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Recruit School > Firefighter Personal Protective Equipment (IFSTA) > Flashcards

Firefighter Personal Protective Equipment (IFSTA) Flashcards

1
Q

Two types of safety equipment

A
  1. PPE
  2. Respiratory protection
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2
Q

PPE usually consists of ___

A
  1. Respiratory protection equipment
  2. PASS
  3. Helmets, coats, trousers, boots, protective gloves, and protective hoods
  4. Eye protection
  5. Hearing protection
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3
Q

PASS

A

Personal Alert Safety System

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4
Q

Types of PPE

A
  1. Station and work uniforms
  2. Structural firefighting protective clothing
  3. Wildland firefighting protective clothing
  4. Roadway operations protective clothing
  5. Emergency medical protective clothing
  6. Special protective clothing such as chemical protective clothing
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5
Q

Two basic functions of station and work uniforms

A
  1. ID the wearer as a member of the organization
  2. Provide a layer of protection against direct flame contact
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6
Q

Firefighters should not wear clothing made of non-fire-resistant synthetic materials while on duty or under PPE because ___

A

These materials can melt when heated and stick to skin, causing serious burns

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7
Q

Types of non-fire-resistant synthetic materials include ___

A
  1. Nylon
  2. Polyester
  3. Iron-on patches
  4. Transfer decals
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8
Q

All station and work uniforms should meet ___ requirements

A

NFPA 1975

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9
Q

This standard provides the minimum requirements for work wear that is functional, will not contribute to firefighter injury, and will not reduce the effectiveness of outer PPE

A

NFPA 1975

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10
Q

Garments not addressed in NFPA 1975

A

Underwear

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11
Q

Underwear recommended

A

100% cotton

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12
Q

NFPA 1975 garments have a ___ stating their compliance certification

A

Permanently attached label

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13
Q

While clothing certified NFPA 1975 compliant is designed for fire resistance, it is not designed for ___

A

Firefighting operations

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14
Q

Some station and work uniforms are dual certified at both ___

A

Work uniforms and wildland protective clothing

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15
Q

Dual certified uniforms will always carry the ___

A

Appropriate certification labels

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16
Q

Required footwear when working around the station

A

Safety boots or shoes

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17
Q

Safety boots or shoes usually have ___

A

Steel toes, puncture-resistant soles, or special inserts

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18
Q

Do not wear station footwear during emergency operations because they might ___

A

Contaminate living quarters with potentially hazardous substances when you return to the station

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19
Q

Do not wash uniforms in ___

A

Personal washing machines or at public laundromats

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20
Q

Contaminated uniforms must be laundered at ___

A

The fire station or by a contractor

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21
Q

PPE design and construction standard

A

NFPA 1971 and NFPA 1500

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22
Q

PPE care and maintenance standard

A

NFPA 1851

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23
Q

Wildland firefighting protective clothing standard

A

NFPA 1977

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24
Q

SCBA standard

A

NFPA 1981

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25
Q

PASS device standard

A

NFPA 1982

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26
Q

Safety glasses standard

A

ANSI Standard Z87.1

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27
Q

Goggles for wildland firefighting standard

A

ANSI Standard Z87.1

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28
Q

All PPE designed for structural and proximity firefighting must meet the requirements of ___

A

NFPA 1971

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29
Q

Activities required for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation at fire that produce high radiant, conductive, or convective heat; includes aircraft, hazmat transportation, and storage tank fires

A

Proximity fire fighting

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30
Q

NFPA 1971 addresses the requirements for ___

A
  1. Helmets
  2. Trousers
  3. Eye protection
  4. Protective hoods
  5. Coats
  6. Boots
  7. Protective gloves
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31
Q

NFPA 1971 requires that all components must include a ___ that shows compliance with the standard

A

Permanent label

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32
Q

NFPA 1971 certification labels must include ___

A
  1. Manufacturer’s name, ID, or designation
  2. Country of manufacture
  3. Month and year of manufacture
  4. Size or size range
  5. Footwear size and width
  6. Manufacturer’s address
  7. Manufacturer’s lot or serial number
  8. Model name, number, or design
  9. Principal materials of construction
  10. Cleaning precautions
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33
Q

PPE components must be ___ with each other to provide the level of protection intended by the NFPA standard

A

Compatible

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34
Q

Changing, adding, or removing components from the PPE may ___

A
  1. Endanger your life
  2. Void the manufacturer’s warranty
  3. Affect your worker’s comp benefits
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35
Q

Structural PPE is designed to ___

A
  1. Cover all portions of your skin when you are reaching, bending, or moving
  2. Prevent heat transfer from the fire to your body
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36
Q

The usual temperature limit for structural firefighting PPE

A

Somewhere above 400°F

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37
Q

The time until the protective clothing reaches a dangerous absorption limit varies upon the ___

A

Heat transfer rate

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38
Q

During heat exposure, the protective clothing ___

A

Absorbs the heat

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39
Q

Since protective clothing ___, it can take longer than expected to cool

A

Absorbs and stores heat

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40
Q

You may experience contact burns or heat stress even after leaving the heated environment if you do not follow rehab protocols that ___

A

Allow enough time for the clothing to cool

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41
Q

How does structural firefighting PPE inhibit cooling?

A

Traps body heat and moisture inside the clothing barriers, not allowing sweat to cool you

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42
Q

Because of the trapped body heat in PPE, ___ may significantly increase

A
  1. Breathing and heartrate
  2. Core temp
  3. Skin temp
  4. Physiological stress
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43
Q

Benefits a helmet provides during structural fire fighting operations

A
  1. Preventing heated or scalding water and embers from reaching the ears and neck
  2. Protecting the head from impact injuries caused by objects or falls
  3. Providing protection from heat and cold
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44
Q

Shell color of the helmet indicates the ___

A

Firefighter’s rank

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45
Q

Markings on the helmet indicate ___

A

The unit

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46
Q

Removable ID labels on the helmet indicate ___

A

Accountability

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47
Q

Proper helmet wear ___

A

Chin strap secured, ear flaps down, ratchet at the back tightened

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48
Q

Forms of eye protection

A
  1. SCBA facepieces
  2. Helmet-mounted faceshields
  3. Goggles
  4. Safety glasses
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49
Q

Faceshields do not provide adequate protection from ___ and should be used ___

A
  1. Flying particles or splashes
  2. With a primary form of eye protection
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50
Q

Requires that goggles or other appropriate primary eye protection be worn when participating in operations where protection from flying particles or chemical splashes is necessary

A

NFPA 1500

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51
Q

During fire fighting operations, your primary eye protection is your ___

A

SCBA facepiece

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52
Q

Helmets must come equipped with ___

A

Faceshields or goggles

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53
Q

Situations where you will need eye protection when respiratory protection is not required

A
  1. Emergency medical responses where exposure to body fluids is possible
  2. Vehicle extrication operations
  3. Industrial occupancy inspections
  4. Station maintenance
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54
Q

Prescription safety glasses must have frames and lenses that ___

A

Meet ANSI standards for safety glasses

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55
Q

Fire-resistant fabric covering that protect your ears, neck, and face from exposure to heat, embers, and debris

A

Protective hoods

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56
Q

Protective hoods cover areas that may not be protected by the ___

A

SCBA

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57
Q

The protective hood’s face opening has an ___

A

Elastic edge that fits tightly to the SCBA facepiece

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58
Q

Hoods are available with ___

A

Long or short skirts

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59
Q

Three components of firefighting protective coats

A
  1. Outer shell
  2. Moisture barrier
  3. Thermal barrier
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60
Q

Function of the barriers in the firefighting protective coats

A
  1. Absorb heat and trap insulating air that prevents heat transfer from the fire to your body
  2. Limited protection from:
    - Direct flame contact
    - Hot water
    - Steam
    - Cold temps
    - Other environmental hazards
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61
Q

Protective coat required design features

A
  1. Retroreflective trim
  2. Wristlets
  3. Collar
  4. Closure system
  5. Drag rescue device
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62
Q

DRD

A

Drag rescue device

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63
Q

Protects the wrist from water, embers, and other debris. Keeps coat sleeves from riding up when reaching

A

Wristlets

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64
Q

Make the coat more visible at night or in low light conditons

A

Retroreflective trim

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65
Q

The collar must be ___

A

Turned up and under the helmet ear flap

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66
Q

Harness and hand loop at the back of the neck that enables a rescuer to grab and drag a downed firefighter

A

DRD

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67
Q

Coats typically contain reinforcement in what areas?

A
  1. High compression areas, such as the shoulders
  2. Areas prone to wear, such as the elbows
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68
Q

Protective trousers are constructed from ___

A

The same fabric, moisture barrier, and thermal layering used in protective coats

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69
Q

___ hold up the trousers

A

Heavy-duty suspenders

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70
Q

Protect hands and wrists from heat, steam, or cold penetration, and resist cuts, punctures, and liquid absorption

A

Protective gloves

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71
Q

Gloves must allow ___

A

Enough dexterity and tactile feel for you to perform your job effectively

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72
Q

Properly worn, the gloves ___

A

Cover the wristlet of the protective coat to form a complete seal

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73
Q

Firefighting boots must protect the foot, ankle, and lower leg from ___

A
  1. Puncture wounds to the sole
  2. Crushing wounds to the toes and instep
  3. Scalding water or contaminated liquids
  4. Burns from embers and debris
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74
Q

Firefighting boots have a ___ inner sole and a ___ toe cap

A
  1. Steel
  2. Steel or reinforced
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75
Q

___ are required in the shell of the firefighting boots

A

Thermal, physical, and moisture barriers

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76
Q

Boot tops fit inside the ___

A

Trouser legs

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77
Q

Emit a loud alarm to alert other personnel that a firefighter is in danger

A

PASS

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78
Q

The PASS alarm activates when the user is motionless for more than ___

A

30 seconds

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79
Q

The PASS alarm volume and duration

A

At least 95 dBA for at least 1 hour

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80
Q

PASS devices are useful in ___

A
  1. Total darkness
  2. Dense smoke
  3. Confined spaces
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81
Q

PASS devices have at least three settings ___

A
  1. Off
  2. Alarm
  3. Sensing
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82
Q

The pre-alarm tone is intended to ___

A

Prevent false alarms

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83
Q

Requires hearing protection devices

A

NFPA 1500

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84
Q

When to wear hearing protection

A
  1. When riding on an apparatus where the noise exceeds 90 dBA
  2. When operating:
    - Power tools
    - Apparatus pump
    - Generators
    - PASS device tests
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85
Q

Most effective hearing protection method when riding on the apparatus

A

Intercom/ear protection systems

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86
Q

Hearing protection during firefighting prevents you from ___

A
  1. Communicating with other firefighters
  2. Hearing changes in fire behavior
  3. Hearing radio transmissions
  4. Hearing calls from trapped victims
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87
Q

Wildland PPE and equipment includes

A
  1. Gloves
  2. Goggles
  3. Jackets
  4. Trousers
  5. One-piece jumpsuits
  6. Long sleeve shirts
  7. Helmet
  8. Face/neck shrouds
  9. Footwear
  10. Fire shelter
  11. Load-carrying or load-bearing equipment
  12. Respiratory protection
  13. Chainsaw protection
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88
Q

Wild land gloves are made of ___

A

Leather or inherently flame-resistant materials

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89
Q

Contains the specifications for wildland firefighting PPE and equipment

A

NPFA 1977

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90
Q

Wildland gloves protect ___

A

The hand and wrist from sharp or hot objects, temp extremes, and scalding water

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91
Q

Wildland goggles protect ___

A

The eyes from ash, embers, dust, and other particulates

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92
Q

Wildland jackets are made of ___

A

High-strength, flame-resistant fabric, such as aramid or treated cotton. May have a thermal liner.

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93
Q

Wildland jacket cuffs must ___

A

Close snugly around the wrists

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94
Q

Wildland trouser leg cuffs must ___

A

Close securely around the boot tops

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95
Q

___ are worn under the wildland jackets

A

Long-sleeve shirts

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96
Q

Wildland footwear

A

Typically lace-up safety boots with lug or grip tread soles

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97
Q

Why are steel toes not recommended in wildland boots?

A

Absorb and retain heat

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98
Q

Fire-resistant aluminized fabric covers that protect the firefighter from convected and radiant heat

A

Fire shelter

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99
Q

Requires the use of a fire shelter

A

NFPA 1500

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100
Q

The design of the fire shelter must meet ___

A

USDA Forest Service specification 5100-606

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101
Q

Belt and suspender systems that distribute the weight of the wildland firefighter’s equipment

A

Load-carrying or load-bearing equipment

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102
Q

APR

A

Air purifying respirators

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103
Q

PAPR

A

Powered air purifying respirators

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104
Q

APR and PAPRs must be ___

A

NIOSH certified, NFPA approved

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105
Q

Chainsaw protection

A

Chaps, leggings, or protective trousers made of ballistic nylon fibers that protect the legs

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106
Q

What do wildland firefighter’s carry in their packs?

A

Fusees, extra food, water, clean socks, and other items

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107
Q

Pyrotechnic flare sometimes used in wildland firefighting to start controlled burns

A

Fusee

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108
Q

Wildland protective garments will not protect you from ___

A

Extreme heat

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109
Q

In the absence of full, wildland firefighting gear, the minimum PPE to participate in ground cover firefighting is ___

A
  1. Helmet with eye protection and neck shroud
  2. Flame retardant shirt and pants (or one-piece jumpsuit)
  3. Protective footwear (sturdy boots without steel toes)
  4. Gloves
  5. Fire shelter (in crush resistive case)
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110
Q

Best protection when working on a roadway

A

Be visible to motorists and to work behind a barrier formed by your apparatus

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111
Q

Reflective vests should meet ___

A

ANSI 107, Class 2 or 3 (ANSI 207 are also an option)

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112
Q

Requires all personnel at roadway incidents to wear high visibility vests

A

DOT regulations

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113
Q

Reflective vests must have ___

A

Reflective trim and a five-point breakaway fasteners at the shoulders, side, and waists to meet NFPA safety standards

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114
Q

Moisture in the shell and liner can ___

A

Transfer heat rapidly

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115
Q

Make sure the overlap between the coat and trousers is a minimum of ___

A

2” at the waist when you bend over at a 90° angle

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116
Q

Hydrocarbon contamination will reduce the ___ of your PPE

A

Fire resistance

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117
Q

How often to inspect PPE?

A
  1. At the start of your work shift
  2. After every use
  3. After washing, repair, or decontamination
  4. On a periodic basis
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118
Q

If your PPE requires only routine cleaning that will not cause the item to be removed from service, you should ___

A

Perform the cleaning yourself

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119
Q

If your PPE requires advanced cleaning or decontamination, repairs, or replacement, ___

A

Report this to your supervisor immediately

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120
Q

Who should perform the annual inspection on PPE?

A

A member of the department trained in advanced inspection requirements

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121
Q

The amount and type of contamination and whether or not the equipment must be removed from service determines the ___

A

Type of cleaning

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122
Q

___ defines the 4 types of cleaning for PPE

A

NFPA 1851

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123
Q

Four types of cleaning for PPE

A
  1. Routine cleaning
  2. Advanced cleaning
  3. Specialized cleaning
  4. Contract cleaning
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124
Q

Number of sets of structural firefighting gear recommended for issue to each firefighter by the NFPA

A

Two

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125
Q

Wearing uncontaminated PPE is a preventive measure against the risk of ___

A

Cancer later in life

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126
Q

___ cleaning does not require that the clothing be removed from service

A

Routine

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127
Q

The process for routine cleaning includes ___

A
  1. Brushing off loose debris with a broom or soft bristle brush
  2. Using a gentle spray of water to rinse off debris or soil
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128
Q

To remove heavy soil in PPE ___

A

Clean manually in a utility sink in the designated cleaning area at the station

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129
Q

When cleaning PPE, always wear ___

A

Appropriate gloves and eye protection

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130
Q

Advanced cleaning should be done by ___

A

Personnel trained in the care and cleaning of protective clothing

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131
Q

Advanced cleaning personnel should use ___

A

A washing machine dedicated to cleaning protective clothing that is designed to handle heavy loads

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132
Q

___ cleaning is required when clothing is contaminated with hazmat or body fluids that cannot be removed by routine or advanced cleaning

A

Specialized

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133
Q

Who may perform specialized cleaning?

A

A trained department member or an outside contractor

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134
Q

___ cleaning typically removes accumulated grime or contaminants

A

Contract

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135
Q

Contractors who perform specialized cleaning may include the ___

A

Manufacturer, manufacturer’s representative, or a certified vendor

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136
Q

PPE should not be stored where it can come in contact with ___

A

Vehicle exhausts

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137
Q

PPE that is carried in personal vehicles should be placed in ___

A

Closable garment bags to protect it from sunlight degradation

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138
Q

Damaged protective clothing must be removed ___

A

Immediately

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139
Q

Clothing damaged beyond repair must be ___

A

Removed from service and destroyed

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140
Q

Some damaged clothing may be marked ___

A

“for training use only” and used in training that does not involve fire

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141
Q

Inhalation of smoke and other products of combustion poses ___ health hazards

A

Short term, long term, and even fatal

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142
Q

Most effective way to protect your health

A

Wear appropriate respiratory protection

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143
Q

SCBA

A

Self Contained Breathing Apparatus

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144
Q

The use of an SCBA is a required skill for firefighters according to ____

A

NFPA 1001

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145
Q

Operations requiring SCBA protection include any activities that may take place in or near a ___

A

Potentially IDLH environment

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146
Q

IDLH

A

Immediately dangerous to life and health

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147
Q

Byproducts of combustion present during overhaul can cause ___

A

Long-term health risks such as cancer or respiratory disease

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148
Q

Two categories of respiratory protection equipment

A
  1. Atmosphere-supplying respirators
  2. Air-purifying respirators
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149
Q

ASRs

A

Atmosphere-supplying respirators

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150
Q

APRs

A

Air-purifying respirators

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151
Q

Provide breathable air when working in oxygen-deficient, toxic, or gas-filled atmospheres

A

ASRs

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152
Q

Only filter particulates out of the surrounding air

A

APRs

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153
Q

The primary type of respiratory protection that you will use in the fire service

A

ASR

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154
Q

Classifies atmospheres as IDLH

A

NFPA 1500 and OSHA

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155
Q

Before entering a potentially IDLH structure or area, you must ___

A

Don the correct level of PPE and respiratory protection

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156
Q

Common respiratory hazards

A
  1. Oxygen deficiency
  2. Elevated temperatures
  3. Particulate contaminates
  4. Gases and vapors
  5. Airborne pathogens
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157
Q

When oxygen concentrations fall below ___, the human body increases its respiratory rate

A

18%

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158
Q

As less oxygen reaches body tissues, ___ occurs

A

Hypoxia

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159
Q

Most common cause of oxygen-deficient atomospheres

A

Combustion

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160
Q

Breathing air that has been heated can seriously damage the respiratory tract, the damage can be much worse when the air is ___

161
Q

Excessive heat inhaled quickly into the lungs can cause a serious ___

A

Decrease in BP and failure of the circulatory system. Can cause pulmonary edema and lead to asphyxiation

162
Q

Small particles that may be suspended in the air and are harmful to the respiratory system

A

Particulate contaminates

163
Q

Smaller particulates are especially dangerous because the ___

A

Nasal membranes filter particulates larger than 1 micrometer but cannot keep the smaller particulates from entering the lungs

164
Q

Sources of smaller particulates

A
  1. Vehicle exhaust emissions
  2. Chemical reactions
  3. Heated metals or metal compounds
  4. Combustion
165
Q

Exposure to particulate contaminates can cause ___

A
  1. Asthma
  2. Lung cancer
  3. Cardiovascular disease
  4. COPD
  5. Premature death
166
Q

Firefighters may encounter particulate contaminates in a variety of operations, including ___

A
  1. Wildland fires
  2. Welding and metal cutting
  3. Operation of fire apparatus and small engines
  4. Operations following an explosion or building collapse
  5. Structural fires, especially during overhaul
167
Q

___ APR/PAPRs have half or full facepiece units with replaceable filter elements that capture the particulates

A

Cartridge and canister type

168
Q

Pass ambient air through a single-use filter, canister, or cartridge as the wearer is breathing

169
Q

When using a half facepiece mask, ___ is required

A

Eye protection

170
Q

Particulate filters are used primarily at emergency medical incidents to protect against ___

A

Airborne diseases

171
Q

Limitations of the APR

A
  1. Limited life of the filters, canisters, and cartridges
  2. Constant monitoring of the contaminated atmosphere
  3. Normal oxygen content of the atmosphere before use
172
Q

Other than EMS, APRs are appropriate for ___

A
  1. Investigations or inspections involving body recovery
  2. Bird, bat, or rodent excrement
  3. Agricultural and industrial accidents
  4. Particulate-producing tools
173
Q

___ exist at standard temperature and pressure, while ___ result from temperature or pressure changes that affect a solid or liquid

A
  1. Gases
  2. Vapors
174
Q

Exposure to gases and vapors can cause ___

A
  1. Cancer
  2. Thyroid damage
  3. Eye irritation
  4. Cardiovascular disease
  5. Respiratory problems
175
Q

Common fire gases and vapors

A
  1. CO
  2. CO2
  3. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
  4. Hydrogen chloride
  5. Hydrogen sulfide
  6. Nitrous gases
  7. Phosgene
  8. Sulfur dioxide
  9. Ammonia
  10. Formaldehyde
176
Q

Hazardous concentrations of smoke above ___ are likely to be present during overhaul operations

A

Short-term exposure limits

177
Q

In many cases, the hazards from smoke increases as the size of the particulates ___

178
Q

Hazmat can produce potentially hazardous gases and vapors in nonfire emergencies, such as ___

A
  1. Incidents involving industrial, commercial, or warehouse occupancies
  2. Spills resulting from transportation accidents
  3. Leaks from storage containers or pipelines
179
Q

At any hazmat incident, always remain at a safe distance until ___

A

The completion of a risk analysis

180
Q

At a hazmat incident, you should always consider the atmosphere to be dangerous and wear the SCBA until ___

A

Air monitoring demonstrates that the atmosphere is safe

181
Q

Common nonfire gas and vapor types

A
  1. CO2
  2. Ammonia
  3. Sulfur dioxide
  4. Chlorine
  5. Pesticides
182
Q

Nonfire source of CO2

A

Produced by fire suppression systems

183
Q

Common source of ammonia

A

AC and cooling systems, chilling systems for hockey rinks, and agricultural applications

184
Q

Nonfire source of sulfur dioxide

A

Produced by AC and cooling systems

185
Q

Common source of chlorine

A

Found in water treatment facilities, water parks, and swimming pools

186
Q

Common source of pesticides

A

Found in commercial outlets, farms, nurseries, and residences

187
Q

Toxic gases may also be found in ___

A
  1. Sewers
  2. Caves
  3. Storage tanks
  4. Bins
  5. Storm drains
  6. Trenches
  7. Tank cars
  8. Other confined spaces
188
Q

Disease causing microorganisms suspended in the air

A

Airborne pathogens

189
Q

Disease causing microorganisms

A
  1. Viruses
  2. Bacteria
  3. Fungi
190
Q

Airborne pathogens may cause infection through ___

A

Inhalation or direct contact

191
Q

You may encounter airborne pathogens during ___

A
  1. Medical responses
  2. Vehicle extrications
  3. Rescue and recovery operations
  4. Terrorist attacks
192
Q

Protection against airborne pathogens includes ___

A

HEPA filters, APR/PAPRs, and SCBA

193
Q

HEPA

A

High-efficiency particulate air

194
Q

HEPA filter masks are ___ masks

A

Single-use

195
Q

Surgical masks are not approved for use against airborne pathogens but may be used on patients to prevent ___

A

Them from spreading diseases by exhaling coughing, or sneezing

196
Q

A type of atmosphere-supplying respirator that provides air in a cylinder

197
Q

Two main types of SCBA

A
  1. Open-circuit SCBA
  2. Closed-circuit SCBA
198
Q

Open-circuit SCBA use ___

A

Compressed air

199
Q

Closed-circuit SCBA use ___

A

Compressed oxygen

200
Q

In ___ SCBA, exhaled air is vented to the outside atmosphere

A

Open-circuit

201
Q

In ___ SCBA, exhaled air stays within the system for reuse

A

Closed-circuit

202
Q

A closed-circuit SCBA is also called a ___

A

Rebreather

203
Q

Closed-circuit SCBAs are much less common and are mainly used ___

A
  1. In shipboard operations
  2. At extended hazmat incidents
  3. At some rescue operations
  4. By industrial fire brigades
204
Q

Four basic components of an open-circuit SCBA

A
  1. Backplate and harness assembly
  2. Regulator assembly
  3. Air cylinder assembly
  4. Facepiece assembly
205
Q

Rigid frame with adjustable straps holds the breathing air cylinder on the backplate, and onto the firefighter’s back

A

Backplate and harness assembly

206
Q

Stabilize the SCBA, carry part of its weight, and provide a secure and comfortable fit

207
Q

Distributes some of the SCBA weight to the hips

A

Adjustable waist strap

208
Q

The air cylinder contains ___

A

Breathing air under pressure

209
Q

Construction of SCBA cylinder

A

Steel, aluminum, aluminum wrapped in fiberglass, or a Kevlar/carbon composite material

210
Q

Cylinder weight

A

8 to 20 lbs

211
Q

The weight of the SCBA air cylinder significantly increases ___ during emergency operations

A

Physical stress

212
Q

Connected to the cylinder

A
  1. Control valve
  2. Threaded stem and/or quick connect fitting
  3. Pressure gauge
213
Q

When the cylinder is in operation, the wearer ___ the control valve to permit air into the system

A

Fully opens

214
Q

___ attaches to the stem and connects the cylinder to the regulator assembly

A

High-pressure hose

215
Q

Air from the cylinder travels through the high-pressure hose to the ___

216
Q

The pressure gauge displays an estimate of the amount of air in the cylinder in ___

A

Pounds per square inch

217
Q

Effect of breathing air with 8% oxygen

A

Exposure for 8 min is fatal; exposure for 4-5 min can be treated resulting in recovery

218
Q

Effect of breathing air with 6% oxygen

A

Coma occurs in 40 seconds followed by death

219
Q

Effect of breathing air with 8% to 10% oxygen

A

Exposure results in mental failure, unconsciousness, ashen face, cyanosis, nausea, and vomiting

220
Q

Oxygen percentage that causes dizziness, headache, and rapid fatigue

A

10% to 12%

221
Q

Oxygen percentage that decreases the ability to perform strenuous work and coordination is impaired

A

15% to 19%

222
Q

30 minute cylinder pressure and volume

A

45 cu/ft @ 2216 psi
or
45 cu/ft @ 4500 psi

223
Q

45 minute cylinder pressure and volume

A

66 cu/ft @ 3000 psi
or
66 cu/ft @ 4500 psi

224
Q

60 minute cylinder pressure and volume

A

87 cu/ft @ 4500 psi

225
Q

The regulator reduces the high pressure of the cylinder air to ___ and controls ___

A
  1. Slightly above atmospheric pressure
  2. Air flow to the wearer
226
Q

When the wearer inhales, a ___ occurs in the regulator

A

Pressure differential

227
Q

How does the regulator admit air to the facepiece?

A

When the pressure differential occurs, the apparatus diaphragm moves inward, tilting the admission valve so that LP air can flow into the facepiece. The regulator diaphragm is held open to create positive pressure

228
Q

How does exhalation interact with the regulator?

A

Exhalation moves the diaphragm back to the closed position

229
Q

The regulator may be located on the ___

A

Facepiece, shoulder harness, or waist belt harness

230
Q

Depending on the SCBA model, the regulator will have control valves for ___ operations

A

Normal and emergency

231
Q

What are the valves on the regulator?

A
  1. Mainline valve
  2. Bypass valve
232
Q

On regulators equipped with both valves, the mainline valve ___ during normal operations and the bypass valve is ___

A
  1. Locks into the open position
  2. Closed
233
Q

On some SCBA, the bypass valve controls a ___ in the event that the regulator fails

A

Direct air line from the cylinder

234
Q

Once the regulator valves are set in their normal operating position, they should not be changed unless ___

A

The wearer needs the emergency bypass function

235
Q

The current generation of regulators includes only the ___ valve

236
Q

Provides fresh breathing air while protecting the eyes and face from injury

A

Facepiece assembly

237
Q

To provide fresh breathing air while protecting the eyes and face from injury, the facepiece must ___

A

Fit tightly to the face

238
Q

Facepiece assembly components

A
  1. Facepiece frame and lens
  2. Head harness and straps
  3. Exhalation valve
  4. Hose cup
  5. Speaking diaphragm
  6. Regulator fitting or hose connection
239
Q

According to ___, all new SCBA facepieces must be equipped with a HUD

240
Q

HUD

A

Heads up display

241
Q

Facepiece frame and lens construction

A

Made of clear safety plastic and mounted in a flexible rubber facepiece frame

242
Q

This feature displays a series of lights on the inside of the facepiece lens indicating the approximate amount of air remaining in the cylinder

243
Q

With adjustable straps, net or some other arrangement, holds the facepiece snugly against the face

A

Head harness and straps

244
Q

Simple, one-way valve that releases exhaled air without admitting any of the contaminated outside atmosphere

A

Exhalation valve

245
Q

Deflects exhalations away from the lens, reducing fogging or condensation on the lens

246
Q

Mechanical diaphragm grants the wearer limited comms. May be replaced by an electronic one connected to a portable radio

A

Speaking diaphragm

247
Q

Permits the regulator or hose to attach to the facepiece fram

A

Regulator fitting or hose connection

248
Q

The wearer of an SCBA facepiece must undergo a ___ to determine the correct fit for a proper seal

249
Q

The fit-test must use the same ___

A

Make, model, style, and size of facepiece that will be worn during emergency operations

250
Q

Two fit-tests accepted by OSHA

A
  1. Qualitative fit tests
  2. Quantitative fit tests
251
Q

QLFT

A

Qualitative fit test

252
Q

QNFT

A

Quantitative fit test

253
Q

QLFT and QNFT both provide an adequate assessment of ___

A

A facepiece’s ability to maintain a complete seal to the face

254
Q

Frequency of fit-tests

A

Annually or on a regular schedule

255
Q

___ prohibits beards or facial hair that prevents a complete seal between the facepiece and the wearer’s face

256
Q

Wearing eyeglasses is prohibited if ___

A

The side frames pass through the seal area

257
Q

___ allows firefighters to wear soft contact lenses while using full facepieces

A

NFPA 1500 and CFR 1910.134

258
Q

Conditions for wearing soft contact lenses while using full facepieces

A

The firefighter has demonstrated successful long-term (at least 6 months) use of contact lenses without any problems

259
Q

NIOSH

A

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health

260
Q

Provides the lowest thermal protection of any part of the PPE ensemble

A

Facepiece lens

261
Q

When should facepiece lenses be inspected?

A

Before and after each use

262
Q

Facepieces should be inspected in accordance with ___

263
Q

SCBA facepieces that exhibit evidence of exposure to intense heat must be ___

A

Removed from service and repaired or replaced

264
Q

Signs of exposure to intense heat to an SCBA facepiece

A
  1. Cracking
  2. Crazing
  3. Bubbling
  4. Discoloration
  5. Deformation
  6. Gaps between the lend and frame
265
Q

___ and ___ are essential to preventing facepiece failure

A
  1. Situational awareness
  2. An understanding of fire behavior
266
Q

Facepiece radiant heat requirements

A

Must be able to withstand radiant heat conditions typical for a structure fire for 24 minutes

267
Q

Remote pressure gauge must be mounted ___

A

In a visible position

268
Q

The remote pressure gauge shows pressure in the ___

269
Q

Pressure readings are most accurate at or near ___

A

The upper range of the gauge’s rated working pressures

270
Q

At lower pressures, assume the ___ reading is correct

271
Q

EOSTI

A

End-of-service-time indicators

272
Q

How many EOSTIs are installed on SCBAs

273
Q

The EOSTIs alarm warns the user that ___

A

The system is reaching the end of its air supply

274
Q

When will the EOSTI warn the user typically?

A

33% of the cylinders capacity

275
Q

EOSTI alarm

A

Both an audible alarm and a flashing light or physical vibration

276
Q

The EOSTI alarm cannot be turned off until ___

A

The air cylinder valve is closed and the system is bled of all remaining pressure

277
Q

RIC UAC

A

Rapid intervention crew universal air coupling

278
Q

The RIC UAC is located ___

A

Within 4” of the cylinder outlet

279
Q

The RIC UAC allows ___

A

Any cylinder that is low on air to be transfilled from another cylinder, equalizing the pressure between the two

280
Q

The use of the RIC UAC requires ___

A

Thorough training

281
Q

Allows two firefighters to share air from one cylinder without removing their facepieces

282
Q

EEBSS

A

Emergency Escape Breathing Support System

283
Q

The firefighter with the malfunctioning SCBA can connect their regulator to ___ on the working SCBA

A

The buddy breathing output

284
Q

As both firefighters use the same air, they should ___

A

Make their way out of the dangerous environment toward the nearest means of emergency egress or nearest safe haven

285
Q

Contain analog or digital displays to provide info about the operation of the the SCBA and PASS device

A

PASS control modules

286
Q

The PASS control modules are required to show ___

A

Remaining breathing air cylinder content

287
Q

Other info that may be show on a PASS control module

A
  1. Cylinder pressure
  2. Alarms
  3. Remaining battery life
  4. Estimates for remaining operational time
288
Q

Show vital equipment info on the inside of the facepiece

289
Q

HUD locations

A

Integrated into the facepiece or mounted on the shoulder and project an image onto the facepiece

290
Q

HUD displays breathing cylinder content in what increments?

A

100, 75, 50, and 33 percent

291
Q

What standard determines the increments displayed using the HUD?

292
Q

The HUD should flash at ___ increments to indicate to the wearer ___

A
  1. 1%
  2. The rate at which air is being used
293
Q

All PASS devices are designed to emit ___ when they activate

294
Q

The intention of the PASS device

A

For rescuers to receive both a visual and audio signal to follow when searching for a downed firefighter

295
Q

NFPA 1581 allows voice communication systems to have a ___

A

Volume control

296
Q

Wearer limitations for SCBA

A
  1. Lack of physical condition
  2. Lack of agility
  3. Impaired balance
  4. Inadequate pulmonary capacity
  5. Weakened cardiovascular ability
  6. Psychological limitations
  7. Unique facial features
297
Q

Equipment limitations for SCBA

A
  1. Limited visibility
  2. Decreased ability to communicate
  3. Decreased endurance
  4. Decreased mobility
  5. Poor condition of apparatus
  6. Low air cylinder pressure
298
Q

How to offset wearer limitation for SCBA

A

Through constant training with each type of respiratory protection equipment used, period medical evaluations, and proper fit testing

299
Q

Training will make you more ___ while wearing respiratory protection equipment

A

Confident and more effective

300
Q

SCBA weight

A

25 to 35 lbs

301
Q

How to control SCBA equipment limitations

A

Frequent and proper inspections, care, and maintenance

302
Q

Four common methods of donning SCBA

A
  1. Over the head
  2. Coat
  3. Seat
  4. Side mount
303
Q

Checks to make immediately prior to donning the SCBA if daily inspections are not performed

A
  1. Check air cylinder gauge to ensure it is full
  2. Check the remote gauge and cylinder gauge to ensure that they read within limits
  3. Check the harness assembly and facepiece to ensure straps are fully extended
  4. Operate all valves to ensure they function properly and left in the correct position
  5. Test the LP alarm
  6. Test the PASS device
  7. Check all battery-powered functions
304
Q

SCBA stored in cases can be donned using the ___

A

Over the head or coat method

305
Q

Requires that SCBA be held in place by a mechanical latching device

306
Q

The facepieces should be stored in ___

A

A drawstring bag or other quick opening bag, or in a pouch on your protective coat

307
Q

Do not keep the facepiece connected to the ___ during storage

308
Q

Why shouldn’t the facepiece be stowed connected to the regulator?

A

In order to check for proper facepiece seal

309
Q

Never connect the regulator and breath cylinder air when seated in the apparatus because ___

A

Doing so will deplete your air supply before you arrive at the incident

310
Q

___ requires firefighters to remain seated and belted at all times while the apparatus is in motion

311
Q

The air cylinder’s position in the seat back should match the ___

A

Proper wearing position for the firefighter

312
Q

A seat mounted SCBA allows personnel to ___ and makes ___

A
  1. Check the equipment for frequently
  2. Conducting safety check more convenient
313
Q

The extra weight of the SCBA makes slips and falls ___

A

More likely

314
Q

Different facepiece harnesses

A

Some use a rubber harness, while others use a mesh skull cap

315
Q

General considerations for donning the facepiece

A
  1. Fully extend all straps
  2. Ensure that no hair is between the skin and the facepiece sealing surface
  3. Center the chin in the chin cup and the harness at the rear of the head
  4. Tighten the straps by pulling the opposing straps evenly and simultaneously to the rear
  5. Tighten the lower straps first and work up
  6. Ensure a complete seal, the exhalation valve is functioning, and all connections are secure
  7. Ensure the hood is over the facepiece harness and covering all exposed skin, vision is not obscured, and not portion of the hood is between the facepiece and your face
  8. Wear the helmet with the chin strap secured
316
Q

___ establishes the frequency of SCBA inspections

317
Q

SCBA inspections are typically performed ___

A

Daily, weekly, or whenever firefighters report for duty

318
Q

The period between SCBA inspections must not exceed ___

319
Q

Qualified SCBA repair technicians must inspect the units ___

A

Annually and after any repairs

320
Q

When to clean the SCBA

A
  1. After each use
  2. At the start of each duty shift
  3. Every week
321
Q

Daily/weekly SCBA inspection should include ___

A
  1. Facepiece
  2. Breathing air cylinder assembly
  3. LP alarm
  4. Pressure indicator gauges
  5. Backplate and harness assembly
  6. Hoses
  7. Regulator
  8. Integrated PASS
322
Q

What date should be checked on the SCBA air cylinder?

A

Hydrostatic test date

323
Q

You should clean and sanitize the SCBA facepiece after each use to prevent ___

A

Debris from collecting in the exhalation valve and regulator fitting

324
Q

Dirt or foreign materials can cause the exhalation valve to malfunction and allow ___

A

Cylinder air to escape

325
Q

How to clean the facepiece

A

Wash thoroughly with warm water containing a mild commercial disinfectant and then rinse with clear, warm water

326
Q

After cleaning the facepiece, take special care to ensure the proper operation of the ___

A

Exhaust valve

327
Q

How to dry the facepiece

A

Either air dry or use a lint free cloth

328
Q

Do not use paper towels to dry the facepiece because ___

A

They will scratch the facepiece lens

329
Q

Although facepieces are impact resistant, they ___ easily

330
Q

What causes facepiece lenses to fog?

A

Difference between inside and outside temps or a defective nose cup

331
Q

Who performs the annual SCBA maintenance?

A

Specially trained, factory-qualified technicians

332
Q

Three breathing air sources to refill depleted SCBA air cylinders

A
  1. Stationary fill systems
  2. Mobile fill systems
  3. Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems
333
Q

FBARS

A

Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems

334
Q

Stationary fill systems are installed at ___

335
Q

Mobile fill systems are installed on ___

A

Apparatus or trailers

336
Q

FBARS are installed in ___

A

High-rise buildings

337
Q

FBARS are also called ___

338
Q

FFARs

A

Firefighter Air Replenishment Systems

339
Q

SCBA fill systems must provide ___

A

Type I Grade D quality air

340
Q

Safety precautions when filling an SCBA cylinder

A
  1. Check the hydrostatic test date
  2. Perform required cylinder inspection before filling
  3. Check the working pressure
  4. Wear the required hearing and eye protection
  5. Place the cylinder in a shielded fill station
  6. Fill the cylinder slowly to prevent overheating
  7. Ensure that the cylinder is completely full but not overpressurized
  8. Only allow trained personnel to operate the fill equipment
341
Q

Filling unshielded cylinders while a firefighter wis wearing the SCBA is prohibited. However, ___ may be granted an exception to this rule

A

A RIC rescuing a trapped or incapacitated firefighter

342
Q

RIC

A

Rapid intervention crew

343
Q

Criteria to meet before filling a worn SCBA

A
  1. NIOSH-approved RIC UAC fill options are used
  2. Risk assessment conducted to limit safety hazards and ensure necessary equipment is fully operational
  3. Imminent threat to the safety of the downed firefighter, and immediate action is required to prevent loss of life or serious injury
344
Q

Two types of stationary fill stations

A
  1. Cascade system
  2. Directly from a compressor air purification system
345
Q

Filling procedures must be posted on the ___

A

Fill station

346
Q

When filling at a stationary system, cylinders are placed in ___

A

Rupture proof sleeves

347
Q

A fill station must have the breathing air ___

A

Tested by a third party regularly and document the results

348
Q

Person usually responsible for maintaining the documentation showing the testing of the fill station breathing air

A

Department’s health and safety officer

349
Q

Type of stationary fill station that is completely automated

A

Auto-cascade system

350
Q

Auto-cascade systems fill cylinders to a ___

A

Programmable desired pressure

351
Q

Designed to refill air cylinders at emergency incidents

A

Mobile breathing air systems

352
Q

Typically consist of a fill station equipped with a breathing-air compressor or cascade fill station and are mounted on a trailer or the apparatus chassis

A

Mobile breathing air systems

353
Q

A mobile breathing air systems may be designed to support a ___ or a ___ installed in a high-rise structure

A
  1. SAR system
  2. FBARS
354
Q

SAR

A

Supplied Air Respirator

355
Q

FBARS is typically required on new construction taller than ___

356
Q

Allows high-rise fires to be fought more effectively and avoid the need to carry many full SCBA cylinders to upper floors

357
Q

___ provide an endless source of breathing air to any floor within the structure from a ground level connection

358
Q

EAS

A

Emergency Air Storage

359
Q

How full should SCBA cylinders be maintained?

360
Q

If only one firefighter is available to replace the air cylinder, the firefighter will ___ in order to replace it

A

Doff the SCBA

361
Q

After changing another firefighter’s cylinder, report the ___

A

New cylinder’s pressure to the wearer

362
Q

Keep empty cylinders ___ from full cylinders

363
Q

What to do with damaged cylinders

A

Clearly mark and keep them separate from both empty and full cylinders

364
Q

SCBAs should be stored for ___

A

Quick and easy donning

365
Q

Protect respiratory equipment from ___

A

Contamination, temperature changes, and UV light

366
Q

If placing the SCBA in seat mounts, arrange it so that you can ___

A

Don the SCBA without having to remove the seat belt

367
Q

Additional safety concerns when wearing an SCBA

A
  1. Fatigue
  2. Regulating air supply
  3. Proper exit procedures
368
Q

Before entering the IDLH atmosphere, check the ___ and estimate ___ based on ___

A
  1. Cylinder pressure
  2. Your point of no return
  3. Your air supply, pressure, and mission objective
369
Q

In any IDLH atmosphere, work in teams of ___

A

Two or more

370
Q

Team members must remain in ___ while in the the hazardous area

A

Physical, voice, or visual contact with each other

371
Q

___ is not sufficient to remain in contact

A

Radio contact

372
Q

A ___ can help maintain contact

A

Thermal imager

373
Q

TI

A

Thermal imager

374
Q

Most common exit procedures

A

Nonemergency exit procedures

375
Q

Exit procedures used in life-threatening situations such as SCBA failures and catastrophic changes during the incident

A

Emergency exit procedures

376
Q

Situations or events that signal the need for exit

A

Exit indicators

377
Q

At an incident, the ___ is responsible for having the environment monitored constantly

378
Q

PEL

A

Permissible exposure limit

379
Q

When monitoring reveals a potential hazard, such as chemical concentrations that approach the PEL, the IC issues orders to ___

A

Change the required level of respiratory protection or withdraw from the area completely

380
Q

Symptoms of oxygen deficiency to report and evacuate from immediately

A
  1. Light-headedness
  2. Loss of coordination
  3. Rapid fatigue
  4. Disorientation
  5. Increased breathing rates
381
Q

Nonemergency exit techniques are based on the ___ and the accountability requirements of ___

A
  1. ICS
  2. NFPA 1500
382
Q

Nonemergency exit techniques include ___

A
  1. The buddy system
  2. Entry/egress paths
  3. Controlled breathing
383
Q

Each team member is responsible for the safety of ___

A

The other member

384
Q

Team members must leave as ___

A

A group or pairs

385
Q

The only time one member may work alone

A

In a confined space where two members cannot fit

386
Q

When one team member is working alone in a confined space, the other should be ___

A

Outside the area monitoring the search line, ready to enter the space if the need for rescue arises

387
Q

Allow for efficient air use in IDLH atmospheres

A

Controlled breathing

388
Q

Non-load-bearing rope that is anchored to a safe, exterior location and attached to a firefighter during search operations to act as a safety line

A

Search line

389
Q

Point at which the air in the SCBA will only last long enough to exit a hazardous atmosphere

A

Point of no return

390
Q

Maximum time-weighted concentration at which 95% of exposed healthy adults suffer no adverse effects over a 40 hour work week

391
Q

PEL is expressed in ___

392
Q

PPM

A

Parts per million

393
Q

Two controlled breathing techniques

A
  1. Inhale naturally through the nose, then forcefully out the mouth
  2. Reilly emergency breathing method
394
Q

Reilly emergency breathing method

A

Inhale deeply through the nostrils, expanding the diaphragm to fill the lungs fully. When the lungs are full, hum while exhaling in a slow, consistent manner

395
Q

Controlled breathing is an important exit technique because it ___

A

Reduces air consumption during the time required to exit

396
Q

When you exit an IDLH area, it is important to use the ___

A

Same path you used to enter

397
Q

You can follow ___ to exit

A

Hoses or search lines

398
Q

Check in with the ___ after you have safely exited the structure and reached a safe distance

A

Accountability officer

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