First Aid Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Occupations that include a legal obligation to give first aid include law enforcement
officers, park rangers, athletic trainers, lifeguards, and:

A

firefighters, flight attendants, & teachers

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2
Q

Which of the following statements concerning Good Samaritan laws is true?

A

protect those who act in good faith

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3
Q

A first aider must stay with the victim until another equally or better trained person
takes over. Failure to do so would be considered:

A

abandonment

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4
Q

Duty to act, breach of duty (substandard care), and injury and damages inflicted are all
factors involved in:

A

negligence

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5
Q

If a victim refuses first aid treatment, the first aid responder should:

A

call 911 and stay with victim until help arrives

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6
Q

Minimizing the risk of a lawsuit includes but is not limited to which of the following?

A

obtaining consent, not exceeding your training level, staying with the victim once care has began

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7
Q

First aid is intended to:

A

provide temporary assistance until proper medical care, if needed, is
obtained

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8
Q

Deviating from accepted standards of care that results in further injury to the victim is
known as:

A

negligence

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9
Q

Properly applied, first aid may mean the difference between:

A

life and death, rapid recovery and long hospitalization, temporary disability and permanent injury

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10
Q

The leading cause of death and disability in children and young adults is:

A

unintentional injuries

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11
Q

If the victim is unresponsive, permission to give first aid is known as:

A

implied consent

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12
Q

A(n) _____ is a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small,

A

Infectious disease

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13
Q

The first aider should leave the confirmation of death to:

A

a physician

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14
Q

Refusing to acknowledge an emergency is a strategy that can interfere with which
emergency action?

A

Deciding to help

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15
Q

What should the rescuer look for during the scene size- up?

A

hazards that can be dangerous to rescuer, cause of injury, and number of victims

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16
Q

Someone must call 9-1-1 if you are unsure of the victim’s condition, if the victim’s condition is life threatening or could become life threatening, or:

A

the victim needs the skill and equipment of EMS, spinal injury is suspected, distance or traffic could delay getting to the hospital

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17
Q

Which of the following are bloodborne diseases?

A

hepatitis B (HBV), hepatitis C (HCV), HIV, syphillis, malaria

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18
Q

Who is a vital link between emergency medical services (EMS) and the victim?

A

bystanders

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19
Q

The grieving process has ___ stages.

A

5

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20
Q

Why are laypersons less likely to offer help when an emergency occurs in a public place?

A

they assume someone else will take responsibility

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21
Q

In a serious situation, who should you call first?

A

9-1-1

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22
Q

A stressful event can be psychologically overwhelming and can result in a condition
known as:

A

post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)

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23
Q

When calling 9-1-1, which of the following information should be given to the EMS
dispatch?

A

victims location condition, number of persons involved, your name, and the number you called from

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24
Q

Which portion of blood defends against bacteria?

A

white blood cells

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25
Q
A
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26
Q

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place in the ____.

A

alveoli of the lungs
(respiratory system)

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27
Q

An unresponsive person is at risk for suffocation because:

A

normal swallowing controls won’t operate

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28
Q

Signs of in adequate breathing include which of the following?

A

wheezing, crowing, or gurgling noises

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29
Q

Inadequate circulation is known as ___.

A

shock

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30
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning infants and children?

A

trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible

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31
Q

Something that the first aider sees, hears, or feels is:

A

a sign

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32
Q

Something that the victim tells the first aider about is:

A

a symptom

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33
Q

If the unresponsive victim has difficulty breathing, place the victim:

A

place them in recovery position on side to open airway

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34
Q

A victim’s level of responsiveness or mental status can be described according to the
_____.

A

AVPU scale
(Alert. Verbal. Pain. Unresponsive.)

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35
Q

PEARL is a mnemonic used when assessing the:

A

pupils
Pupils. Equal. And. Reactive to. Light.

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36
Q

A key point in victim assessment is to conduct a ____.

A

primary survey

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37
Q

Which of the following should be checked when assessing the victim’s skin condition?

A

skin color, skin temperature, and skin moisture

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38
Q

Medical identification tags can help the first aider identify:

A

allergies, medications, medical history

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39
Q

The _____ helps determine the safety of the scene and the general condition of the
victim.

A

initial assessment

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40
Q

A______, consisting of a physical examination, follows the primary check.

A

secondary check

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41
Q

Using the mnemonic ____ can help you collect the victim’s history.

A

SAMPLE

Signs + Symptoms.!Allengies. Medications. Past Pertinent Medical History. Last Oral Intake. Events Leading Up to the Incident.

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42
Q

When performing chest compressions on an adult victim, the sternum should be depressed:

A

2 inches

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43
Q

If the choking victim is extremely obese or in an advanced stage of pregnancy:

A

perform chest thrusts instead of abdominal thrusts

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44
Q

The ratio of compressions to breaths when performing adult CPR is:

A

30 compressions; 2 breaths

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45
Q

Adults include those who are:

A

at puberty or older

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46
Q

After initiating CPR, you stop to check circulation again:

A

you don’t need to stop and check pulse

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47
Q

Which method should be used to open the airway for all unresponsive victims?

A

head tilt - chin lift

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48
Q

A child’s age ranges from:

A

1 year to puberty

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49
Q

To perform chest compressions on a child:

A

elbows locked, arms straight, 100 - 120 compression a min

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50
Q

Responsive choking in infants is managed through a sequence of:

A

5 back blows, 5 chest thrusts

51
Q

For effective chest compressions during CPR, the rescuer should:

A

push hard & fast

52
Q

If alone with an unresponsive adult victim, the rescuer should:

A

activate EMS immediately, stay with victim until help arrives

53
Q

What is the leading cause of death in the United States?

A

heart disease

54
Q

How many adhesive pads (electrodes) are placed on the victim’s chest?

55
Q

Which of the following statements about AEDs is true?

A

need to attach to dry chest

56
Q

Begin ____ immediately after the shock and follow the prompts of the AED.

57
Q

Defibrillation is most effective if used:

A

within the first few minutes of cardiac arrest

58
Q

A victim’s chance of survival dramatically improves through:

A

early CPR and early defibrillation

59
Q

An AED can:

A

deliver an electrical shock if necessary to treat a life threating irregular heartbeat

60
Q

Avoid placing the AED pads ____ implantable devices.

A

directly over

61
Q

When the heart stops beating:

A

cardiac arrest; when blood carrying afgen becomes unavailable to

62
Q

AED supplies should include:

A

razor, extra battery, hand towel, extra set of electrode pads, a breathing device and gloves

63
Q

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR):

A

procedure of providing oxygen and chest compressions to an unresponsive person

64
Q

Septic shock develops in some victims with:

A

bacterial infection

65
Q

Why are the legs NOT elevated more than 12 inches when treating for shock?

A

It would affect the victims breathing

66
Q

Without oxygen, the abdominal organs will start to be damaged irreparably in ____ minutes.

67
Q

Why is neither food nor drink given to a shock victim?

A

could cause nausea and vomitting

68
Q

Without oxygen, the brain will start to be damaged irreparably in ___ minutes.

69
Q

First aid for anaphylactic shock includes which of the following?

A

epipen (if able), call 911, positioning victim properly for breathing

70
Q

Which of the following statements concerning shock is correct?

A

a first aider can prevent shock from getting worse

71
Q

The three major cardiovascular causes of shock include all of the following EXCEPT which one?

A

respiratory insufficiency

72
Q

Shock refers to the failure of which system?

A

cardiovascular system

73
Q

The Perfusion Triangle includes:

A

heart, blood vessels, and blood

74
Q

n a healthy adult, initial clot function normally takes about ____ minutes

75
Q

What should be done when caring for a victim of severe internal bleeding?

A

monitor for breathing, treat for shock, seek immediate care

76
Q

Which of the following is a sign of internal bleeding?

A

bruses of skin, fracture ribs or bruises on the chest, vomiting or coughing up blood

77
Q

To treat bruises, the first aider should:

A

apply icepack over injury for 20 minutes

78
Q

Rapid blood loss of ____ quart(s) or more in an adult can lead to shock and death.

A

1
(2 pints = 1 quart)

79
Q

Clotting time is _____ when the victim is taking aspirin or is anemic.

80
Q

In ______ bleeding, blood spurts up to several feet from the wound

81
Q

What type of bleeding is the most common, is usually not serious, and is easily
controlled?

A

capillary bleeding

82
Q

Quite often, _____ bleeding will clot and stop by itself.

83
Q

If a dressing becomes blood-soaked, what should be done?

A

remove it and apply a new dressing

84
Q

What does first aid for gunshot wounds involve?

A

control bleeding, prevent shock, activate EMS, place victim in a supine position

85
Q

Care for open wounds includes which of the following guidelines?

A

wash, control bleeding, place sterilized wrapping or bandage over wound

86
Q

Which of the following are appropriate home treatments for the early stages of infection?

A

antibiotic ointment, elevation, soaking the wound in warm water

87
Q

Which wound is usually deep and narrow, with a high risk of infection?

A

puncture wound

88
Q

How should animal bites, dirty wounds, and puncture wounds be cleaned?

A

thoroughly wash with soap and water, remove any visible debris, apply antibiotic ointment and cover with clean badage.

89
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of open wounds?

A

break in the skin surface, external bleeding, possible infection

90
Q

A(n) _____ wound happens when a blunt object strikes the body.

91
Q

Which wound is smooth-edged?

92
Q

Which first aid supply is applied over a wound to control bleeding and prevent
contamination?

A

sterile dressing

93
Q

For a shallow wound, wash inside it with:

A

soap and water

94
Q

Which of the following is a sign or symptom that a bandage is too tight?

A

blue or pale skin, coldness of the extremity, tingling or loss of feeling

95
Q

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to cover a wound of the leg?

96
Q

The most appropriate bandage for sprains and contusions is:

A

an elastic roller bandage

97
Q

What is the purpose of a dressing?

A

control bleeding, prevent infection, absorb blood, protect wound from further injury

98
Q

Which bandage is most appropriate for use as a sling?

A

triangular bandage

99
Q

What is the purpose of a bandage?

A

hold dressing in place, apply direct pressure, prevent/reduce swelling, provide support

100
Q

Which method of applying a roller bandage can be used to provide compression at or
near a joint?

A

Figure-eight method

101
Q

Which of the following is placed directly over an open wound?

102
Q

Basic types of bandages include roller bandages, self-adhesive bandages, elastic bandages, triangular bandages, and _____.

A

tubular bandages

103
Q

The first step in caring for a burn victim with a first-degree or small second-degree burn
is to:

A

run cool water over the area immediately

104
Q

Which type of burn injury is characterized by an entrance wound and an exit wound?

A

electrical burn

105
Q

How long should cold be applied to the burned area?

A

20 minutes

106
Q

Neglect and non-supervision of children in the kitchen and bathtub are frequent causes of ____ burns in children.

107
Q

Because widespread cooling can cause hypothermia, cold should not be applied to more than ___ of an adult’s body surface.

108
Q

____ skin always burns easily and never tans

109
Q

A rough guide known as the ____ assigns a percentage value of total body surface area (BSA) to each part of an adult’s body.

A

Rule of Nines

110
Q

An aloe vera gel or moisturizer may be applied to which type of burn?

A

first degree

111
Q

Deaths and complications increase dramatically for burn victims from which age group?

A

Older than 55 years

112
Q

Which of the following can result from an electrical burn?

A

cardiac arrest, respiratory arrest,
muscle spasms

113
Q

According to the rule of nines, what percentage of an adult’s body surface is involved if both legs are burned?

114
Q

Blisters, swelling, weeping of fluids, and severe pain are characteristics of which type of burn?

A

second - degree burn

115
Q

The first aider should place a victim with a scalp wound:

A

with head and shoulders slightly elevated

116
Q

Befong moving a conscious victim, check for spinal in injuries if the victim was injured by:

A

fall from a height, diving accident, motor vehicle crash, direct blow to the neck

117
Q

In cases of scalp wounds, the first aider should expect ____ bleeding.

118
Q

Most nosebleeds:

A

are self limited

119
Q

Which type of spinal injury radiates pain down the legs?

A

lower - back

120
Q

How should you control bleeding when a depressed skull fracture is suspected?

A

apply pressure around the edges of the wound

121
Q

Which type of brain injury is a bruising of brain tissue?

A

brain contusion

122
Q

___ in the eye are the most frequent eye injury and can be painful.

A

loose objects

123
Q

Clear or pink watery fluid dripping from the nose or ear is a sign of a:

A

skull fracture

124
Q

An injury in which objects such as a bullet, knife, or other sharp object enters the brain is
called a:

A

penetration injury