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FIP notes Flashcards

1
Q

eosinophilia

A

pink colour

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2
Q

pyknosis

A

shrinking of nucleus and clumping of chromatin

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3
Q

karyorrhexis

A

fragmentation and break down of nucleus

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4
Q

karyolysis

A

pallor and dissolution

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5
Q

gangrenous necrosis is caused by

A

clostridium perfringens

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6
Q

dystrophic calcification

A

deposition in necrotic tissue with normal serum calcium

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7
Q

metastatic calcification

A

deposition in normal tissue with increased serum calcium

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8
Q

primary lysosomal granule

A

myeloperoxidase

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9
Q

secondary lysosomal granule

A

lactoferrin and collagen

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10
Q

tertiary lysosomal granule

A

gelatinase plasminogen activator

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11
Q

what causes the transient adherence of neutrophils?

A

selectins

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12
Q

what causes the firm adherence of neutrophils? name them

A

integrins

ICAM 1 and VCAM1

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13
Q

what mediates the movement of neutrophils through the endothelial junction?

A

PECAM

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14
Q

neutrophils migrate to the site following the chemokine concentration of (2)

A

IL-6

leukotrienes

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15
Q

what are the vasoactive amines and what are they released by and state their fxn

A

vasoactive amines cause vasodilation and increased permeability
histamine - released by mast cells, basophils and platelets
serotonin - released by platelets upon aggregation

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16
Q

state the functions of leukotrienes

A

LTB4 - attracts and activates neutrophils (chemokine)

LTC,D,E4 - vasoconstriction (bronchospasm) and increased permeability

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17
Q

state the functions of prostaglandins

A

PGD,E2 - increased vasodilation and increased permeability

PGE only - pyrexia

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18
Q

state the functions of prostacyclins

A

PGI2 - vasodilation and decreased platelet aggregation

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19
Q

state the function of TXA 2

A

vasoconstriction and increased platelet aggregation

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20
Q

state the function of PAF

A

platelet aggregation
vasoconstriction
chemotaxi

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21
Q

what is the mechanism of action of aspirin and NSAIDs

A

cyclooxygenase inhibitors and act by phospholipase A2 inhibition => also inhibits PGE2 production => relief of pyrexia

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22
Q

what type of cells contain heparin and state its function

A

basophils/ mast cells

anticoagulant

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23
Q

what cytokines do dendritic cells release

A

IL-2 and IFNgamma

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24
Q

during a granulomatous inflammation, T cells continuously activate macrophages via

A

IL-2 and TNFgamma

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25
Q

sarcoidosis is a non-caseating granuloma separated by…

what does this cause?

A

schaumann bodies
asteroid bodies
this causes calcification

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26
Q

sinus formation is a tract of granulation tissue from a cavity to a surface. what is it associated with?

A

osteomyelitis

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27
Q

a fistula is characteristic of what diseases (2)

A

crohn’s disease

diverticular disease

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28
Q

what is the function of hepcidin and what does an increase of it indicate?

A

controls delivery of iron to blood

indicates inflammation

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29
Q

what controls the cell to cell matrix interactions?

A

integrins

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30
Q

differentiate between type 3 and type 1 collagen.
what is the enzyme and its catalyst?
what phase of wound healing does this occur and what also happens at that stage?

A 
type 1 - elastic 
type 3 - non-elastic 
collagenase enzyme 
Zn catalyst 
remodelling (last stage)
dehydration of excessive ECM by metalloproteinase
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31
Q

during primary intention healing, what day does collagen 3 deposit and what day are sutures removed (enough collagen 1 deposition)?

A

day 5 and 7

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32
Q

what vitamin is important for collagen formation?

A

vit C

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33
Q

what element is involved in the crosslinking of collagen/

A

copper

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34
Q

give 2 neoplasms that warrant the use of sentinel node biopsy

A

breast and melanoma

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35
Q

what is herceptin used for?

A

used in IHC to determine tamoxifen’s viability

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36
Q

what is the difference between dysplasia and dyskaryosis and in situ?

A

degree of change from normal epithelium without involving the full thickness of the epithelium
the same but only cytological (without architecture) => fine needle aspirate
the same but entire epithelium

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37
Q

what kind of anemia is caused by cytotoxic drugs and what do these cytotoxic drugs interfere with?

A

megaloblastic

DNA synthesis fcked

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38
Q

what kind of anemia is caused by marrow infiltration by tumour cells?

A

hypoplastic anemia

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39
Q

true or false
tumour activation of clotting factors, platelets, and endothelial cells + inhibition of fibrinolysis leads to abnormal clotting => DVT, PE

A

True

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40
Q

PS of small cell carcinoma

A 
cushing syndrome (ACTH production)
hyponatremia (SIADH production)
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41
Q

cushing syndrome (ACTH production) is a PS of

A

small cell carcinoma

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42
Q

PS of squamous cell carcinoma

A

hypercalcemia (PTHRP, TGFalpha, IL-1)

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43
Q

hypercalcemia (PTHRP, TGFalpha, IL-1) is a PS of

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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44
Q

hyponatremia (SIADH production) is a PS of

A

small cell carcinoma

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45
Q

PS of adenocarcinoma

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

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46
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is a PS of

A

adenocarcinoma

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47
Q

TRUE or FALSE you whore?

neuropathy, myopathy, dermatomyositis, cerebellar degeneration and gynecomastia are all PS’s

A

TRUE bitch

48
Q

Li Fraumeni Syndrome is caused by what defect and what type of cancer is formed

A

p53

sarcomas

49
Q

what are the histological features of a neuroendocrine tumour?

A

salt and pepper chromatin
nested appearance
rosette formation

50
Q

where do carcinoid tumours usually arise?

A

central large bronchus

appendix

51
Q

describe the carcinoid tumour in the bronchus

A

arises in the central large bronchi and grows intraluminally, characterised by BRIGHT RED haemoptysis

52
Q

what is carcinoid syndrome?

what are the symptoms and diagnosis?

A

inadequate detoxification of serotonin which regulates intestinal movement
symptoms - facial flushing, bronchospasms, diarrhea and pulmonary stenosis
Dx - increase 5-HIAA in urine (breakdown product)

53
Q

what is the difference between type 1 and type 2 Multiple Endocrine Neoplasm (MEN)

A

type 1 - PT, islet of pancreas and pituitary

type 2 - PT, T, adrenal

54
Q

what cancer has a characteristic lymphocytic response? what is its most common metastases?

A

seminomas (dysgerminoma)

lung

55
Q

what tumour is malignant in males but benign in females

A

teratoma (dermoid cyst in females)

56
Q

HCG is associated with what carcinoma, what type of carcinoma is it
which germ layer does it arise from
what is the diagnosis

A

choriocarcinoma
germ cell tumour
trophoblastic
if patient is not pregnant but has consistent vomiting and nausea –> choriocarcinoma

57
Q

embryonic tumours end in _____

A

blastoma

58
Q

give 2 examples of borderline tumours

A

STUMP (smooth muscles in uterus) and phyllodes in breast

59
Q

familial breast cancer is due to a mutation of what genes

A

BRCA 1 and 2

60
Q

tamoxifen, although treating breast cancer can cause _______ carcinoma and can cause ____

A

endometrial carcinoma

DVT

61
Q

EBV causes

what marker is used for this?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma (c-ymc)

62
Q

Hep B and C causes

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

63
Q

HPV causes

A

cervical, anal, oropharyngeal cancer (all 3 openings)

64
Q

HHV 8 causes

A

kaposis’s sarcoma

65
Q

HPV causes alteration in which tumour suppressor genes

A

p53 and retinoblastoma (Rb)

66
Q

Alterations on tumour suppressor genes are mainly done through ….

A

deletions or translocations

67
Q

a mutation in APC causes what type of cancer

A

Familial Colon Cancer

68
Q

state the process of amyloid formation

A

misfolding of the tertiary protein
Beta-pleated sheet aggregates into cytotoxic oligomers
forms the insoluble amyloid fibril deposits

69
Q

composition of amyloid

A
  1. non branching beta pleated fibrils (this is the misfolded protein)
  2. non fibrillar pentagonal glycoprotein (Amyloid P)
  3. proteoglycans
70
Q

how do amyloids bind together and how do you see it?

A

H-H bonds
congo red staining under normal light
should appear pink (eosinophilic hyaline)

71
Q

discuss primary amyloidosis

A

associated with immunocyte imbalance => AL amyloidosis

overproduced immunoglobulin light chains by proliferating plasma cells in Multiple myeloma (M spike)

72
Q

discuss secondary amyloidosis

A

associated with chronic inflammation => AA amyloidosis
overproduction of acute phase proteins during chronic inflammation
derived from SAA (serum amyloid associate precursor misfolded in liver)

73
Q

what is Abeta amyloid associated with

A

overproduction of APP => Alzheimer’s disease

74
Q

what does ATTR amyloidosis affect

A

overproduction of transthyretin (affects heart)

75
Q

what is ACal amyloid associated with

A

overproduction of calcitonin

thyroid medullary carcinoma

76
Q

where do we see a lardaceous spleen?

A

amyloidosis

77
Q

what organ is affected most by amyloidosis and where does the deposition occur?

A

liver (increased LFTs)

in space of Disse first then parenchymal spaces and sinusoids

78
Q

what do you expect to find in the intimal layer in atherosclerosis?

A

smooth muscle cells and lipids

79
Q

hyperplasia
hypertrophy
atrophy

A

increase #
increase size
decrease size

80
Q

why does atheroma not deposit in veins

A

reduced blood pressure

81
Q

what causes collagen deposition in atherosclerosis

A

smooth muscle cells

82
Q

stable vs unstable plaque

A

stable - thick fibrous caps and calcification

unstable - thin and inflammation

83
Q

true vs false aneurysm

A

intact wall vs not intact

84
Q

state a congenital and infectious cause of aneurysm

A

c - Berry Aneurysm (circle of willis)

i - mycotic aneurysm in TB

85
Q

where does an abdominal aortic aneurysm occur

A

above aortic bifurcation

below renal artery

86
Q

what structure in most likely to be affected by an AAA?

A

ureter

87
Q

treatment of AAA

A

statins

88
Q

what is marfan’s syndrome and what does it cause?

A

defect in connective tissue affecting aorta

thoracic dissection

89
Q

in the case of reperfusion injury, what is the treatment and what does it do?

A

diltiazem

calcium channel blocker - prevent Ca entry into cell

90
Q

virchow’s triad

A
  1. endothelial damage
  2. abnormal blood flow (bro this is not stasis you idiot)
  3. hypercoagulability
91
Q

state the differences of macroscopic appearance of infarction in solidified vs spongy organs

A

solidified - pale/ white with little hemosiderin pigment

spongy - red/brown with INCREASED hemosiderin pigment

92
Q

where do we see hypochromic RBC

A

iron deficiency microcytic anemia

93
Q 
what is this anemia?
symptoms:
pallor 
angular cheilitis 
brittle nails 
atrophic glossitis
A

iron deficiency microcytic anemia

94
Q

what is this?
Dx:
decreased Hb, MCV, serum Fe, Fe sat, ferritin

A

iron deficiency microcytic anemia

95
Q

what is this?
Dx:
decreased Hb, MCV, PCV
normal serum Fe, fe sat and ferritin

A

thalassemia

96
Q

what do phenytoin and anticonvulsants do

A

folate malabsorption => megaloblastic macrocytic anemia

97
Q

what is pernicious anemia and what does it lead to?

A

autoimmune disease affecting stomach walls, causes gastritis and hence B12 deficiency => megaloblastic macrocytic anemia

98
Q

what is this anemia?
symptoms:
decreased myelin production leading to neural problems

A

B12 deficiency megaloblastic macrocytic anemia

99
Q

what kind of anemia is caused by hyperthyroidism

A

megaloblastic macrocytic anemia

100
Q

what kind of anemia is caused by RA, chronic inflammation and renal disease? state the Dx.

A

normocytic anemia
Dx -
normal Fe, fe sat
normal or increased ferritin (since it is an acute phase reactant)

101
Q

hypocellularity of the bone marrow is indicative of what anemia?

A

normocytic

102
Q

positive coomb’s test indicates (anemia)

A 
haemolytic anemia (autoimmune haemolysis)  
normocytic anemia (chronic inflammation due to autoimmune disease e.g. RA)
103
Q

by products of RBC breakdown (haemolytic anemia)

A

LDH

bilirubin

104
Q

what is the major side effect of dapsone

A

autoimmunity

105
Q

what is the RBC membrane defect that causes haemolytic anemia?

A

defect in spectrum proteins causing spherocytosis

106
Q

what is the RBC enzyme defect that causes haemolytic anemia?

A

G6PD or pyruvate kinase => oxidative haemolysis of RBC

107
Q

what is the RBC Hb defect that causes haemolytic anemia?

A

sickle cell - change from glutamic acid into valine

thalassemia - 1 chain overexpressed –> agglutination

108
Q

what is the only nonimmune and acquired anaemic defect causing hemolytic anemia? what causes it?

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia - this causes schistocytes
eclampsia and DIC

109
Q

what does TFPI inhibit?

A

Tissue Factor and factor VII

110
Q

thrombin + thrombomodulin bind together to activate…

A

protein C and S which inactivates factors V and VIII

111
Q

antithrombin, enhanced by heparin inhibits….

A

complexes with Factors 9,10,11 and thrombin

112
Q

what is the byproduct of fibrin

A

D-dimers

113
Q

what inhibits fibrinolysis?

A

PAI 1 and alpha-2-antiplasmin

114
Q

what chromosome is the VWF on?

A

12 you idiot

115
Q

what is antiphospholipid Ab syndrome and what is its treatment? what is it a risk factor for

A

Ab targets phospholipid binding protein
Tx - warfarin
Thromboembolism
by the way, caused by preeclampsia (eclampsia is in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)

Finals (17 decks)

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