a Captain working in an Engine Company discussed the proper procedure to take with the Lt working in the Ladder Company. Which choice is correct? (Sec. 11.3.15)

(A) He shall attempt to notify the owner in all cases.

(B) He shall attempt to notify the owner, unless the vehicle was an ADV.

(C) He shall not attempt to notify the owner under any circumstances. This is the responsibility

of the Police Department.
(D) If the vehicle is not an ADV, and a 10-41 Code 3 was not transmitted, he shall attempt to notify the owner. If unable to notify the owner, he shall relay the make, model, license number and location of the vehicle to the Dispatcher.

A

D - If a fire occurs in a vehicle, other than an ADV or one for which a 10-41 code 3 has been transmitted, the Incident Commander shall attempt to notify the owner. If this is not possible, the Dispatcher shall be requested to inform the Police Communications Bureau of the make, model license number and location of the vehicle.

56
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. Upon completion of operations at a 5-7 signal for a Carbon Monoxide detector activation in a Private Dwelling, the occupant tells you that her watch is missing from her kitchen table. She states that the watch was on the table prior to the units’ arrival, but does not allege that any FD members took the watch. Which is a correct action to take? (Sec. 11.3.16)

(A) You immediately direct members to conduct a thorough search of the dwelling.

(B) You immediately request the response of a Battalion Chief.

(C) You interview all witnesses that you can locate at the scene.

(D) You notify the Inspector General’s Office only.

(E) You notify the Fire Marshal and the Inspector General’s Office.

A

A -

DCN: 3.01.00 REGULATIONS CHAPTER 11

In order to safeguard private property while operating at fires, the following procedures shall be complied with:

When members find articles of value, such articles shall be turned over to their immediate supervisory Officer, who in turn shall deliver them to the Officer in Command. Such articles shall be restored to the owner upon proper identification, delivered to the Police Department if owner is not available, or upon proper identification to an authorized representative of the owner. In all cases a receipt shall be obtained.

When during the course of operations, it becomes necessary to force entry to any premises in the building of operations or any exposure, the member performing such forcible entry shall, as soon as conditions permit, supply the Officer in Command of his/her unit with full particulars. Such Officer shall transmit this information to the Officer in Command of operations.

When operations are completed, the Officer in command must have premises safeguarded by members until custodianship is turned over to the owner, occupant, Police Department, or a responsible person. When selecting a responsible person the Officer in Command must evaluate the ability of that person to provide adequate security. In the absence of such persons the Officer in Command must transmit radio signal 10-47 for police security. When applicable, commercial premises may be secured as in AUC-231.

If a fire occurs in a vehicle, other than an ADV or one for which a 10-41 code 3 has been transmitted, the Incident Commander shall attempt to notify the owner. If this is not possible, the Dispatcher shall be requested to inform the Police Communications Bureau of the make, model license number and location of the vehicle.

Private Property Missing from Scene of Department Operations:

When allegations of lost, missing, or possibly stolen private property are received the Incident Commander must immediately direct a thorough search of the premises from which the property is missing.

57
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. While working in Ladder 88, you are arrive at a 2nd alarm fire in a Rowframe that has extended to an adjoining building. The IC orders you to take your unit to the roof of the fire
    building. Which tools are required to be taken to the roof?
    (1) Life Saving Rope
    (2) Hose Roller
    (3) KO Curtain
    (4) Search Rope
    (5) Utility Rope
    (6) Life Belt

(A) 1,2,3,4,6

(B) 1,2,5,6

(C) 1,2,3,4,5,6

(D) 4,5,6

(Sec. 11.3.23)

A

B - Officers on duty with ladder companies responding to second or greater alarms shall, when ordered to roof of fire building or to adjoining or adjacent roof, require inclusion of life saving rope, utility rope, hose roller and life belt in equipment taken to the roof. Life saving rope shall be used exclusively for rescue purposes or to provide a means of escape when necessary. Utility rope use shall be limited to hoisting operations or other general purposes.

58
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. Officers of units reporting to the Command Post shall report in alone, after instructing their members to stand by at least ______ from the Command Post. (Sec. 11.3.25)

(A) 10 feet

(B) 25 yards

(C) 25 feet

(D) 50 feet

A

C

59
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. BC QUESTION - When you receive a ticket in quarters to respond to a 3rd alarm, you notice the Suffix P on the ticket as your designation. You would know which choice to be correct concerning this assignment? (Sec. 11.3.26, Comm. Ch. 2 p. 2-37)

(A) All responding units and Chief Officers assigned on the 3rd alarm shall report to the Staging Area. You should contact the Dispatcher by radio to verify the identity of the units assigned on the 3rd alarm.

(B) The Staging Area shall be co-located with the RAC Area.

(C) If a 10-66 is also transmitted, all units assigned on the 10-66 shall respond to the Staging

Area.
(D) At the Staging Area, all communications to the Command Post shall be via the Apparatus Radio.

(E) Your vehicle shall be used as the focal point to identify the Staging Area.

A

E - At the Staging Area, all communications to the Command Post shall by the designated handi-talkie frequency or the 800 MHz radio. - Note: On transmission of a higher alarm which is part of signal 10-66, all units other than Rescue, Squad, SOC Support Ladder, FAST Unit, and CFR Engine, shall be directed by the dispatcher to report to and remain at a Staging Area. - While responding, the Staging Area Manager can verify units reporting to the Staging Area by use of the MDT. - The SA shall be maintained separate from the RAC Area.

60
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. BC QUESTION - After supervising two Engine Companies and two Ladder Companies to extinguish a fire in a small shed, the 1st Engine Officer tells you that his Nozzle FF and Backup FF are experiencing difficulty breathing and are being evaluated by EMS. The Officer tells you that both members were operating with donned SCBA facepieces. Choose the incorrect action to

take.

(Sec. 11.3.29)

(A) You immediately request the response of a Medical Officer to the scene.
(B) You impound the members SCBAs and cylinders, and forward them with the related mask record cards to the Bureau of Safety.
(C) You direct their Officer to conduct an investigation and forward a report to the Chief of Department.
(D) You conduct an investigation and forward a report to the Bureau of Operations with a copy to the Bureau of Health Services and Bureau of Safety.

A

C - Direct the Battalion Chief in immediate command of members at the time of injury to conduct an investigation and forward a report to the Bureau of Operations with a copy to the Bureau of Health Services and to the Division of Safety.

61
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. BC QUESTION - As the IC at an incident where a member is receiving CPR or rescue breathing, you would be incorrect to take which action? (Sec. 11.3.34)

(A) Immediately notify the Dispatcher to summon EMS, the nearest FDNY unit carrying oxygen if none is on scene, and notify the Medical Officer.
(B) Upon learning that there will be a delay in the arrival of an ambulance, you transported the member to the hospital in the Battalion apparatus.

(C) You ensured first aid was given while the member was enroute to the hospital.
(D) Ensured that the member was transported to the hospital in a certified ambulance in all cases.

A

D -

Officers in command of an incident where member is receiving CPR or rescue breathing shall:

A. Immediately notify the dispatcher to:

Summon emergency medical service (EMS) ambulance.

Call nearest department unit carrying oxygen if none is on the scene.

Notify the medical officer.

Provide transportation to a hospital by any suitable means in the event of a delay or absence of an ambulance.

Assure continued first aid is given to the member while enroute to the hospital

62
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. In which choice was the correct action taken? (Sec. 11.3.36)

(A) A member’s boots were placed out of service after the member suffered a minor contusion to their foot when they dropped an axe on it while wearing their bunker pants and boots. The member did not request medical treatment.
(B) A member’s helmet was placed out of service when the member suffered a loss of consciousness when struck in the head by a ceiling while overhauling. The member was transported to the hospital and placed on medical leave.

(C) A member’s bunker coat was placed out of service when the member suffered a 1st degree burn on their arm, and the Officer recorded a Minor Injury in CIRS. The coat showed no damage and the member did not request medical leave.
(D) A member’s helmet was placed out of service when the member suffered an abrasion to their cornea while cutting a roll down gate with their eye shields in the “up” position. The member was placed on medical leave.

A

B -

When a member suffers an injury to an area of the body which is covered by protective clothing/equipment intended to prevent such an injury, and it is severe enough to cause the granting of a medical leave, the item of clothing/equipment shall be placed out of service.

This item shall be tagged and identified with member’s name, unit, date and type of injury. Immediately upon return to quarters, the officer on duty shall notify the Division of Safety and be guided by instructions received as to disposition of said article.

63
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. Which choice is incorrect concerning operations after fires are under control? (Sec. 11.4.6, 11.4.7, 11.4.12)

(A) When it is necessary to remove a refrigerator from the premises, the refrigerator door must be removed in all cases.
(B) Officers with ladder companies last to leave the scene of operations shall place fire escape drop ladders and counterbalanced stairways in the proper position.

(C) No one shall be permitted to climb an aerial ladder with the top of the ladder in an unsupported position, except in an emergency where operations cannot otherwise be accomplished.
(D) In the event that a ladder pipe becomes temporarily inoperable from the base, the ladder may not be climbed under any circumstances. The ladder must be bedded and the problem resolved.

A

D - Ladder pipes shall be controlled from the base of the ladder. In the event that the ladder pipe becomes temporarily inoperable from the base, the ladder may be climbed in order to correct the position of the ladder pipe, provided that the aerial ladder is adjusted to the proper angle. With water flowing and a man climbing the ladder, the correct angle of the ladder will be that when the horizontal distance between tip of ladder and center of turntable is between 15 feet to 25 feet (70 to 80 degree angle).

64
Q

PART IV – REGULATIONS CHAP. 11

  1. At a fire in a large food processing plant, your unit is ordered to operate an emergency ammonia mixer. Choose the incorrect action taken. (Sec. 11.5.17)

(A) Hose lines were connected to the Siamese connection provided for water supply to the mixer.
(B) A 1 1⁄4 inch to 2 1⁄2 inch pipe from the Siamese to the mixer required a volume of 100 to 700 gallons of water per minute.

(C) As the Officer, you determined the pressure necessary to provide the required volume of water.

(D) The Control valve box was opened by a FD alarm box key.

(E) The ammonia valve was opened prior to starting water, and was shut down after the water

was shut down.

A

E - Water shall be supplied to the mixer while danger of excessive pressure exists. Water supply shall not be shut down until the ammonia valve is closed.

65
Q

PART V – EVOLUTIONS #21A

  1. Due to the tight street conditions preventing access for the 2nd arriving Ladder Company which is a Tower Ladder, the Deputy Chief ordered Ladder 232, a rear mount aerial ladder, to set up their ladder pipe. Which action taken should be corrected? (Sec. 3.1, 3.2, 3.5, 3.7)
    (A) The LCC placed the apparatus 25’ to 30’ from the building with the turn table centered for maximum coverage.
    (B) The LCC chocked the rear wheel on his side of the apparatus.
    (C) One halyard clip was attached to the ladder pipe handle. The other halyard clip was attached to the collar of the ladder pipe.
    (D) Realizing that the fire was on the same side of the apparatus as the hose crib, two members walked the hose supplying the ladder pipe around the front of the apparatus.
A

D - Assists #1 to feed hose onto ladder as it is raised from bed. Assists #1
to walk hose around rear of the apparatus if fire is on the same side of
apparatus as the hose crib. (Fig. 13)

66
Q

PART V – EVOLUTIONS #21A

  1. Which guideline concerning the use of the Ladder pipe is incorrect? (Sec. 3.9, 4 - Notes)
    (A) Salt water shall never be used, either during operations or drills.
    (B) One member controls the vertical direction of the stream with the halyards. The halyards shall be tied to the turntable when the ladder pipe is to remain in a fixed position.
    (C) The portable ladder pipe is clamped to the center of the top two rungs of the top sliding section of the aerial ladder.
    (D) A hose strap is secured just below the swivel of the ladder pipe, taking care to attach it only to the top sliding section.
A

A - Salt water shall never be used in drills.

67
Q

PART V – EVOLUTIONS #21A

  1. There are several numbers to remember when performing this evolution. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 4 – Notes)
    (A) When the street has a severe crown, allowances must be made to insure the ladder angle does not exceed 70 degrees.
    (B) The maximum extension of the ladder with 1 ½” tip is 100 feet.
    (C) The maximum nozzle pressure is 90 psi for a solid stream nozzle.
    (D) The recommended procedure is to supply the Siamese supplying the Ladder pipe from two separate sources of water (pumper, fireboat).
A

B - 3. There are several numbers to remember when performing this evolution. Which one is incorrect? (Sec. 4 – Notes)
(A) When the street has a severe crown, allowances must be made to insure the ladder angle does not exceed 70 degrees.
(B) The maximum extension of the ladder with 1 ½” tip is 100 feet.
(C) The maximum nozzle pressure is 90 psi for a solid stream nozzle.
(D) The recommended procedure is to supply the Siamese supplying the Ladder pipe from two separate sources of water (pumper, fireboat).