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Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Cribriform foramina in cribriform plate

A 
Olfactory nerve (CN I) 
Anterior ethmoidal nerves

Anterior cranial fossa
Ethmoid bone

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2
Q

Olfactory nerve (CN I)

A

Cribriform foramina in cribriform plate

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3
Q

Anterior ethmoidal nerves

A

Cribriform foramina in cribriform plate

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4
Q

Optic canal

A 
Optic nerve (CN II) 
Ophthalmic artery

Middle cranial fossa
Sphenoid bone

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5
Q

Optic nerve (CN II)

A

Optic canal

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6
Q

Ophthalmic artery

A

Optic canal

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7
Q

Superior orbital fissure

A

Lacrimal nerve
Frontal nerve- branch of ophthalmic nerve of trigeminal nerve (CN V)
Superior ophthalmic vein
Trochlear nerve (CN IV)
Superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III)
Nasociliary nerve- branch of ophthalmic nerve (CN V1)
Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III)
Abducens nerve (CN VI)
A branch of the Inferior ophthalmic vein

Middle cranial fossa
Sphenoid bone

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8
Q

Lacrimal nerve

A

Superior orbital fissure

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9
Q

Frontal nerve- branch of ophthalmic nerve of trigeminal nerve (CN V)

A

Superior orbital fissure

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10
Q

Trochlear nerve (CN IV)

A

Superior orbital fissure

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11
Q

Superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III)

A

Superior orbital fissure

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12
Q

Nasociliary nerve- branch of ophthalmic nerve (CN V1)

A

Superior orbital fissure

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13
Q

Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III)

A

Superior orbital fissure

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14
Q

Abducens nerve (CN VI)

A

Superior orbital fissure

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15
Q

Foramen rotundum

A

Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Middle cranial fossa
Sphenoid bone

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16
Q

Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V)

A

Foramen rotundum

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17
Q

Foramen ovale

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Middle cranial fossa
Sphenoid bone

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18
Q

Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (CN V)

A

Foramen ovale

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19
Q

Foramen spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery Middle meningeal vein Meningeal branch of CN V3

Middle cranial fossa
Sphenoid bone

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20
Q

Middle meningeal artery Middle meningeal vein

A

Foramen spinosum

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21
Q

Meningeal branch of CN V3

A

Foramen spinosum

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22
Q

Internal acoustic

meatus

A 
Facial nerve (CN VII) Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) 
Vestibular ganglion
Labyrinthine artery

Middle cranial fossa
Petrous part of temporal bone

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23
Q

Facial nerve (CN VII)

A

Internal acoustic

meatus

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24
Q

Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

A

Internal acoustic

meatus

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25
Q

Vestibular ganglion

A

Internal acoustic

meatus

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26
Q

Labyrinthine artery

A

Internal acoustic

meatus

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27
Q

Jugular foramen

A 
Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) Vagus nerve (CN X)
Accessory nerve (CN XI) Jugular bulb
Inferior petrosal and sigmoid sinuses

Posterior cranial fossa
Anterior aspect: Petrous portion of the temporal Posterior aspect: Occipital bone

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28
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

A

Jugular foramen

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29
Q

Vagus nerve (CN X)

A

Jugular foramen

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30
Q

Accessory nerve (CN XI)

A

Jugular foramen

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31
Q

Inferior petrosal and sigmoid sinuses

A

Jugular foramen

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32
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

Posterior cranial fossa
Occipital bone

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33
Q

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

A

Hypoglossal canal

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34
Q

Foramen magnum

A

Vertebral arteries
Medulla and meninges
CN XI (spinal division)
Dural vein

Posterior cranial fossa
Occipital bone

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35
Q

CN XI (spinal division)

A

Foramen magnum

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36
Q

Descirbe the C1 vertebrae

A
  • No body - only anterior and posterior arches
  • no spinous process
  • occipital facets superiorly (occipital condyles)
  • groove for vertebral artery (same for C2)
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37
Q

Describe C2 vertebrae

A

Dens - to allow C1 to rotate

Superior articular surfaces for C1 to glide

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38
Q

Describe the cervical vertebrae (C3-C7)

A
  • Triangular vertebral canal
  • Transverse foreamen –> vertebral artery
  • Pos. process - nuchal ligament –> investing layer
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39
Q

Describe the Cruciate Ligament

A

2 parts
Transverse ligament –> C1 (more inf)
longitudinal ligament –> C2

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40
Q

Describe the Alar Ligament

A

Dens and occipital condyle

- allows for nodding (atlanto-occipital)

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41
Q

Describe the Atlanto-Axial Joint

A

Synovial joint between dens and posterior facet of the anterior arch of C1
Synovial Bursa - Between dens and cruciate ligament
movement - rotation

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42
Q

Curvatures of the spine

A

Cervical- lordosis
Thoracic - kyphosis
Lumbar- lordosis
Sacral - Kyphosis (primary) , Lordosis (secondary)

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43
Q

Describe the intervertebral joints

A

secondary cartilaginous joints

bone - hyaline cartilage - disc - hyaline - bone

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44
Q

At what vertebral level does the spinal cord end?

A

Adults - L1/L2

Children - L3/L4

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45
Q

At what vertebral level does the subarachnoid space end?

A

S2

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46
Q

How and where would a lumbar puncture be taken?

A

CSF at L3 and below

-Fetal position

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47
Q

What are the layers of the spinal cord punctured in a lumbar puncture.

A 
Skin
Subcutaneous tissue
Muscle
Supraspinous ligament 
Interspinous
Ligamentum flavum 
Epidural space
(venous plexus)
Dura
Arachnoid
subarachnoid space
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48
Q

Describe the fontanelles. (with clinical applications)

When do they close?

A

Anterior - between frontal and parietal bones (18/12)
clinical - raised ICP –> bulging
state of hydration - convex (normal), concave
(unhealthy)
Posterior - between the occipital and parietal bones (closes first) (3/12)

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49
Q

Describe the sutures of the skull.

A

coronal - separates frontal and parietal
saggital - separates 2 parietal bones
lamboid - separates parietal and occipital

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50
Q

bregma

A

intersection between coronal and saggital sutures

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51
Q

lambda

A

intersection between lamboid and saggital sutures

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52
Q

Borders of Posterior Triangle of neck

A 
ant - posterior margin of SCM
pos - anterior margin of trapezius
base - middle 1/3 of clavicle
apex - mastoid process 
floor - posterior, middle and anterior scalene muscles
           prevertebral fascia
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53
Q

Contents of posterior triangle of neck

A

upper trunk of brachial plexus (b/w anterior and middle scalene)
apex of lung - 2cm above clavicle
Accessory nerve (1/3 down SCM; 2/3 down trapezius) - between them
Phrenic nerve - on anterior scalene
Subclavian vein - “””
3rd part of subclavian artery - between anterior and middle scalene)

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54
Q

Nerve supply to SCM

A

XI

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55
Q

Nerve supply to trapezius

A

XI

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56
Q

Blood supply to posterior triangle

A

thyrocervical trunk (subclavian)

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57
Q

Describe the layers of the deep cervical fascia

A

Investing layer

  • encloses deep structures
  • attached to nuchal ligament
  • around SCM and Trapezius

Carotid Sheath
- contains common and internal carotid arteries, vagus nerve, IJV and lymphatics

Prevertebral Space

  • anterior carotid sheath between prevertebral muscles and esophagus/pharynx
  • prevertebral fascia is the floor of the posterior triangle

Pretracheal fascia
- encloses thyroid gland and in front of trachea

Platysma Muscle
- supplied by facial nerve

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58
Q

Borders of Anterior Triangle of neck

A

anterior border of SCM
midline
lower border of mandible

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59
Q

Contents of anterior triangle of neck

A

Anterior jugular vein
larynx, trachea, thyroid
stap muscles ( _hyoid muscles)

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60
Q

What vertebral level is the hyoid bone and what are its attachments?

A

C2
Does not articulate with any bone
held by digastric and stylohyoid

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61
Q

Describe the location of the Thyrohyoid membrane

A

C3

between hyoid bone and thyroid cartilage

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62
Q

Vertebral level of Thyroid Cartilage

A

C4, C5

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63
Q

formation of thyroid prominence

A

right and left laminae join at midline

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64
Q

Significance of superior thyroid notch

A

C4
biforcation of common carotid artery
carotid pulse
carotid sinus (baroreceptors and chemoreceptors)

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65
Q

Describe the location of the cricoid cartilage and its significance.

A

C5-C6
on top of trachea
surface marking for esophagus
articulates with inferior horns

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66
Q

location and clinical significance of cricothyroid membrane

A

C5

emergency laryngotomy can be done here

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67
Q

structure of thyroid gland

A

2 lateral lobes - central isthmus - overlies tracheal rings 2-4

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68
Q

bloody supply of thyroid gland

A

superior thyroid artery (near superior laryngeal)
inferior thyroid artery (near recurrent laryngeal)
these anastamose with each other

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69
Q

structure and location of parathyroid glands

A

2 small glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid

2 sup , 2 inf

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70
Q

blood supply to parathyroid glands

A

superior parathyroid - sup and inf thyroid arteries

inferior parathyroid - only inf thyroid artery

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71
Q

venous drainage of thyroid gland

A

superior and middle thyroid veins –> IJV –> subclavian –> brachiocephalic
inferior thyroid –> brachiocephalic

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72
Q

the inferior thyroid vein is a branch of what?

A

thyrocervical trunk

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73
Q

what does the central sulcus divide

A

frontal and parietal lobes

motor and sensory cortex

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74
Q

components and function of basal ganglia

A

lentiform nucleus - putamen and globus pallidus
substantia nigra
nucleus accubens
caudate
subthalmic
responsible for starting and stopping movement

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75
Q

nerves involved in gag reflex

A

IX, X, XI

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76
Q

emergence of nerves of the spinal cord

A

frist 7 over ( 8 cervical)

other under

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77
Q

Unlike the brain, the spinal cord does not have the layer ______.

A

Subdural space

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78
Q

location of white matter in the brain vs the spinal cord

A

brain - internal

spinal cord - external

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79
Q

what is the filum terminale

A

extension of pia mater into the coccyx

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80
Q

what nerve emerges between the pyramid and olives

A

XII

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81
Q

where does the superior ophthalmic vein end

A

cavernous sinus

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82
Q

which muscle opens the mouth

A

lateral pterygoid

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83
Q

relations of the anterior belly of digastric

A

lateral to the submental nodes

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84
Q

the middle meningeal artery is a branch of what artery

A

maxillary

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85
Q

Artery of Adamkiewicz is a branch of what artery?

A

segmental artery

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86
Q

what vertebral levels do the segmental arteries run?

A

T8-L1

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87
Q

what is the mastoid process formed from post-natally??

A

sternocleidomastoid muscles

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88
Q

where does the facial nerve exit the skull?

A

stylomastoid foreamen, behind the mastoid process

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89
Q

describe the passage of the greater occipital nerve

A

dorsal ramus of C2

passes superficial to subocipital muscles, through trapezius to supply the skin of back of head and scalp

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90
Q

Describe the passage of the ansa cervicalis and what does it supply.

A

C1,2,3
C1 –> superior root - travels with XII
C2/3 –> inferior root

Strap muscles

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91
Q

From what cervical vertebrae does the phrenic nerve branch from?

A

C3,4,5

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92
Q

Is the phrenic nerve sensory and/or motor and what does it supply?

A

both

sensory –> central diaphragmatic sensation
motor –> keeps diaphragm alive

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93
Q

Location and contents of Erb’s point

A

posterior border of SCM (1/2 way) and includes C2,3

contents:
nerves - lesser occcipital, greater auricular and transverse cervical.

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94
Q

what muscle crosses both the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck?

A

omohyoid

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95
Q

Many arteries run in the _____A______ layer of the brain. example ___B_____.

A

A - subarachnoid space

B - Basillar

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96
Q

location of the external jugular vein

A

behind angle of the mandible (3cm above middle 1/3 of clavicle)

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97
Q

Describe the passage of the IJV.

A

Runs with:
Vagus Nerve (x)
Internal Carotid Artery
within the carotid sheath before terminating at the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein.

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98
Q

What vessel does the thoracic duct drain into? Where?

A

subclavian vein

at junction between the IJV and the subclavian

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99
Q

Collection of anterior and posterior roots at base of spine is called the

A

Cauda Equina

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100
Q

The globus pallidus lies between

A

putamen and internal capsule

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101
Q

Which muscles have 2 bellies?

A 
digastric
omohyoid
sternocleidomastoid
pectoralis major
occipitofrontalis
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102
Q

The lateral homunculus is for the ________.

A

face (upper limb)

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103
Q

The medial homunculus is for the ________.

A

lower limb

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104
Q

What anatomical landmark does the cervical sympathetic trunk cross?

A

neck of 1st rib

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105
Q

How many cervical ganglia are there? what are their names?

A

3

superior
middle
inferior – joins with T1 ganglion to form stellate ganglion

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106
Q

What is the name given to the ganglion formed as a result of the merger of the inferior and T1 ganglia?

A

stellate ganglion

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107
Q

What ganglia make up the stellate ganglion?

A

inferior cervical

T1

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108
Q

Where are the cervical ganglia located?

A

either side of spinal cord

within prevertebral fascia, posterior to carotid sheath

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109
Q

What are the layers of the scalp? Give a brief description if possible.

A

Skin
Connective Tissue - dense tissue filled with blood vessels and nerves
Aponeurosis of occipitofrontalis muscle - 2 bellies ( frontal and occipital)
Loose Areolar Tissue - barrier between muscle and bone
Periosteum - Beside skull

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110
Q

what is the name given to a haemorrhage in the periosteum?

A

cephalhaematoma

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111
Q

What is the innervation of the posterior scalp?

A

greater occipital nerve of dorsal ramus of C2

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112
Q

What is the innervation of the anterior scalp?

A

ophthalmic nerve (Va) –> supratrochlear and supraorbital

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113
Q

What is the blood supply to the scalp?

A

ICA –> ophthalmic artery –> supratrochlear and supraorbital
ECA –> posterior auricular, superficial temporal

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114
Q

What nerve runs with the superficial temporal artery?

A

Auriculotemporal nerve (branch of Vc)

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115
Q

The auriculotemporal nerve is a branch of what nerve?

A

Vc

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116
Q

The supratrochlear artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ophthalmic

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117
Q

The supraorbital artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ophthalmic

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118
Q

The ophthalmic artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ICA

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119
Q

What does the ophthalmic artery and its branches supply?

A

scalp

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120
Q

The posterior auricular artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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121
Q

The superficial temporal artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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122
Q

What are the branches of the external carotid artery?

A 
Superior Thyroid
lingual 
facial
Occipital 
posterior auricular
terminal (superficial temporal and maxillary)
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123
Q

The Superior Thyroid artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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124
Q

The lingual artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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125
Q

The facial artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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126
Q

The Occipital artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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127
Q

The maxillary artery is a branch of what artery?

A

ECA

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128
Q

What are the terminal branches of the ECA?

A

superficial temporal and maxillary

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129
Q

What vertebral level is the superior cervical ganglion found at?

A

C2,3,4

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130
Q

What vertebral level is the inferior cervical ganglion found at?

A

C7,8

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131
Q

What vertebral level is the middle cervical ganglion on found at?

A

C5,6

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132
Q

What does the superior cervical ganglion innervate?

A

Supplies eye, heart, pharyngeal plexus

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133
Q

What does the middle cervical ganglion innervate?

A

Pharynx, larynx, trachea, oesophagus

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134
Q

What does the inferior cervical ganglion innervate?

A

Cardiac plexus

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135
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the eye, heart, pharyngeal plexus comes from what cervical ganglion?

A

superior

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136
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the Pharynx, larynx, trachea, oesophagus comes from what cervical ganglion?

A

middle

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137
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the Cardiac plexus comes from what cervical ganglion?

A

inferior

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138
Q

What innervates the superior tarsal muscle?

A

Sympathetic specifically from T1

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139
Q

What muscle does the sympathetics of T1 innervate?

A

superior tarsal muscle of the eye

dilator pupillae

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140
Q

What innervates the dilator pupillae?

A

Sympathetic specifically from T1

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141
Q

What does the parasympathetic innervation control in the eye?

A

sphincter pupillae
pupillary light reflexes
accommodation

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142
Q

What are the main branches of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular

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143
Q

What are the branches of the ophthalmic nerve?

A

Frontal –> supraorbital and supratrochlear
Lacrimal
Nasociliary

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144
Q

The lacrimal nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

ophthalmic

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145
Q

The Nasociliary nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

ophthalmic

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146
Q

The Frontal nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

ophthalmic

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147
Q

The supraorbital nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

ophthalmic (frontal)

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148
Q

The supratrochlear nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

ophthalmic (frontal)

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149
Q

What are the branches of the maxillary nerve?

A

Nasal and Palatine branches
Infraorbital
Superior alveolar

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150
Q

The Nasal and Palatine nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

maxillary

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151
Q

The Infraorbital nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

maxillary

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152
Q

The Superior alveolar nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

maxillary

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153
Q

What are the branches of the mandibular nerve?

A

Lingual
Inferior alveolar
Nerve to mylohyoid

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154
Q

The Lingual nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

mandibular

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155
Q

The Inferior alveolar nerve branches off of what nerve?

A

mandibular

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156
Q

The Nerve to mylohyoid branches off of what nerve?

A

mandibular

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157
Q

What region of the face is supplied by the ophthalmic nerve?

A

palpebral fissure to the vertex (middle of scalp)

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158
Q

What region of the face is supplied by the maxillary nerve?

A

palpebral fissure to upper lip (including zygomatic arch)

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159
Q

What region of the face is supplied by the mandibular nerve?

A

chin and beard region, except over the angle of the mandible and the sides of the face

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160
Q

What nerve supply is the Posterior aspect of the skull?

A

greater occipital nerve of dorsal ramus of C2

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161
Q

What nerves supply is this area of the face?

palpebral fissure to the vertex (middle of scalp)

A

ophthalmic

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162
Q

What nerves supply is this area of the face?

palpebral fissure to upper lip (including zygomatic arch)

A

maxillary

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163
Q

What nerves supply is this area of the face?

chin and beard region, except over the angle of the mandible and the sides of the face

A

mandibular

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164
Q

Describe the location of the parotid gland.

A

Behind the mandible

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165
Q

What anatomical structures separate the lobes of the parotid gland?

A

Mandible anteriorly

Mastoid posteriorly

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166
Q

How many lobes does the parotid gland have?

A

2

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167
Q

Describe the location of the lobes of the parotid gland.

A

Deep lobe - next to medial pterygoid

superficial lobe - next to the masseter

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168
Q

The masseter muscle is found next to what lobe of the parotid gland?

A

superficial lobe

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169
Q

The medial pterygoid muscle is found next to what lobe of the parotid gland?

A

Deep lobe

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170
Q

What nerve innervates the parotid gland?

A

articulotemporal (from VII)

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171
Q

What does the articulotemporal nerve innervate?

A

parotid gland

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172
Q

Describe the passage of the parotid duct.

A

emerges from anterior border
penetrates buccinator muscle
enters mouth

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173
Q

What anatomical structure pierces the buccinator muscle?

A

parotid duct

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174
Q

What nerve lies near to the parotid duct? what is the clinical significance?

A

facial –> fascial nerve palsy eg. bell’s palsy (lmn)

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175
Q

Describe the passage of the facial nerve to the parotid gland as it exits the skull.

A

through stylomastoid foreamen of temporal bone

over anterior border of parotid

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176
Q

How many branches does the facial nerve form the pes anserius?

A

5

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177
Q

What are the branches of the pes anserius?

A 
Temporal
Zygomatic
Buccal
Marginal Mandibular
Cervical
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178
Q

What is the pes anserius?

A

from VII

forms the 5 branches (TZBMC)

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179
Q

What do the branches of the pes anserius innervate?

A 
T - frontalis and occipital (occipitofrontalis)
Z - orbicularis oculi (closes the eye)
B - Buccinator
M - Orbicularis Oris (lips)
C - Platysma
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180
Q

What muscle closes the eye?

A

orbicularis oculi

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181
Q

What nerve supplies the occipitofrontalis?

A

Temporal branch of the pes anserius

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182
Q

What nerve supplies the orbicularis oculi?

A

Zygomatic branch of the pes anserius

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183
Q

What nerve supplies the Buccinator?

A

Buccal branch of the pes anserius

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184
Q

What nerve supplies the Orbicularis Oris?

A

Marginal Mandibular branch of the pes anserius

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185
Q

What nerve supplies the Platysma?

A

Cervical branch of the pes anserius

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186
Q

What does damage to the Orbicularis Oris lead to?

A

Bookie’s Mouth (drooping lip)

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187
Q

What layer covers the cerebellum?

A

tentorium cerebelli

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188
Q

What is the significance of the tentorium cerebelli?

A

separates the cerebrum and the cerebellum

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189
Q

What is the function of the cerebellum?

A

coordination
tone
equilibrium

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190
Q

What is the vermis?

A

separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum

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191
Q

how many hemispheres does the cerebellum have?

A

2

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192
Q

The cerebellum lies over what foreamen of the skull?

A

foreamen magnum

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193
Q

What matter composes the cerebellar peduncles?

A

white matter

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194
Q

How many cerebellar peduncles are found in the brain?

A

3

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195
Q

Name the cerebellar peduncles and identify what part of the brain they join to the cerebellum.

A

superior - midbrain
middle - pons
inferior - medulla

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196
Q

What sensory pathway involves the superior cerebellar peduncle?

A

anterior ventral spinocerebellar pathway (double cross)

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197
Q

What sensory pathway involves the inferior cerebellar peduncle?

A

posterior dorsal spinocerebellar pathway (d - direct)

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198
Q

The anterior ventral spinocerebellar pathway involves which cerebellar peduncle?

A

superior

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199
Q

The posterior dorsal spinocerebellar pathway involves which cerebellar peduncle?

A

inferior

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200
Q

What are the anatomical divisions of the cerebellum?

A

sup –> inf
rostral lobe
flocculondular lobe
caudal lobe

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201
Q

What the functional divisions of the cerebellum?

A

Vestibulocerebellum
Spinocerebellum
cerebrocerebellum

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202
Q

What is the oldest part of the cerebellum?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

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203
Q

What part of the cerebellum is separated from the rest?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

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204
Q

what nucleus is found in the Vestibulocerebellum?

A

Fastigial nucleus

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205
Q

What nerve connections does the Fastigial nucleus have and what are they responsible for?

A

VIII - balance

III, IV, VI - eye movements

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206
Q

Problems of the Fastigial nucleus can result in _______.

A

ataxia - lack of coordination, posture and eye movement

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207
Q

What part of the cerebellum involves all connections with the spinal cord?

A

Spinocerebellum

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208
Q

What motor tract does the Spinocerebellum involved in?

A

Rubrospinal

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209
Q

How many nuclei does the Spinocerebellum have?

A

2

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210
Q

What are the nuclei in the Spinocerebellum?

A

Globulose and emboliform

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211
Q

What is the largest part of the cerebellum?

A

cerebrocerebellum

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212
Q

What part of the cerebellum involves all connections that pass through the dentate and superior peduncle?

A

cerebrocerebellum

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213
Q

What connections does the spinocerebellum involve?

A

with spinal cord

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214
Q

What connections does the cerebrocerebellum involve?

A

all connections that pass through the dentate and superior peduncle

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215
Q

What tract is the cerebrocerebellum involved in?

A

Rubrothalamic

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216
Q

What functional part of the cerebellum is involved in the rubrothalamic tract?

A

Cerebrocerebellum

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217
Q

What functional part of the cerebellum is involved in the rubrospinal tract?

A

Spinocerebellum

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218
Q

What does damage of the cerebrocerebellum lead to?

A

intension tremors and nystagmus

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219
Q

What functional part(s) of the cerebellum is affected in a midline lesion?

A

Vestibulocerebellum

Spinocerebellum

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220
Q

What functional part(s) of the cerebellum is affected in a lateral lesion?

A

cerebrocerebellum

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221
Q

The cerebrocerebellum is affected in which lesion?

A

lateral

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222
Q

The Vestibulocerebellum is affected in which lesion?

A

midline

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223
Q

The Spinocerebellum is affected in which lesion?

A

midline

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224
Q

What is the most inferior part of the cerebellum?

A

tonsils

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225
Q

What separates the tonsils of the cerebellum?

A

uvula

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226
Q

What the clinical significance of the tonsils of the cerebellum?

A

Tonsilar Herniation (pushes through foreamen magnum)

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227
Q

What structures form the basal ganglia?

A

lentiform nucleus
caudate nucleus
substantia nigra
** subthalamic nucleus

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228
Q

The subthalamic nucleus is near which structure of the basal ganglia?

A

substantia nigra

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229
Q

What structures form the lentiform nucleus?

A

putamen

globus pallidus

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230
Q

What structures form the corpus striatum?

A

lentiform nucleus

caudate nucleus

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231
Q

The putamen and globus pallidus form what nucleus?

A

lentiform

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232
Q

What anatomical structure separates the caudate and lentiform nucleus?

A

posterior limb of internal capsule

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233
Q

What does the posterior limb of internal capsule separate?

A

caudate and lentiform nucleus

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234
Q

What tract is found in the genu of the internal capsule?

A

corticobulbar

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235
Q

What tract is found in the posterior limb of the internal capsule?

A

corticospinal

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236
Q

What part of the internal capsule is involved in the corticobulbar tract?

A

genu

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237
Q

What part of the internal capsule is involved in the corticospinal tract?

A

posterior limb

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238
Q

Where is the caudate nucleus found?

A

within lateral ventricles, around thalamus

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239
Q

What nucleus id found in the lateral ventricle?

A

caudate

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240
Q

What are the parts of the substantia nigra?

A

pars compacta

pars reticulate

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241
Q

What anatomical structure of the brain contains dopaminergic neurons?

A

pars compacta

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242
Q

What does a lesion in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus result in?

A

undesired limb movement

hemi ballismus

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243
Q

Undesired limb movement is as a result of a lesion in what nucleus?

A

contralateral subthalamic

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244
Q

Hemi ballismus is as a result of a lesion in what nucleus?

A

contralateral subthalamic

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245
Q

Play with my balls

A

ok

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246
Q

Muscle, Nerve, and artery of Temporal Fossa

A

Temporalis muscle, Deep temporal Nerve (Vc), and Superficial temporal artery

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247
Q

What osteological structure is located at the Infratemporal fossa?

A

Zygomatic arch

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248
Q

What forms the
posterior
Medial
Lateral boundaries

A

Posterior: Mastoid
Medial: Lateral Pterygoid plate
Lateral: Ramus of the Mandible

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249
Q

What fissure is located in the infra temporal fossa and where is it located in relation to it.
Do the same for another fossa

A

The pterygomaxillary and pterygopalatine fossa are both located medial to the infratemporal fossa

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250
Q

What foramen open into the infra temporal fossa and what goes through them?

A

Foramen Ovale which has the mandibular nerve (Vc) pass through as well as the Middle meningeal artery of the External carotid artery through the Foramen Spinosum

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251
Q

What are the muscles of mastication and what are they innervated by?

A

All muscles of mastication are innervated by the Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
Temporalis
Masseter
Lateral Pterygoid muscle (Lateral Pterygoid plate)
Medial Pterygoid (Medial pterygoid plate)
Mylohyoid Muscle (attached to mylohyoid line on the inner aspect of the mandible)
Anterior Belly of Digastric (Posterior belly by VII and not included here)

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252
Q

The mandibular Nerve gives off an anterior and a posterior branch. What do each supply?

A

The anterior branch supplies all motor except the Buccal Branch to the buccinator. The posterior branch is all sensory except for Mylohyoid.

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253
Q

What is the origin of the middle meningeal artery? What does it supply?

A

it comes from the maxillary artery (terminal branch of carotid) and supplies the Dura

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254
Q

Damage to the middle meningeal artery at the pterion causes?

A

Extradural Hemorrhage

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255
Q

TMJ type of joint

A

Atypical synovial joint as it has 2 separate compartments with an articular disc

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256
Q

What is the TMJ joint composed off

A

Head of the mandible and Temporal bone

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257
Q 
What muscles of the TMJ
Protrude
Retract
Elevate
Depress
A

Protrusion: Medial and lateral pterygoid
Retraction: Temporalis muscle
Elevation: Temporalis and and masseter
Depression: Anterior belly of digastric and mylohoid

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258
Q

What muscle attaches to the Coronoid process of the mandible

A

Temporalis Muscle

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259
Q

What comes out of the Mandibular Foramen?

A

Inferior Alveolar Nerve

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260
Q

The inferior alveolar nerve originates from

A

Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

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261
Q

The mylohyoid line is significant as it

A

Traces the path of the Inferior Alveolar Nerve (Vc)

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262
Q

Trace the path of the inferior alveolar nerve

A

Emerges out of the Mandibular foramen, moves along the mylohyoid line and exits through the mental foramen where it becomes the mental nerve

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263
Q

Trace the path of the Lingual Nerve

A

The lingual nerve runs close to the inferior alveolar nerve and merges with the Chorda Tympani nerve (VII)

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264
Q

The tongue is divided into the oral and Pharyngeal part by?

A

Vallae Papillae

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265
Q

What supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Chorda Tympani

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266
Q

What supplies sensory innervation to the tongue

A

Lingual Nerve

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267
Q

What supplies taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

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268
Q

What supplies sensory innervation posterior to the Vallae Papillae

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)

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269
Q

What supplies the muscles of the tongue

A

All muscles of the tongue are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve (XII) except for the Palatoglossus which is supplied by the Vagus Nerve

270
Q

What is the major muscle of the tongue and what is it supplied by? What muscle of the tongue is not innervated by that nerve?

A

Genioglossus Muscle supplied by the hypoglossal nerve (XII). Palatoglossus is supplied by the vagus nerve (X)

271
Q

What supplies the anterior and posterior bellies of the Digastric Muscle.

A

Anterior supplied by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve Vc. Posterior belly supplied by the VII

272
Q

What are the supra hyoid muscles and where do they attach? What’re each of their innervations?

A 
They all attach to the hyoid bone. 
Mylohyoid is by Vc
Anterior belly of digastric Vc
Posterior belly of Digastric VII
Stylohyoid VII
273
Q

The Submandibular gland is separated into two lobes by the

A

Mylohyoid muscle

274
Q

Frenulum

A

Middle of tongue, prevents it from going back

275
Q

What runs near the Submandibular Duct?

A

Facial artery and Lingual Nerve

276
Q

What leaves a groove on the submandibular gland?

A

Facial Artery

277
Q

Oral Anesthesia is normally conducted during Dental procedures? What nerve do they normally target and what is potentially also anesthesized

A

They aim for the inferior alveolar nerve (teeth) but can also affect the lingual (loss of taste and sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue) and Buccal Nerve (buccinator)

278
Q

Damage to the lingual nerve would lead to the loss of>

A

Sensation and taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue due to its merger with chordates tympani

279
Q

The submandibular gland is known to have more concentrated secretions than the other salivary glands. What can this cause

A

Stones in duct

280
Q

What innervates the submandibular gland. What other gland does this nerve innervate?

A

Lingual nerve and also innervates the sublingual gland.

281
Q

Enlargement of the submandibular gland is more prone due to the large amounts of
What does this enlargement pose danger to

A

Lymph nodes

Lingual nerve

282
Q

What ganglion carries innervations to the submandibular gland? What other gland?

A

Submandibular ganglion and sublingual gland

283
Q

What is another name for the pterygopalatine ganglion is it a parasympathetic ganglion?

A

Hayfever ganglion. Yes therefore sympathetics pass through and parasympathetics synapse here

284
Q

What nerve carries the pterygopalatine ganglion. Where does it emerge from

A

Maxillary Nerve (Vb) from Foramen Rotundum

285
Q

What gland does the pteygopalatine ganglion send post-synaptic neurons to. What branch of the trigeminal nerve is used? Does it go all the way?

A

Lacrimal gland, Vb, no, Va

286
Q

Where does the facial nerve originate from?

287
Q

What fossa is the maxillary nerve present in? What ganglion is present there? What foramen does it come out from?

A

Pterygopalatine fossa, “Ganglion, and Foramen Rotundom

288
Q

What bones make up the pterion?

A

Frontal, sphenoid, Parietal, temporal

289
Q

What is the origin of the damaged artery after taking a blow to the pterion

A

Middle meningeal artery from maxillary artery which is a terminal branch of the external carotid artery

290
Q

A blow to the pterion causes what type of hemorrhage

A

Extradural hemorrage

291
Q

What is the falx cerebri

A

Separates 2 cerebral hemispheres

292
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli

A

Separates cerebellum from cerebrum and also covers the cerebellum

293
Q

Falx Cerebelli

A

Separates the 2 hemispheres of the cerebellum

294
Q

What is the Diaphragm Sellae

A

Covers the Sella Tursica (Pituitary fossa)

295
Q

What is located in the sella tursica

A

pituitary gland

296
Q

The dura is made of X layers. Name them. What is located in here?

A

2 layers. Outer periosteal Layer and inner meningeal layer. The venous sinuses are located here

297
Q

Where are the venous sinuses located?

A

In my asshole, just kidding, between the two layers of the dura (outer periosteal and inner meningeal layer)

298
Q

Explain the Posterior Venous Sinus System in whole lol.

A

Superior saggital Sinus runs in the Upper Falx Cerebri to the Internal Occipital protrudence. The Inferior Saggital sinus runs in the lower Falx Cerebri and is joined by the Greater Cerebral vein forming the Straight Sinus which runs in the Tentorium Cerebelli. The superior and Inferior saggital sinus meet at the occipital protrudence or the confluence of sinuses. Here, The superior saggital sinus drains into the Right transverse sinus and the Straight sinus drains into the left transverse sinus. These transverse sinuses run in a groove where the superior petrosal sinus drains into both forming the right and left sigmoid sinuses respectively. The two sigmoid sinuses finally join at the Jugular bulb over the Jugular Foramen where they become the Internal Jugular Vein.

299
Q

The superior saggital sinus runs in the

A

Upper Falx Cerebri

300
Q

The inferior saggital sinus runs in the

A

Lower Falx Cerebri

301
Q

The inferior saggital sinus joins with the X to form Y which runs in the Z

A

X= Greater Cerebral Vein
Y= Straight Sinus
Z- Tentorium Cerebelli

302
Q

The Straight sinus is composed of

A

Inferior saggital sinus + Greater Cerebral Vein

303
Q

Where does the straight sinus run

A

Tentorium Cerebelli

304
Q

The superior and inferior saggital sinus (or straight sinus) meet at the

A

Internal Occipital Protrudence

305
Q

At the Internal Occipital Protrudence the Sinuses W and X become Y and Z Respectively

A

W=Superior saggital sinus
X=Straight sinus (Inferior Saggital + Greater Cerebral Vein)
Y= Right Transverse Sinus
Z=Left Transverse Sinus

306
Q

What vein drains into the left and right transverse sinuses

A

Superior petrosal Sinus from the Cavernous Sinus

307
Q

The left transverse sinus originates from the

A

Inferior saggital Sinus + Greater Cerebral or just Straight Sinus

308
Q

The Right transverse sinus originates from the

A

Superior Saggital Sinus

309
Q

Once the Superior petrosal sinus drains into the left and right transverse sinuses they becomes the

A

right and left sigmoid sinuses

310
Q

What forms the jugular bulb

A

Right and left sigmoid sinuses

311
Q

Describe the location of the jugular bulb, what does it drain to

A

Over the Jugular foramen, close to the sella tursica and drains into the internal jugular vein

312
Q

Where is the the Cavernous sinus located?

A

Middle cranial fossa on either side of the body of the sphenoid or the Sella Tursica

313
Q

What veins join at the Cavernous sinus (the only one)

A

Ophthalmic Vein and Sphenoparietal sinus

314
Q

What are the contents of the Cavernous sinus

A

Ophthalmic Vein and Sphenoparietal Sinus
Internal Carotid Artery
Cranial Nerves 3,4,5a,5b, and 6 (in the center)

315
Q

What are the connections of the cavernous sinus?

A

Superior Petrosal Sinus runs to the Transverse/Sigmoid Sinus (which then join to form the Jugular bulb
AND
Inferior Petrosal Sinus which runs directly to the Jugular Bulb

316
Q

What is the origin of the Superior Petrosal Sinus and were does it drain to

A

Beings at the cavernous sinus and drains into the Left and Right Transverse/sigmoud sinuses.

317
Q

What cell lines the ventricle

A

Ependymal Cells

318
Q

Ependymal Cells are part of the

A

Choroid plexus

319
Q

Trace the full path of CSF

A

Choroid plexus > Lateral Ventricles > Foramen of Monroe > Third Ventricles > Aqueduct of Sylvius > Fourth Ventricle > Subarachnoid Space > Cisterna > Reabsorbed into Venous Sinuses by Villi

320
Q

What lies on either side of the Third Ventricle

321
Q

Where does the 4th ventricle lie?

A

Between the Cerebellum and Brainstem

322
Q

Where does the CSF in the 4th ventricle drain into

323
Q

What are the cisterns?

A

Cisterna Magna, Quadrigeminal, Lumbar, Pontocerebellar, and Interpeduncular. Dont know it? forget it

324
Q

Where is the Circle of Willis Located?

A

Subarachnoid Space

325
Q

Where are venous sinuses located?

A

Between the outer periosteal layer and Inner memingeal layer

326
Q

Where does the Middle cerebral artery run

A

Lateral Cerebral Sulcus

327
Q

What is located at the Middle Cranial Fossa

A

Cavernous sinus on either side of the middle cranial fossa

328
Q

Trace the path of the vertebral artery until it reaches the Circle of Willis. Forget about what branches it gives off (thats for another question lol)

A

The arch of the aorta gives off a Brachiocephalic artery, Left Common Carotid and Left Subclavian. The Brachiocephalic Artery gives off the Right Subclavian and the Right Common Carotid Artery. The Right Subclavian (or Left Subclavian) gives rise to the Vertebral Arteries. The vertebral Artery runs through the transverse foramina from C6 to C1 before entering the foramen magnum where combines with the other vertebral artery to become the basilar artery at the Ponto-medullary junction (junction between pons and medulla). The Basilar Artery then Gives off 2 posterior cerebral arteries at the top of the pons into the circle of willis

329
Q

Trace the Path of the Internal Carotid Artery Starting from the Brachiocephalic Artery

A

The common carotid artery originates from the brachiocephalic artery at the arch of the aorta on the right side. From there, it ascends within the carotid sheath where it then biforcates into the internal and external carotid arteries at C3. The internal artery then biforcates again into the 2 middle cerebral arteries which run in the lateral cerebral grooves

330
Q

Where is the basilar artery formed

A

Ponto-medullary junction

331
Q

Where do the two vertebral arteries join to form the basilar?

A

Ponto-medullary junction

332
Q

Where does the basilar artery biforcate into the two posterior cerebral arteries?

A

top of pons.

333
Q

Anterior cerebral arteries are branches of

A

middle cerebral arteries.

334
Q

The posterior communicating arteries connect…

A

the middle cerebral artery to the posterior cerebral artery.

335
Q

What does the anterior communicating artery connect?

A

the 2 anterior cerebral arteries

336
Q

Where does the CSF end up? give 3 places

A

Cerebral cisterns, Subarachnoid space, or reabsorbed by arachnoid villi into venous sinuses (especially superior saggital sinuses)

337
Q

What is the only point in the CNS where Pia is visible?

A

Filum Terminale

338
Q

Does Pia produce CSF

A

yes, in small quantities

339
Q

Meningitis

A

Inflammation of the pia

340
Q

Inflammation of the pia

A

Meningitis

341
Q

What is an example of an extradural Hemorrhage?

A

Pterion Trauma

342
Q

Bleeding between the dura and bone is called?

A

Extradural Hemorrage

343
Q

Extradural Hemorrhage

A

Bleeding between Dura and bone giving an area of increased density. The bleeding separates Dura from bone. It is an arterial bleed. Pateints will experience a Lucid interval after being unconscious but blood is still collecting

344
Q

What type of bleed is the Extradural Hemorrhage?

345
Q

Subdural Hemorrhage

A

Bleeding between Dura and Arachnoid giving an area of high density. Usually acute (becomes hypodense) in adults but chronic in children and elderly. Usually caused by Contrecoup or trauma. This hemorrhage results in cerebral midline or ventricular shift. It is a type of Venous bleeding

346
Q

Where is the Subdural Hemorrhage located?

A

between Dura and Arachnoid

347
Q

Describe the different effects of Subdural Hemorrhage on adults, children, and elderly.

A

Usually acute (becomes hypodense) in adults but chronic in children and elderly.

348
Q

what usually causes Subdural Hemorrhage

A

Contrecoup trauma

349
Q

What does Subdural Hemorrhage result in?

A

This hemorrhage results in cerebral midline or ventricular shift

350
Q

Contrecoup trauma is often associated with?

A

Subdural Hemorrhage

351
Q

What hemorrhage results in Cerebral midline or ventricular shifts?

A

Subdural Hemorrhage

352
Q

What hemorrhage is a venous hemorrhage?

A

Subdural Hemorrhage

353
Q

What type of bleeding occurs in Subdural Hemorrhage

354
Q

Looking at an Xray or MRI of Subdural Hemorrhage, what is significant

A

Hard to see => we look at ventricular shift

355
Q

Extradural hemorrhage has what shape?

356
Q

Subdural Hemorrhage has what shape?

A

Crescent or moon

357
Q

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

A

Bleeding between arachnoid and Pia. It becomes widely distributed throughout cisterns and ventricles => mixes with CSF => yellow CSF. Usually caused by Berry Aneurysm which is an aneurysm in the circle of willis. Symptoms are related to severity of bleed. Sudden onset of headache etc..

358
Q

Where does the Subarachnoid Hemorrhage occur?

A

between between arachnoid and Pia.

359
Q

A 75 year old lady is admitted to the hospital for investigation of a right 3rd cranial nerve palsy. On investigation, she is found to have an aneurysm compressing the nerve. Where is the aneurysm most likely to be located?

A

Posterior Communicating artery since the occulomotor nerve and trochlear nerve run between the superior cerebellar artery and posterior cerebral artery. These 2 are better options but if not included then choose posterior communicating

360
Q

Where does the trochlear nerve run with respect to the circle of willis

A

Between posterior cerebral artery and superior cerebellar artery

361
Q

Where does the oculomotor nerve run with respect to the circle of willis

A

Between posterior cerebral artery and superior cerebellar artery

362
Q

What arteries are dangerously close to the Trigeminal Nerve

A

Pontine branches of the basilar artery

363
Q

Berry Aneurysm. What cerebral bleed is related to it?

A

Aneurysm in the circle of willis. Usually experience sudden onset of bleed. Associated with Subarachnoid Hemorrages

364
Q

What is the Subarachnoid Hemorrhage usually caused by

A

Berry Aneurysm (aneurysm of the circle of willis)

365
Q

a young man returned to the GP 2 days after a deep scalp laceration that required stitching. He has marked periorbital bruising and can barely open his right eye. What is the anatomical cause

A

Subaponeurotic Hemorrhage

366
Q

Where is the thalamus located

A

either side of the 3rd ventricle

367
Q

What are the main nuclei located in the thalamus

A

Lateral and medial geniculate bodies

368
Q

What is the significance of the lateral geniculate body and where is it located?

A

It is located in the thalamus and is where the fibres of the optic nerve synapse

369
Q

Optic fibres that do not synapse at the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus synapse at…

A

Edinger Wesphal Nucleus

370
Q

What do the dorsal columns send information about?

A

Touch and proprioception

371
Q

What do the spinothalamic tracts carry information for

A

Anterior tract for Crude touch and pressure. Lateral tract for Pain and Temp

372
Q

What are the nuclei of the dorsal columns and what does each involve

A

Both involve Touch and proprioception but the Gracilis nucleus deals with the Lower limb and the Cuneate nucleus deals with the upper limb

373
Q

The lateral homunculus deals with

A

Head and upper body

374
Q

The medial homunculus deals with

A

Lower limb

375
Q

What connects the two areas of language

A

Brocas and wernicke’s areas are connected by the Arcuate Fasciculus

376
Q

Where is broca’s area located in?

A

Anterior part of the brain in the frontal lobe

377
Q

What does Broca’s area deal with?

A

Speech production

378
Q

Lesion in Broca’s area leads to

A

Motor aphasia (impairment of language) or non-fluent aphasia. and patient is aware of the problem

379
Q

Motor Aphasia is linked to

A

Lesion in broca’s area

380
Q

Non-fluent aphasia is linked to

A

Lesion in broca’s area

381
Q

Where is wernicke’s area?

A

Lateral part of the brain in the temporal lobe

382
Q

Lesion in Wernicke’s area causes

A

Sensory Aphasia (impairment of comprehension) or Fluent Aphasia. Causes words especially similarly sounding ones to be confused

383
Q

Fluent aphasia is associated with

A

Lesion in Wernicke’s Area

384
Q

Sensory Aphasia is associated with

A

Lesion in Wernicke’s Area

385
Q

A person who cannot read silently probably has a

A

Lesion in Wernicke’s Area

386
Q

Broca’s and Wenicke’s Areas are located on which side of the brain

A

Both on the left side

387
Q

What lobe is Broca’s area located in

A

Left Frontal Lobe

388
Q

What lobe is Wernicke’s area located in

A

Left Temporal Lobe

389
Q

The Third Ventricle Is located medial to both the thalamus and hypothalamus T or F

390
Q 
What lobe is each of these located in (Lateral Ventricle)
Anterior limb
Body
Posterior Horn
Inferior Horn
A

Frontal lobe
Parietal Lobe
Occipital Lobe
Temporal lobe

391
Q 
What part of the lateral ventricle is located in each:
Frontal lobe
Parietal Lobe
Occipital Lobe 
Temporal lobe
A

Anterior limb
Body
Posterior Horn
Inferior Horn

392
Q

Septum Pellucidum

A

Separates the two lateral ventricles

393
Q

What Separates the two lateral ventricles

A

Septum Pellucidum

394
Q

What hormone plays a role in sexual development and the onset of puberty. Where is it secreted from?

A

Melatonin, Pineal Gland

395
Q

The Pineal gland secretes melatonin, What type of hemorrhage poses a threat to it? Why?

A

Subdural Hemorrhages due to the ventricular or Midline shift which includes the pineal gland as it is located in the midline

396
Q

Removal of the Pineal gland leads to

A

Quicker onset of puberty

397
Q

What is the relation of Pineal Gland and Age

A

it Calcifies at age 30.

398
Q

Can the pineal gland be seen on X-rays?

A

After the age of 30 since it is calcified then

399
Q

Where is the circle of willis located

A

Subarachnoid space

400
Q

At what level is the bifurcation of the common carotid artery

401
Q

The external carotid artery and the Internal Jugular vein are located within the Carotid Sheath T or F

A

False only the Internal jugular vein and the Internal carotid artery

402
Q

What nerve runs in the Carotid Sheath

403
Q

What nerves lie in the cavernous sinus

A

3,4,5a,5b, and 6 in the middle

404
Q

What are the branches of the Internal Carotid Artery including that they supply (given the fact that the middle cerebral artery is not included)

A

Ophthalmic artery to supply the eyes
Anterior Choroidal Artery Runs in the temporal lobe and supplies the choroid plexus near the Inferior horn
Posterior communicating artery connects the middle and posterior cerebral arteries

405
Q

What are the branches of the Vertebral artery (in order)

A

Anterior spinal arteries

PICA (posterior inferior cerebellar Artery) which gives off the posterior spinal arteries

406
Q

The posterior spinal artery rises from the

407
Q

What arteries supply the spinal cord?

A

Posterior spinal artery (vertebral from PICA)
Anterior spinal artery (directly from vertebral)
Radicular arteries (branches of intercostal arteries)
Artery of Adam Kiewicz (major radicular artery that supplies the lower thoracic and upper lumbar)

408
Q

Origin of radicular arteries

A

Intercostal arteries

409
Q

The basilar artery formed at the point-medullary junction along its path to bifurcation at the top of the pins gives off several branches. Where are these branches formed with respect to the Tentorium cerebelli? (in order)

A

All these branches are formed before reaching the Tentorium Cerebelli. After that is the bifurcation at the top of the pons (covers the cerebellum)
ALPS
AICA (Anterior inferior cerebellar artery)
Labyrinth Arteries
Pontine Arteries
Superior Cerebellar arteries

410
Q

The following arteries are branches of what artery
AICA (Anterior inferior cerebellar artery)
Labyrinth Arteries
Pontine Arteries
Superior Cerebellar arteries

411
Q

What nerves pass between the superior cerebellar artery and the Posterior cerebral artery

A

III and IV

412
Q

What does the anterior cerebral artery supply. Nuclei for what part of the body does it supply

A

Frontal and medial aspect of the hemisphere except for the occipital lobe. It supplies the motor and sensory cortices of the Lower limb (including the perineum for shitting and pissing)

413
Q

What supplies the Frontal and medial aspect of the hemisphere except for the occipital lobe. It also supplies the motor and sensory cortices of the Lower limb (including the perineum for shitting and pissing)

A

Anterior Cerebral artery

414
Q

What does the Middle cerebral artery supply. Nuclei for what part of the body does it supply

A

Lateral Aspect of the hemispheres except the occipital lobe. IT also supplies the motor and sensory cortices of the Thorax, upper limb, and Head and Neck including Broca’s and Warnicke’s areas

415
Q

What supplies the Lateral Aspect of the hemispheres except the occipital lobe. IT also supplies the motor and sensory cortices of the Thorax, upper limb, and Head and Neck including Broca’s and Warnicke’s areas

A

Middle Cerebral Artery

416
Q

What does the Posterior cerebral artery supply?

A

Occipital lobe, inferior and medial aspect of the temporal lobe, and pituitary glands (Including the Thalamus and Third Ventricle)

417
Q

What supplies the Occipital lobe, inferior and medial aspect of the temporal lobe, and pituitary glands

A

Posterior cerebral artery

418
Q

What is the origin of the Anterior Choroidal Artery

419
Q

What is found in the central cerebral areas?

A

Basal ganglia and Internal capsule

420
Q

What is the main blood supply to the internal capsule

A

Lateral Striate arteries

421
Q

What supplies the central cerebral areas

A

Striate arteries and Anterior choroidal Artery of ICA (also gives supply to the striate arteries)

422
Q

What supplies the basal ganglia and internal capsule

A

Striate arteries and Anterior choroidal Artery of ICA (also gives supply to the striate arteries)

423
Q

What supplies the Thalamus and Third Ventricle

A

Posterior cerebral (ECA) and Posterior communicating arteries (ICA)

424
Q

A stroke in the Cerebral hemispheres gives Ipsilateral or Contralateral symptoms?

A

Contralateral

425
Q

A stroke in the Anterior cerebral artery leads to

A

Contralateral motor (hemiplegia) and sensory loss (anaesthesia) of Lower Limb and perineum

426
Q

What causes Contralateral motor and sensory loss of Lower Limb and perineum

A

A stroke in the Anterior cerebral artery

427
Q

A stroke in the middle cerebral artery leads to

A

Contralateral motor (hemiplegia) and sensory loss (anaesthesia) of Upper Limb, Thorax, and head and neck. Also affects Speech and Comprehension

428
Q

What causes Contralateral motor (hemiplegia) and sensory loss (anaesthesia) of Upper Limb, Thorax, and head and neck. Also affects Speech and Comprehension

A

A stroke in the middle cerebral artery

429
Q

Hemiplegia

A

Motor loss in one half

430
Q

Anesthesia

A

Sensory loss

431
Q

A stroke in the posterior cerebral artery leads to

A

Contralateral Hemianopia (Vision loss) since it supplies the occipital lobe

432
Q

A stroke on which Posterior cerebral artery (left or right) leads to Aphasia?

A

Right since it is contralateral

433
Q

A stroke in the Superior cerebellar artery will lead to what type of symptoms (Ipsilateral or contralateral)?

A

Ipsilateral

434
Q

A stroke in the Posterior Inferior cerebellar artery will lead to what type of symptoms (Ipsilateral or contralateral)?

A

Ipsilateral

435
Q

A stroke in the Anterior Inferior cerebellar artery will lead to what type of symptoms (Ipsilateral or contralateral)?

A

Ipsilateral

436
Q

A stroke affecting the Trigeminal nucleus would lead to

A

Ipsilateral Pain and Temp sensationloss from face

437
Q

A stroke in PICA affects what nuclei

A

Trigeminal nucleus, Spinal Leminiscus, and Sympathetics

438
Q

A stroke in which artery affects the Trigeminal nucleus, Spinal Leminiscus, and Sympathetics

439
Q

A stroke affecting PICA affects the Trigeminal nucleus, Spinal Leminiscus, and Sympathetic. What does damage to each lead to?

A

Trigeminal Nucleus: Ipsilateral Pain and temperature loss from face
Spinal Leminiscus: Contralateral Pain and Temp loss from body
Sympathetics: Ipsilateral Horner’s Syndrome (Ptosis)

440
Q

Medial Medullary Syndrome

A

Medial medulla is supplied by the Anterior spinal artery and Vertebral Artery. A stroke in this area would lead to

  1. Contralateral Hemiplegia (corticospinal tracts in pyramids)
  2. Contralateral Sensation loss (dorsal Columns =>proprioception and fine touch)
  3. Ipsilateral Paralysis of the Tongue (Hypoglossal nerve affected)
441
Q

What syndrome describes this:
A stroke in this area would lead to
1. Contralateral Hemiplegia (corticospinal tracts in pyramids)
2. Contralateral Sensation loss (dorsal Columns =>proprioception and fine touch)
3. Ipsilateral Paralysis of the Tongue (Hypoglossal nerve affected)

A

Medial Medullary Syndrome

442
Q

The Medial medulla is supplied by

A

Anterior spinal artery and/or Vertebral Artery

443
Q

A stroke in the Vertebral artery leads to

A

Medial Medullary Syndrome

444
Q

What cranial nerve is affected by the Medial medullary syndrome. What does it lead to?

A

Hypoglossal nerve (XII). leads to ipsilateral paralysis of the tongue

445
Q

Medial Medullary syndrome affects what sensory pathway

A

Dorsal Columns (Proprioception and fine touch)

446
Q

Medial Medullary syndrome affects what Motor Pathway

A

Corticospinal pathway (pyramids)

447
Q

A stroke in PICA affects the nucleus of what cranial nerve? What does it lead to? Ipsilateral or contralateral?

A

Trigeminal. Contralateral Loss of sensation of pain and temperature to face and scalp

448
Q

A stroke in PICA affects which sensory pathway. Ipsilateral or contralateral

A

Lateral (specifically) spinothalamic Tracts (pain and temp sensation lost from body) (contralateral)

449
Q

A stroke in PICA is called

A

Lateral Medullary Syndrome

450
Q

A stroke in what artery causes Lateral Medullary Syndrome?

451
Q

What artery supplies the lateral medulla?

A

PICA (from Vertebral artery)

452
Q

A stroke in PICA leads to what syndrome (other than Lateral Medullary syndrome). Is it ipsilateral or contralateral

A

Horner’s syndrome (ptosis, miosis). Ipsilateral

453
Q

At what week of development does the Dental Lamina form

454
Q

When after birth do milk/deciduous teeth come out

A

6-24 months

455
Q

When are buds of permanent teeth formed in development

A

8-12 weeks

456
Q

When do the deciduous teeth fuck off

457
Q

How many permanent teeth do we have

458
Q

permanent teeth are divided into 4 quarters of 8 teeth. What does each quarter contain

A

2 incisors, 1 canine, 2 premolar, and 3 molar

459
Q

What muscle makes the floor of the mouth? What is it supplied by

A

Mylohyoid (Vc)

460
Q

What lies on top of the mylohyoid muscle? What is it supplied by?

A

Geniohyoid (Vc)

461
Q

What salivary gland has multiple ducts?

A

sublingual gland

462
Q

What salivary gland is least likely to get blocked?

A

Sublingual

463
Q

What nerve gives secretomotor functions to the Submandibular and sublingual glands

A

Lingual nerve (Vc) (merged with chordates tympani)

464
Q

What gland(s) does the lingual nerve innervate

A

Sublingual and submandibular glands

465
Q

On removal of the wisdom tooth, anaesthesia is normally applied. What is the targeted nerve, and what lies in close proximity to that which can also be potentially affected?

A

They aim for the inferior alveolar nerve (teeth) but can also affect the lingual (loss of taste and sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue) and Buccal Nerve (buccinator)

466
Q

What forms the Hard palate of the mouth?

A

Palatine process of the maxilla and the Palatine bone

467
Q

The adentoid process in the mouth is formed by the

A

Dens of C2

468
Q

The arches of the soft palate is formed by which muscles? What are the arches they pertain to? What are they supplied by?

A

Anterior arch: Palatoglossus (X)

Posterior Arch: Palatopharyngeus (XII)

469
Q

Where is the Palatoglossus muscle located? What is it supplied by?

A

Anterior Arch of the soft palate and by X

470
Q

Where is the Palatopharyngeus located? What is it supplied by?

A

Posterior Arch of the soft palate and by XII

471
Q

What is located in between the anterior and posterior arches of the soft palate?

A

Palatine Tonsils

472
Q

What is located between the palatoglossus (X) and the palatopharyngeus (XII)?

A

Palatine Tonsils

473
Q

Where are the palatine tonsils located?

A

In the soft palate between
Anterior arch: Palatoglossus (X)
Posterior Arch: Palatopharyngeus (XII)

474
Q

Enlargement of the Palatine tonsils can be due to..

A

Puss (infection) or an Intercarotid Aneurysm

475
Q

What is particularly dangerous about Palatine tonsil incision?

A

Due to its close proximity to the Internal carotid artery, the presence of an Internal carotid aneurysm can be very exposed.

476
Q

What artery lies close to the Palatine tonsil?

A

Internal carotid artery

477
Q

What muscle of the tongue is not innervated by the Hypoglossal nerve? What is it innervated by?

A

Palatoglossus (X)

478
Q

What is the function of the intrinsic muscles of the Tongue? What are they innervated by?

A

Alter shape of the tongue (None of them are the palatoglossus)

479
Q

What is the function of the Extrinsic muscles of the tongue? What are they innervated by?

A

Alter the position of the tongue. All innervated by the hypoglossal nerve except for palatoglossus which is innervated by X

480
Q

What type of muscles alter the position of the tongue

A

Extrinsic muscles

481
Q

What type of muscle is the palatoglossus (Intrinsic or Extrinsic)

482
Q

What type of muscles alter the shape of the tongue

483
Q

What divides the Tongue b/w the anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3?

A

a line infant of the Vallae Papillae

484
Q

What innervates the motor function of the Anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal nerve

485
Q

What innervates the motor function of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal nerve

486
Q

What innervates the sensory function of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

Glossopharyngeal

487
Q

What innervates the sensory function of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

Lingual nerve (Vc)

488
Q

What innervates taste in posterior 1/3

A

glossopharyngeal

489
Q

What innervates taste in anterior 2/3

A

Chorda Tympani

490
Q

What is a Raphae

A

A muscle that connects to its counterpart on one side and with a bone on the other

491
Q

What nerves are located in the Pharyngeal plexus

A

IX,X,XI cranial nerves

492
Q

What nerves are part of the gag reflex?

493
Q

What are the 3 raphae muscles of the Pharynx. What’re their motor supplies

A

Superior, Middle, and Infererior Constrictors. All supplied by IX,X,XI

494
Q

What muscles covers the pharyngeal fascia?

A

Superior constrictor

495
Q

What attaches to the Pharyngeal tubercle of the Occipital bone

A

Superior constrictor

496
Q

What Pharyngeal constrictor attaches to the hyoid bone?

A

Middle constrictor

497
Q

The Inferior constrictor is divided into 2 parts? What are they? What is the space called between the two parts? What can occur there?

A

Inferior constrictor is divided into the Thryropharyngeus and the Cricopharyngeus (think of the cartilages). They have a gap in the middle called Killian’s dehisces which can expand into a pouch if there is too much pressure

498
Q

Where is Killian’s Dehisces located in?

A

In the gap between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharynxgeus of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor

499
Q

What nerves supply all the pharyngeal constrictors?

500
Q

The Esophagus and the vertebral artery start at the same point. T or F?

A

True they both start at C6

501
Q

Where does the oesophagus start at

502
Q

Other than the Palatine tonsils, what other tonsil is present in that area?

A

Pharyngeal tonsils

503
Q

Pharyngeal tonsils are also called?

504
Q

Adenoids refers to

A

Pharyngeal tonsils

505
Q

What is the significance of Pharyngeal tonsils in children?

A

Enlargement or infection can lead to the blockage of airways and also including the Eustachian tube

506
Q

What danger does the enlargement of the Adenoids pose

A

Enlargement or infection can lead to the blockage of airways and also including the Eustachian tube

507
Q

What is a typical symptom of enlargement of pharyngeal tonsils?

A

Hoarsness of voice

508
Q

What fossa is located in the pharynx? What nerve runs there?

A

Piriform fossa, Internal Laryngeal nerve (from superior laryngeal nerve (X))

509
Q

What nerve runs in the piriform fossa? What is it a branch of?

A

Laryngeal nerve (X)

510
Q

Severe enlargement or blockage in the Pharynx can lead to damage of which nerve (other than IX,X,XI). What does that lead to?

A

Internal laryngeal nerve (X), similar to the superior laryngeal nerve, injury to this nerve will cause the loss of the cough reflex.

511
Q

The laryngeal nerves are a branch of what nerve

512
Q

The soft palate as a whole is divided into 4 muscles. What are the 4 muscles and what are their roles and innervations?

A

Tensor Palati (Vc) and Levator Palati (X) involved in clossing off the nasal passage when swallowing. Palatoglossus (X) and Palatopharyngeus (XII) are palate tensors.

513
Q

What muscles close off the nasopharynx when swallowing? What nerves innervate them

A

Tensor Palati (Vc) and Levator Palati (X)

514
Q

What muscle of the soft palate is not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus

A

Pharyngeal plexus is IX,X,XI but Tensor Palati is innervated by Vc

515
Q 
Explain the process fo swallowing with regards to the following:
Nasopharynx
Eustachian tube
Larynx
Esophagus
A

Nasopharynx is closed by Tensor palate (Vc) and levator palati (X)
Eustachian tube is open (only open when swallowing and yawning)
Larynx is closed by lifting it and allowing the epiglottis to close
Oesophagus opened by relaxation of the Cricopharyngeus (of inferior constrictor IX,X,XI)

516
Q

What muscle is controls the opening and closing of the oesophagus

A

Cricopharyngeus (of inferior constrictor IX,X,XI)

517
Q

What muscles close the nasopharynx?

A

Tensor palate (Vc) and levator palati (X)

518
Q

Under what conditions does the Eustachian tube open

A

only open when swallowing and yawning

519
Q

The gag reflex is initiated by touching of the

A

Oropharynx

520
Q

The efferent limb of the Gag reflex is the

A

Vagus nerve X

521
Q

The afferent limb of the gag reflex is the

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve IX since it provides sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

522
Q

What bones compose the orbit?

A

Frontal, zygomatic, maxilla and Sphenoid

523
Q

Where does the Superior orbital fissure lie?

A

Between the lesser and greater wing of the sphenoid

524
Q

What lies between the lesser and greater wing of the sphenoid

A

Superior orbital fissure

525
Q

What lies in the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III,IV, Va, and VI, Lacrimal Artery (branch of ophthalmic artery) and Superior ophthalmic veins

526
Q

What nerves lie in the superior orbital fissure?

A

CN III,IV, Va, and VI

527
Q

What artery lies in the superior orbital fissure? Where does it originate?

A

Lacrimal Artery (branch of ophthalmic artery)

528
Q

Where does the inferior orbital fissure lie

A

Between the maxilla, zygomatic, and greater wing of the sphenoid bone

529
Q

What lies between the maxilla, zygomatic, and greater wing of the sphenoid bone

A

inferior orbital fissure

530
Q

What lies within the inferior orbital fissure

A

Vb (infraorbital and zygomatic branches) and inferior ophthalmic veins

531
Q

What artery lies in the inferior orbital fissure

A

no arteries

532
Q

What nerve(s) lies in the inferior orbital fissure with their origin

A

Vb (infraorbital and zygomatic branches)

533
Q

where is Orbicularis oris

A

Around the mouth

534
Q

Where is Orbicularis Oculi?

A

Around the eye

535
Q

The orbiculares Oculi has two parts to it. What supplies this muscle? What does it do?

A

It is divided into an orbital part and a palpable part. Raises eyebrows => muscle of facial expression => VII

536
Q

What muscle raises the eyelids? What is it innervated by?

A

Levator palpebrae (III)

537
Q

Levator palpebrae is innervated by? What is its function? What muscle does it give off and give its innervation

A

Levator papebrae is innervated by III and gives off smooth muscle known as the Tarsal muscle which has sympathetic innervation

538
Q

What is the innervation of the Tarsal muscle? What gives off the tarsal muscle? What type of muscle is it?

A

It is a smooth muscle given off by the Levator palpebrae muscle (III) and is innervated by sympathetics

539
Q

What muscle does Levator palpebrae give off and what is it innervated by?

A

Tarsal muscle which is innervated by sympathetics of T1

540
Q

What are the three parts that make up tears

A

Mucous by conjunctival goblet cells
Aqueous solution by Lacrimal gland
and Lipids by meibomian glands (prevents it from evaporating)

541
Q

What part of the tear prevents it from spilling out or evaporating? What is it made from?

A

Lipid part by Meibomian glands

542
Q

What type of gland is the lacrimal gland

543
Q

What separates the lacrimal gland into two parts? What are the two parts? Are they the same size? What is the innervation of the separating muscle

A

The lacrimal gland is divided into a larger orbital part and a smaller palperable part by the Levator palpebrae (III)

544
Q

Does the lacrimal gland have one or multiple ducts?

A

Multiple ducts

545
Q

What duct of the lacrimal gland does not enter the eye? Where does it open to

A

The Nasolacrimal duct connects the eye to the Inferior meatus on the lateral wall of the nasal cavity.

546
Q

What are the two ducts of the lacrimal gland?

A

Canaliculi (to the eye) and Nasolacrimal duct (to nose)

547
Q

What lacrimal duct takes tears to the eyes?

A

Canaliculi duct

548
Q

Where is the lacrimal sac located?

549
Q

Blockage at the Punta involves which ducts? What is this called?

A

Affects both the canaliculi and nasolacrimal ducts. It is called Epiphora

550
Q

Epiphora

A

Blockage at the Punta affecting both the canaliculi and nasolacrimal ducts

551
Q

Ptosis. What nerve causes this

A

Dropping of the eyelid (III)

552
Q

Stye

A

Follicular cyst

553
Q

Meibomian cyst

A

Cyst in the gland that makes the lipid component of tears

554
Q

Give the Nerve supply and function of the Medial Rectus

A

Adducts the eye (III)

555
Q

Give the Nerve supply and function of Lateral rectus

A

Abducts the eye (VI)

556
Q

Give the Nerve supply and function of Superior Rectus

A

Elevates and adducts (III)

557
Q

Give the Nerve supply and function of Inferior Rectus

A

Depresses and adducts (III)

558
Q

Give the Nerve supply and function of Superior oblique

A

Elevates and Abducts (IV)

559
Q

Give the Nerve supply and function of Inferior Oblique

A

Elevates and Abducts (III)

560
Q

All muscles that in the eye originate from a ring structure except for two muscles. Give their names and innervations

A

Levator Palpebrae Superioris (III)

Superior Oblique muscle (IV)

561
Q

In order to Examine the Lateral and medial rectus muscles, what do we need to do?

A

Nothing lol

562
Q

In order to Examine the Superior and Inferior Rectus muscles, what do we need to do?

A

Abduct the eyes (opposite of what they do)

563
Q

In order to Examine the Lateral and medial oblique muscles, what do we need to do?

A

Adduct the eyes (opposite of what they do)

564
Q

Strabismus/squint

A

Abnormal alignment of the eye

565
Q

Abnormal alignment of the eye

A

Strabismus

566
Q

What are the three types of strabismus and what does each mean

A

Esotropia: Eye converges
Exotropia: Eye Diverges
Hypertropia: Eye moves up and medial

567
Q

Esotropia (include muscles that is defected and its innervation)

A

Converging of pupils, lateral rectus affected (VI)

568
Q

Exotropia (include muscles that is defected and its innervation)

A

Diverging of pupils, medial rectus affected (III)

569
Q

Hypertropia (include muscles that is defected and its innervation)

A

Pupils are up and medial => Superior oblique muscle affected (IV)

570
Q

What are the 3 chambers of the eye. Give their location

A

Anterior chamber: Anterior to Iris
Posterior chamber: between Iris and lens
Vitreous chamber: Posterior to lens

571
Q

Why are the sclera and cornea easy to implant

A

they are avascular => No blood and hence no immune interference

572
Q

The sclera and cornea are continuous with the sclera being 1/6 the size of the cornea (T or F)

573
Q

Since the sclera and cornea are continuous and avascular, what gives the nutrition to it?

A

Aqueous humor

574
Q

What forms the fibrous layer of the eye

A

Sclera and cornea

575
Q

Where do the sclera and cornea meet? What is its significance

A

Corneoscleral junction where the canal of Schlemm is. It is where the Scleral venous sinus is which drains the Aqueous humour

576
Q

What is the significance of the Canal of Schlemm. And where is it?

A

Corneoscleral junction where the canal of Schlemm is. It is where the Scleral venous sinus is which drains the Aqueous humour

577
Q

What gives sensory innervation to the fibrous layer of the eye?

578
Q

What layer of the eye is formed by the sclera and cornea?

A

Fibroud layer

579
Q

The Iris, Ciliary body, and Choroid are found X and form the Y layer of the eye

A

They are found behind the corneoscleral junction and form the Vascular layer of the eye

580
Q

What gives the pigments to the eyes

581
Q

What are the muscles of the Iris and what are they innervated by?

A

They are the Sphincter papillae (parasympathetics of III) and the dilator papillae (sympathetics of T1)

582
Q

What muscle controls the lens of the eye. What is it innervated by? What does it do when it contracts? What does it affect?

A

The lens is controlled by cilliary muscles through the parasympathetics of III. When it contracts it adjusts the focal length by decreasing it allowing to see close objects.

583
Q

What produces Aqueous humour? Where is it produced?

A

Cilliary bodies in the posterior chamber

584
Q

What does the aqueous humour supply

A

Sclera and cornea

585
Q

Where is the aqueous humour produced and where does it go

A

produced by cilliary bodies in the psoterior chamber and then enters the anterior chamber through the pupil.

586
Q

Explain the drainage of the Aqueous humour

A

From the anterior chamber, where it is stored, it drains into the Tubercular meshwork at the Angle of the Iris and cornea and finally drains into the Canal of Schlemm (scleral venous sinus) at the corneoscleral junction

587
Q

What controls the Intraocular pressure?

A

Aqueous humor

588
Q

Where is the tubercular meshwork located

A

At the angle of the iris and cornea

589
Q

What does increased intraocular pressure result from?

590
Q

Glaucoma affects what part of the eye?

A

The angle of Iris and Cornea within the tubercular mesh

591
Q

What are the two types of Glaucoma

A

Open angle => partial blockage

Closed angle => full blockage

592
Q

Glaucoma causes

A

Increased intraocular pressure which can damage the optic nerve

593
Q

Papilledema is caused from X and can cause Y

A

Caused by increased ICP and causes elevation of the optic disc and blurring of optic margins

594
Q

Cataracts

A

Protein clumping in eyes

595
Q

FUCK ME NOW

A

yes pls :)

596
Q

The external ear is in the X part of the temporal bone

A

Tympanic part

597
Q

The middle and inner ear is in the X part of the temporal bone

598
Q

What is the main sensory innervation of the the Pinna? Where does it enter?

A

Auriculotemporal nerve of Vc which enters through the I.A.M.

599
Q

What nerve carries parasympathetic fibres to the ear? What clinical significance does this have

A

The vagus nerve (X). Microsyringing with cold water can lead to Vasovagal syndrome

600
Q

Vasovagal syndrome is caused by

A

Microsyringing with cold water.

601
Q

The virus Herpes Zoster Oticus affects what ganglion?

A

Geniculate Ganglion of the ear (VII)

602
Q

What nerve is related to the Geniculate ganglion?

603
Q

Where does VII enter the ear?

604
Q

Geniculate ganglion is the target of X. What does this present as?

A

Herpes Zoster Oticus and presents as vesicles on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue since it affects VII which gives off the chordates tympani.

605
Q

Trauma to the ear causes

A

Cauliflower ear

606
Q

Basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the external ear is caused by

A

Extensive UV exposure

607
Q

What processes are located anterior and posterior to the E.A.M

A

Posteriorly the mastoid process and anteriorly the styloid process

608
Q

What is different about the ear between adults and children

A

Adults have a cartilaginous 1/3 and bony 2/3, kids have the opposite

609
Q

When examining the E.A.M manipulation of the ear is different between adults and children. What is the difference?

A

For adults you pull the pinna up and back. For kids, down and back

610
Q

What glands are located in the epithelium of the E.A.M and what do they secrete. What is it’s significance

A

Ceruminous glands and secretes earwax. Prevents Masceration of skin

611
Q

Otitis Externa. What is it and how is it tested?

A

Inflammation of the external ear due to constant exposure to water which affects the pH of the skin. Tested by pulling pinna down. should be painful.

612
Q

Pulling down the pinna and sensation of pain indicates X

A

Otitis Externa

613
Q

Inflammation of the external ear or change in pH due to water exposure is a sign of

A

Otitis Externa

614
Q

Presence of CSF in the E.A.M indicates

A

Fracture of skull

615
Q

The tympanic membrane is composed of 3 layers. what’re they composed of

A

Outer layer is skin
Middle layer is fibrous connective tissue
Inner layer is respiratory epithelium

616
Q

The tympanic membrane forms a shallow cone and lies at an angle of

A

55 degrees

617
Q

The apex of the tympanic membrane points (inwards or outwards). What is the apex connected to

A

Apex points inwards and connected to the handle of the malleus

618
Q

What part of the tympanic membrane forms a cone of light

A

the apex or Umbo

619
Q

What is the Pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane

A

it is the upper 1/3 of the tympanic membrane that does not have a middle fibrous connective tissue layer

620
Q

What is the Pars Tensa of the tympanic membrane

A

It is the lower 2/3 of the tympanic membrane and has all 3 layers

621
Q

What is the nerve supply of the E.A.M and tympanic membrane. Good luck

A

The auriculotemporal nerve (Vc) supplies the anterior 3/4 of the E.A.M as well as the Anterior External part of the tympanic membrane.
The Vagus Nerve (X) supplies the posterior 1/4 of the E.A.M as well as the posterior External part of the tympanic membrane
The Chorda Tympani (of the facial nerve VII) supplies the upper 1/3 of the tympanic membrane
The Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) supplies the Internal part of the tympanic membrane

622
Q

What supplies the external part of the tympanic membrane

A

The auriculotemporal nerve (Vc) supplies the anterior 3/4 of the E.A.M as well as the Anterior External part of the tympanic membrane.
The Vagus Nerve (X) supplies the posterior 1/4 of the E.A.M as well as the posterior External part of the tympanic membrane

623
Q

What supplies the internal part of the tympanic membrane

A

The Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) supplies the Internal part of the tympanic membrane

624
Q

With regards to the tympanic membrane, what nerve supplies the Pars Flaccida?

A

Chorda Tympani

625
Q

The ear connects to the nasal cavity through

A

Eustachian tube

626
Q

What are the Oscicles, what are they supplied by, and what pharyngeal arch supplies them.

A

The Malleus and Incus are supplied by Vc (1st arch)

The stapes is supplied by the VII (2nd arch)

627
Q

What are the muscles of the middle ear, what are they attached to, and what innervates them

A

Tensor Tympani inserts into the malleus => Vc

Stapedius inserts into the stapes => VII

628
Q

Where does the chorda tympani run in the middle ear?

A

It is a branch of the facial nerve and is the last branch before the facial nerve exits through the stylomastoid foramen. It then supplies the upper 1/3 of the tympanic membrane and runs between the malleus and incus

629
Q

what are the components of limbic system

A 
cingulate gyrus
hippocampal formation 
fornix 
mammillary body 
septal nuclei 
n. accumbens
amygdala
630
Q

septal nuclei

A

orgasm-like sensation

631
Q

the destruction of the septal nuclei results in…

632
Q

n. accumbens

A

motor expression of emotion
dopaminergic activity
sense of wellbeing

633
Q

amygdala

A

fear centre

634
Q

what does the bilateral ablation of the amygdala result in?

A

calmness

hypersensitivity

635
Q

hippocampal formation has how many layers of cells? what is it called?

A

3

Allocortex

636
Q

hippocampal formation

A

infolding of the inferomedial part of the temporal bone

637
Q

what are the components of the hippocampal formation

A

hippocampus proper - makes new memories
dentate gyrus - episodic memory
subicular complex - short term memory
entorhinal complex - how memories are made

638
Q

hippocampus proper

A

makes new memories

639
Q

dentate gyrus

A

episodic memory

640
Q

subicular complex

A

short term memory

641
Q

entorhinal complex

A

how memories are made

642
Q

where is the hippocampal formation found

A

located in the temporal lobe under the inferior horn of lateral ventricle

643
Q

what structure is located in the temporal lobe under the inferior horn of lateral ventricle

A

hippocampal formation

644
Q

what structure controls episodic memory

A

dentate gyrus

645
Q

what structure controls short term memory

A

subicular complex

646
Q

what structure makes new memories

A

hippocampus proper

647
Q

Fornix

A

efferent pathway from hippocampus

bundle of fibres at the posterior portion of hippocampus

648
Q

components of fornix

A
  1. fimbra - band of white matter. meets with hippocampus
  2. crus - lens - partial decussation - split into anterior pillars
  3. body - travels superior to thalamus - where the hippocampal commissure is located ( fibres to and from other hemisphere merge here)
  4. anterior pillars - 2 columns
649
Q

fimbra

A

band of white matter

650
Q

the fimbra meets with what structure

A

meets with hippocampus

651
Q

crus

A

lens - partial decussation

652
Q

what does the crus split into

A

split into anterior pillars

653
Q

where does the body of the fornix travel

A

travels superior to thalamus

654
Q

fibres to and from other hemispheres merge at what component of the fornix

655
Q

what are the columns of the anterior pillar

A

posterior - mammillary bodies - short term memories and smell (near nasal fibres)
anterior - septal nuclei and n. accumbens

656
Q

what structure does the posterior column of the anterior pillar go to? what is the function of the structure

A

mammillary bodies - short term memories and smell (near nasal fibres)

657
Q

mammillary body function

A

short term memories and smell

658
Q

what structures does the anterior column of the anterior pillar go to?

A

septal nuclei and n. accumbens

659
Q

Circuit of Papez

A

hippocampal formation –> fornix –> mammillary bodies (POSTERIOR) / septal nuclei and n. accumbens (anterior) –> anterior nucleus of thalamus –> cingulate gyrus –> entorhinal cortex –> hippocampal formation

660
Q

in the circuit of papez where is the ipsilateral afferent coming from.

A

entorhinal cortex

661
Q

in the circuit of papez where is the contralateral afferent coming from.

A 
hippocampal formation
entorhinal cortex (from other side)
662
Q

where are the reward centres of the brain

A

medial forebrain bundle - septal nuclei and n. accumbens, olfactory veins and brainstem

663
Q

punishment centres

A

periaqueductal - thalamus, amygdala, hippocampus

664
Q

what may cause circuit dysfunction

A

1) tumours/ damage to mammillary bodies

2) alzheimer’s disease = hippocampal degradation

665
Q

explain the causes of cortical degeneration?

A

PFC degradation - inappropriate behaviour, attention and monitor deficits, aggression
Somatic dementia - atrophy of middle and inferior temporal cortex. Patients lose meaning of words and perception.

666
Q

This is 666

667
Q

which structure does Somatic dementia not affect?

A

hippocampus

668
Q

Wernicke - Korsakoff syndrome

A 
from high levels of alcohol consumption
leads to:
confusion and coma
ataxia - slurred speech
recovers with memory loss but cannot form words.
669
Q

ataxia

A

slurred speech

670
Q

Hyperacusis

A

Paralysis of the Stapedius muscle which causes very sensitive hearing on affected side. Facial nerve damage

671
Q

Paralysis of the Stapedius muscle which causes very sensitive hearing on affected side

A

Hyperacusis

672
Q

Paralysis of what nerve leads to hyperacusis

A

VII nerve to the stapedius

Finals (17 decks)

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