Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CLIN CHEM LAB > FINALS > Flashcards

FINALS Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Chemistry flashcards Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

s measured by
peroxidase catalase reaction that will now form colored
dye which is known Quinoneimine dye that will be
detected by the device

A

Hydrogen Peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Another chemical method for cholesterol
○ Hydrolysis of CE using alcoholic KOH (potash)
to UE form
○ Extraction of UE form with petroleum ether
○ Measurement with Lieberm,ann-Burchard
reagent

A

Abell kendall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Extraction of TAG by chloroform
○ Isolation of TAG by silicic acid chromatography
○ Release of glycerol by saponification
■ Saponification: alkaline hydrolysis of
triglycerides similar to van handful
and silversmith method
Positive: Formation of red colour indicated the
presence of steroids.

A

● Salkowski reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Positive: Formation of green color indicates the
presence of steroids

A

Liebermanns Burchards Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

■ Consuming hydrogen peroxide
leading to false decrease of the result

A

Bilirubin and ascorbic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • reference method
A

CDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glycerol and Sodium periodate will be reacted to form _____________

A

formaldehyde and formic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___________ is measured by sulfuric acid
solution by chromotropic acid to produce the
end color

A

Formaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

heparin in combination with manganese to
precipitate apo B-containing LPP

A

Earliest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

– sodium phosphotungstate with magnesium

A

Alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dextran sulfate with magnesium

A

More specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

elevated TAG levels

A

Interfering factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

– assay for cholesterol content

A

Clear supernate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Prolonged venous occlusion

A

hemoconcentration
(↑chole by 10-15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It inhibits certain kinds of oxidative and
enzymatic alterations occurring in the
lipoprotein during storage

A

Purple: EDTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__________ will cause a large osmotic effect

A

Citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

___________ reabsorbed by PCT

A

98-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Metabolic waste product of _________
metabolism

A

URIC ACID - purine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

From the breakdown of ingested
nucleic acids (3)

A

Three (3) types of nucleic acids: DNA,
RNA, and artificial nucleic acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Filtered by the glomerulus

A

Uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

_____________ are secreted by DCT

A

small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

From amino acids, which are from our dietary intake

A

Purine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dietary intake which contains high amounts of purine
includes red meat (such as steaks), and beans

A

Purine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Excess amount of purine will go to the ___________, in
which some of them will be _____________, and
some will be present in the intestine which will be then
converted by the gastrointestinal bacteria into its different
form, then it will be ____________

A

uric acid pool
excreted in the urine
defecated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Formed from the breakdown of nucleic acids
and is an end product of purine metabolism

A

Uric Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Transported by the plasma from the liver to the
kidney, where it is filtered and where about
________ is excreted (via urination)

A

Uric Acid - 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Uric acid Present as _______________ in the
plasma

A

MONOSODIUM URATES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

_____________ is the appropriate term for the uric
acid IN THE BLOOD

A

Monosodium urate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

if it is IN THE URINE

A

Uric acid crystal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what shape does uric acid crystal have?

A

Rhombus-shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At concentrations greater than 6.8
mg/dL, the plasma is saturated

A
  • RELATIVELY INSOLUBLE (blood pH)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

medical term for kidney
stones; composed of minerals and salts

A

Renal calculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

has something to
do with the immune system, where it detects
foreign substances and deposits them on the
joints; it also causes inflammation (liquid not
crystals)

A

RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

is more on crystals /
stones

A

GOUTY ARTHRITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Prone to renal calculi (kidney stones)
* Tophi formation (tissues)

A

Gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Give me the causes of Gout

A

Precipitation of sodium urates in the
joints
o Hyperuricemia (increased uric acid in the
blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Inhibits the action of the enzyme XANTHINE
OXIDASE
➢ With this, xanthine will not be converted into
uric acid, thus lowering uric acid concentration
in the blood

A

Allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

catalyzes the oxidation of hypoxanthine to
xanthine, and of xanthine to uric acid
➢ responsible for the synthesis of uric acid

A

→ Xanthine oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

X-Linked genetic disorder
o Complete deficiency of hypoxanthine
guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
▪ Prevents reutilization of purine
bases resulting in increased
uric acid

A
  • Lesch Nyhan syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Caused by glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenase deficiency

A
  • Glycogen storage disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  • Filtration and secretion are impaired
A

Chronic Renal Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Toxemia of pregnancy and lactic acidosis
* Ingestion of purine-rich diet
Starvation

A

Hyperuricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  • Secondary to liver disease
A

Hypouricemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Ingestion of purine-rich diet

A

Liver, kidney, shellfish, legumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A disorder of reabsorption in
the PCT

A

o “Fanconi’s syndrome”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2 Chemotherapy drugs

A

6-mercaptopurine or azathioprine
o Overtreatment with allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

→ Maximum days of treatment for increased uric acid: ________ days

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Based on the oxidation of uric acid in PFF
(protein-free filtrate) with subsequent reduction
of phosphotungstic acid to tungsten blue

A

A. Caraway Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Provides alkaline pH for color
development

A

o Sodium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Uricase catalyzes the oxidation of uric acids to
allantoin

A

B. Uricase Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Measures the differential absorption of
uric acid and allantoin at ________

A

293 nm - B. Uricase Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

catalyzes the oxidation of uric acids to
allantoin

A

Uricase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  • Lacks specificity
A

A. Caraway Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  • More specific
A

B. Uricase Method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  • Negative interference/s: of uricasemethod
A

o Hemoglobin
o Xanthine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Measures the hydrogen peroxide produced as
uric acid is converted to allantoin

A

C. Couple Enzymatic Methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Catalyze a chemical indicator
reaction

A

o Peroxidase or Catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  • Interference/s: of Couple enzymatic method
A

o Bilirubin
o Ascorbic acid (destroy peroxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

DHBS

A

3,5-dichloro-2-hydroxybenzenesulfonic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Produced in the catabolism or deamination of
amino acids and by bacterial metabolism in
the lumen of the intestine

A

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Removed from the circulation and converted to
urea in the liver

A

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

o Causes swelling in the liver and brain
o Often affects children and teenagers
recovering from a viral infection, most
commonly the flu or chickenpox

A
  • Reye’s syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

__________is complicated by its low concentration,
instability, and pervasive contamination

A

Ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Diffusion of Ammonia (NH3) through
selective membrane into Ammonium
Chloride (NH4Cl) causing pH change,
which is measured potentiometrically

A

A. Ion-selective electrode+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

o Ammonia (NH3) + bromophenol blue
→ blue dye

A

B. Spectrophotometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ammonium (NH4+) + 2-oxoglutarate +
NADPH + H+ → glutamate + NADP+
+ H2O

A

A. Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH) Assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Enzyme of glutamate dehydrogenase assay

A

▪ Enzyme: Glutamate
dehydrogenase (GLDH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Most common on automated
instruments
o Accurate and precise

A

A. Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH) Assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Advantages of Ion selective electrode

A

o Good accuracy and precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

disadvantages of ion selective electrode

A

o Membrane stability may be a problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

___________ ammonia concentration
increases rapidly following specimen collection
because of in vitro amino acid deamination
* Venous blood should be obtained WITHOUT
TRAUMA and placed on ice immediately

A

Whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Specimen requirement

A
  • Heparin (Green tube top) or EDTA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

More preferred tube top is ___________

A

green (HEPARIN)

74
Q

Samples should be centrifuged at __________
within ________ minutes of collection and the plasma
or serum removed
* Hemolysis should be avoided

A

0C-4C
20 minutes

75
Q

If the test tries to determine the synthetic ability of the
liver, it will fall _______

A

Hepatic Synthesis Ability.

76
Q

When we talk about the liver, the majority of the
proteins are synthesized by the liver.
● The liver is responsible for the synthesis of the
majority of proteins

A
  1. HEPATIC SYNTHESIS ABILITY
77
Q

is performed in the hematology
department

A

hematologic test

78
Q

A test that allows us to differentiate intrahepatic
disorders from extrahepatic obstructive liver
diseases

A

PROTHROMBIN TIME

79
Q

In ___________, the problem is the liver, it
cannot synthesize substances like the clotting factors.

A

intrahepatic diseases

80
Q

___________ play a role in the coagulation of blood.
Seen in the plasma and there are some of the
substances needed by the liver like Vitamin K to
produce the clotting factors

A

Clotting factors

81
Q

That is why if there is a problem or an abnormal result
of the prothrombin time, one of the treatments is the
administration of _________ and after the _______ is
administered, we will again test the patient for
prothrombin time.

A

vitamin K

82
Q

The main reason why you are lacking clotting factors
is that there is a problem in the _________
also known as the __________

A

synthetic ability of the liver
Also known as the Vitamin K Response Test

83
Q

If the normal reference range of prothrombin time is _________if there is a problem in the synthetic
ability of the liver, most probably the result will fall in
___________you can describe the result at
prolonged

A

9-12 - normal
if naay problem kay 20-25

84
Q

Applicable when performing the procedures for
the determination of total protein and albumin
(package inserts).

A

● A/G ratio
ALBUMIN

85
Q

○ Dye Extraction Test
○ A test for the function and the potency of the bile
ducts. Rarely used.

A

● Bromosulfophthalein Test (BSP)

86
Q

○ Two methods used in BSP test:

A
  1. Rosenthal White Method
  2. MacDonald Method
87
Q

A double collection method. You will collect
twice the sample from the patient.
▪ Inject a dye called ___________into
the body of the patient and the amount of dye
injected is ____ milligrams per kilogram of
bodyweight.
▪ You inject this dye then collect it after _____
minutes and after _______

A
  1. Rosenthal White Method
    bromosulfopthalein test
    2 milligram
    5 minutes and after 30 minutes
88
Q

A single collection method.
▪ In terms of the amount of dye injected, it is ____
milligrams per kilogram of body weight.
▪ Collect after _______

A
  1. MacDonald Method
    5 milligrams
    45 minutes
89
Q

A metabolic product from bilirubin
▪ For the determination of urobilinogen, use
Ehrlich Method

A

● Urobilinogen

90
Q

The detoxification function can be assessed by
determining the amount of enzymes in the blood of
the patient.

A
  1. DETOXIFICATION FUNCTION
91
Q

ENZYME TEST
(7)

A

● Enzyme test:
o ALP
o ALT
o AST
o 5’N
o GGT
o LAP
o LDH

92
Q

Another test to assess the detoxification function of
the liver is to test the __________

A

the level of ammonia

93
Q

__________ is a toxic form. It should be converted to
urea via the urea cycle – which occurs in the liver

A

Ammonia

94
Q

● Test in ammonia determination:

A

● NESSLERIZATION REACTION

95
Q

terminates reaction of the
diazo reagent with the bilirubin, destroying
excess diazo reagent

A

Ascorbic acid

96
Q

shifts the
absorbance of azobilirubin to a more intense
blue color, resulting in less interference

A

alkaline tartrate solution

97
Q

Developed to quantify bilirubin in your serum
samples, utilizing the classic diazo reaction

A

Maloy evelyn method

98
Q

Conjugated bilirubin binded to albumin
* Longer half life compared to other bilirubin
* seen only in hepatic obstruction

A

DELTA BILIRUBIN

99
Q
  • Used only in neonatal population
  • Measurement of reflected light from skin using two
    wavelengths
  • provides numerical index based on spectral
    reflectance
A

BILIRUBINOMETRY

100
Q

This is a test that involves diluting serum with saline.
You dilute serum with saline until it visually matches
the 0.01% potassium dichromate.

A

ICTERUS INDEX

101
Q

Addition of alcohol may precipitate protein -
interference

A

o Serum is preferred for Malloy-Evelyn

102
Q

The number of times that the serum will be diluted is
called _________

A

icterus index

103
Q

__________ is an amino acid, with the chemical name, methyl
guanadine-acetic acid, that can be converted into
phosphocreatine. Phosphocreatine is a storage mechanism
in muscle cells used to regenerate the cells primary source
of energy: Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)

A

Creatinine

104
Q

____________ is the waste product formed in muscle from high
energy storage compound, creatine phosphate
(phosphocreatine

A

Creatinine

105
Q

___________ made up of amino acid and
synthesized by the liver

A

creatine

106
Q

Creatine
Synthesized primarily in the liver which is made up of amino
acids:

A

MAG
methionine, arginine, glycine

107
Q

_________ is producing an anticoagulant, which is heparin, to
prevent the clotting of blood inside the body

A

liver

108
Q

If there is renal failure, creatinine levels decrease in _______
and increase in _________

A

urine
blood

109
Q
  • Creatinine: below normal range = _____________
A

muscle dystrophy

110
Q

alkaline hydrolysis of your
triglyceride. Similar to your van handel and
your silversmith method.

A

Saponification

111
Q

a method that ionizes the
chemical species and sorts the ions based on its
mass ratio

A

Mass spectrometry

112
Q

should be refrigerated if cannot be analyzed within an
hour

A

Urine

113
Q

Polymer of fructose
● Extremely stable substance that is not reabsorbed or
secreted by the tubules
● Not a normal body constituent
● Not routinely done because necessary for continuous IV
infusion
● Ideally reference method but not usually done due to its
laborious procedure

A

Inulin

114
Q

● Has a MW of approx. 11,800 Daltons
Dissociates from human leukocyte antigens at a constant
rate
● Rapidly removed from the plasma by glomerular filtration
then reabsorbed completely by the PCT
● Not reliable in patients with immunologic conditions >
multiple myeloma & lymphoma (increased production of
WBC which has nucleus)
● found in nucleated cells

A

Beta 2 microglobulin

115
Q

Has a MW of approx. 13,000 Da
● Inhibitor of cysteine proteinase
● Produced by all nucleated cells at constant rate
● Freely filtered and completely reabsorbed in the PCT
(normally not seen in urine)
● Plasma concentration appear to be unaffected by gender,
race, age, and muscle mass
● Measurements are difficult and expensive - NOT routinely
used

A

CYSTATIN C

116
Q

● Also known as prostaglandin D2 synthase

A

BETA TRACE PROTEIN

117
Q

● 2-(alpha-mannopyranosyl)-L-tryptophan (MPT)

A

TRYPTOPHAN GLYCOCONJUGATE

118
Q

● ex. technetium diethylenetriaminepentaacetic

A

USE OF RADIOISOTOPES

119
Q

Usually associated with an enzyme (metalloenzyme)
or another protein (metalloprotein) as an essential
component or cofactor.

A

TRACE ELEMENTS

120
Q

________ is the most commonly used for determinations

A

Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

121
Q

_________ affect analyses of these trace
elements.

A

Reagents and water

122
Q

methods and instrumentation

A

AAS - Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
FAAS - Flame Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy
AES - Atomic Emission Spectroscopy

123
Q

___________ is made up of amino acids and broken
down for reuse for protein synthesis

A

Globin

124
Q

___________ part is broken down into biliverdin and iron

A

Heme

125
Q

___________ transferred to the liver, wherein it
will be transported further into the small
intestine.

A

Biliverdin

126
Q

___________ serve as pigments
that give color to the waste products or
excretions.

A

Stercobilin and urobilin

127
Q

About ________ of our iron is found in our red blood
cells and it is called _________, responsible for
giving red color.

A

70% - hemoglobin

128
Q

__________where our red blood cells
are produced, part of hematopoietic
process

A

bone marrow

129
Q

where our red blood cells
are disrupted after their lifespan.

A

spleen and liver

130
Q

In adult male, the average loss of _______ per
day must be replaced by dietary sources.
o Pregnant or premenopausal women and children
have greater iron requirements.

A

1 mg of iron

131
Q

In adult male, the average loss of _______ per
day must be replaced by dietary sources.
o Pregnant or premenopausal women and children
have greater iron requirements.

A

1 mg of iron

132
Q

Pregnant: ________ requires a great amount of
iron for development.

A

fetus

133
Q
  • ________________
    have greater iron requirements.
A

Pregnant or premenopausal women and children

134
Q
  • heme will be broken down into iron,
    wherein it will be carried by transferrin into the
    liver. It will be further transported from the
    liver to the bone marrow (ferritin) for storage
    until its time for new cell production or
    hematopoietic processes
A

iron

135
Q

__________ bound to enzymes

A

8 mg

136
Q

_________ iron transport protein in the
serum. Transports iron from the liver to bone
marrow in the form of Ferritin. Stored until it
is time to make new cells or hematopoietic
processes.

A

Transferrin

137
Q

___________ is the major iron storage protein in
our body. It will be recycled for new RBCs,
wherein this new RBC will again circulate for
120 days in the circulatory system as a
mature RBC. It is capable of functioning as a
vehicle transport for oxygen, carbon dioxide,
gas exchange, and nutrient exchange. It
reaches its maximum life. It will go back to the
spleen for natural death and degradation,
repeating the cycle.

A

Ferritin

138
Q
  • Essential component of hemoglobin
A

BIOCHEMICAL FUNCTIONS

139
Q
  • Iron must remain in __________
A

ferrous state

140
Q

facilitates the diffusion of oxygen into
tissue because it binds oxygen with greater affinity
than hemoglobin.

A

Myoglobin

141
Q

are essential for electron transport in
the respiratory chain, with reversible cycling of ferric
iron to ferrous iron, resulting in the production of ATP

A

Cytochromes

142
Q

are iron-containing
enzymes that convert H2O2 to water

A

Peroxidase and catalase

143
Q

inversely proportional with the TIBC

A

Iron

144
Q

MCHC

A

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
Concentration.

145
Q

A laboratory test being
measured, especially if the doctor wants to
focus on the iron state of the patient.

A

MCHC

146
Q

whether or not tissue
damage is present

A

HEMOCHROMATOSIS

147
Q

– increased serum iron and TIBC
or transferrin, but without demonstrable tissue
damage.

A

hemosiderosis

148
Q

released from binding proteins, can
enhance the production of free radicals to cause
oxidative damage

A

ferric iron

149
Q

the
most common; we can also find out the patient’s
hydration status with hematocrit

A

Packed Cell Volume (PCV) or Hematocrit –

150
Q

you can conclude safely that if it is
within normal range, the patient is not anemic. If lower
– the patient is anemic.
o The basis for blood donation

A

Hemoglobin

151
Q

Red blood cell count and indices
* Total iron and TIBC
* Percent saturation
* Transferrin
* Ferritin

A
152
Q

– increases in iron
deficiency and decreases in iron overload

A

Serum Transferrin Receptors

153
Q

– not to the iron
circulating as free hemoglobin.

A

Ferric iron bound to transferrin –

154
Q

is preferred because of the diurnal
variation

A

Early morning

155
Q

Amount of iron that could be bound by saturating
transferrin and other minor iron-binding proteins
present in the serum or plasma sample

A

TOTAL IRON-BINDING CAPACITY (TIBC)

156
Q
  • Also called the transferrin saturation
  • the ratio of serum iron to TIBC
A

Percent saturation

157
Q
  • Also the transport system of the iron
  • Measured by immunochemical methods (e.g.
    nephelometry)
A

Transferrin

158
Q

Measured in serum by immunochemical methods

A

Ferritin

159
Q

_______ is the stored form. If they decrease, it
results in iron deficiency

A

Ferritin

160
Q

Shellfish, liver, nuts, and legumes

A
  • Dietary Requirements
  • copper
161
Q

regulation of copper

A

intestine

162
Q

________ is the major copper-carrying protein
in the blood and plays a vital role in iron metabolism
* Acute phase protein

A

ceruloplasmin

163
Q
  • Less than ________ is lost in urine and sweat
A

CERULOPLASMIN - 3%

164
Q

Component of enzymes involved in __________

A

redox
reactions

165
Q

_________ competes with copper for absorption from the
intestine

A

Zinc

166
Q

Malnutrition (no intake) and malabsorption (has
sufficient intake but does not absorb)

A

Deficiency

167
Q

– recessive X-linked genetic
defect in copper transport and storage

A

Menkes’ syndrome

168
Q

Mostly by accidental ingestion of copper solutions
* Use of intrauterine devices containing copper

A

EXCESS

169
Q

hepatolenticular degeneration
o Associated with copper accumulation in the liver,
brain, kidney, and cornea

A

Wilson’s disease

170
Q

________ is normally transferred from intestine to the
liver but cannot be transported out from the liver

A

copper

171
Q

_________= transported in the circulation by albumin

A

65%

172
Q

_______ = alpha2-macroglobulin

A

35%

173
Q

Major route of excretion is by the feces and ______
is by pancreatic secretion

A

25%

174
Q

Metal cofactor for enzyme activity
o Usually an integral component of the active site
of the enzyme

A
  • Biochemical Functions
175
Q

Constituent of Vitamin B12, which is involved in folate
metabolism and erythropoiesis (or hematopoiesis—
formation of our red blood cells or erythrocyted)

A

COBALT

176
Q

Use in metal alloys, metal plating, dyes, and leather
tanning
* Natural or industrial waste
* +6 ion is far more toxic than the +3 ion
* Richest source is diet
* Transported to the tissue by transferrin
* Important in glucose metabolism as an essential
activator of insulin
* Flameless AAS

A

CHROMIUM

177
Q
  • Preventing dental caries (or cavities)
  • Excess is associated with mottling of teeth and
    calcification in soft tissue
  • May also minimize bone loss or even stimulate bone
    formation
  • Readily absorbed by the gut and distributed totally to
    the bone and teeth
  • Excreted in the kidney
A

FLUORIDE

178
Q
  • Largely protein-bound
  • Activator of several enzymes
  • Transported in plasma by albumin, alpha2-
    macroglobulin, and transferrin
  • Excreted in bile and pancreatic secretions
  • Flameless AAS
A

MANGANESE

179
Q
  • Cofactors for several oxidase enzymes
  • Mostly absorbed in the stomach and small intestine
  • Released and excreted either in the urine or in the bile
  • Excess exposure may cause inhibition of copperdependent enzymes (ceruloplasmin and cytochrome
    oxidase)
A

MOLYBDENUM

180
Q
  • Cofactors for several oxidase enzymes
  • Mostly absorbed in the stomach and small intestine
  • Released and excreted either in the urine or in the bile
  • Excess exposure may cause inhibition of copperdependent enzymes (ceruloplasmin and cytochrome
    oxidase)
A

MOLYBDENUM

181
Q
  • Cofactor in glutathione peroxidase and iodothyronine
    diodinase
  • Antioxidant properties and is involved in metabolism
    of thyroid hormones
  • Deficiency found in: cardiomyopathy and skeletal
    weakness, osteoarthritis, and increased incidence of
    cancer
  • AAS
A

SELENIUM

CLIN CHEM LAB (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions