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NURS 212 > Final Study > Flashcards

Final Study Flashcards

1
Q

Risk factors for development of delirium include

A

Sensory deprivation/ isolation, sensory impairment, infection/ fever, presence of indwelling devices

b.
All of the above

c.
Functional impairment, polypharmacy, cognitive impairment, fecal impaction

d.
Dehydration, electrolyte imbalances and poor nutrition

e.
Anemia, hypoxia, uncontrolled Pain, urinary retention

Feedback

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2
Q

Best treatment for delirium

A

Prevention

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3
Q

C-Diff is a bacterial infection of the intestines causing diarrhea. A significant risk factor for developing C-diff includes a history of frequent use of what type of medication?

A

Antibiotics

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4
Q

Fall prevention Acronym SAFE

A

Safe environment: bedrails removed/down based on assessed need, clutter-free, brakes on, lights on.

Assist with needs: mobility, scheduled toileting, eyeglasses and aids, minimize restraints

Fall risk reduction

Engage residents and families

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5
Q

How is TB spread?

A

Droplet

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6
Q

Pain assessment tools

A

Body mapping

c.
Faces

d.
PAINAD

e.
Pain scale 0-10

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7
Q

Common side effect of most narcotic analgesics

A

Consitipation

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8
Q

What is Tardive Dyskinesia and what is it caused by (rhythmic, involuntary movement of the tongue, head, trunk, extremities, jaw, mouth)?

A

Adverse med effect

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9
Q

Annual screening test recommended for men

A

digital rectal exam

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10
Q

three different broad categories of treatment for cancer

A

Surgery, chemo and radiation

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11
Q

Palliative care is

A

Palliative care is specialized medical care provided to individuals living with life-limiting illnesses.

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12
Q

Example of an advanced directive

A

Living Will

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13
Q

Most common form of elder abuse

A

Financial taking advantage of

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14
Q

In what setting do older adults experience the most function decline

A

In what setting do older adults experience the most function decline

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15
Q

Health disparities

A

significant differences with regard
to the rates of disease incidence, prevalence, morbidity, mortality
or life expectancy between one population and another

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16
Q

4 different ways of defining age

A

Subjective
Perceived
Chroological
Functional

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17
Q

nurse’s questions addresses an important contributor to successful aging?

A

“Do you feel like you actively engage with life?”

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18
Q

SPICES (example)
Minimum Data Set (MDS) are examples of

A

Comprehensive Geriatric Assessments

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19
Q

Percieved age

A

Other peoples estimations of someone elses age

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20
Q

Older Indigenous Canadians are

A

More likely to live alone than any population

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21
Q

Which population is most strongly tied to low health status

A

Low socioeconomic status

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22
Q

3 components to successful aging

A

An active engagement with life, high
cognitive and physical function, and low probability of disease
and disability

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23
Q

The most common mental status assessment

A

Mini-mental state examination (MMSE)

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24
Q

Why are health assessments in older adults more complicated

A

It is common to have more than one chronic acute issue

Manifestation of illnesses or adverse medication effects tend to be obscure less predictable

For ever change there may be multiple possible causes

Treatments often directed at symptoms not source of problem,

Cognitive impairment affet accurate reporting

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25
Q

Geriatrics vs gerentology

A

Geriatrics is internal medicine focused on old people, a subset of gerentology, which is the study of aging as a whole

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26
Q

Cultural recognition and competence

A

Recognizing that clients from different cultures may have different customs and behaviours

and being sufficiently knowledgeable to interact with a member of that cultural with respect and understanding

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27
Q

Largest specific cultural groups in Canada

A

Asian Canadians and Indigenous

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28
Q

TUG acronym related to fall-risk

A

Timed UP and Go

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29
Q

Intrapersonal

A

Inside of person

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30
Q

Interpersonal

A

Between people

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31
Q

Stress

A

The sum of all effects of factors that act on the body

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32
Q

Three stages of stressors

A

Alarm, resistance, and exhaustion

*coping can come before stress

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33
Q

The better a person is a coping _____

A

The less impact stress will have on the body

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34
Q

How does the importance of spirituality change throughout life?

A

Increases as people age

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35
Q

Culture bound syndrome

A

A belief system can create a limit of acknowledgement of emotional/mental health

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36
Q

What percentage of adult Canadians do not have proficient health literacy

A

6/10 - especially ture of immigrants

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37
Q

What does level 1: primary spiritual care

A

Self awareness, assessing, compassionate presence, making referrals

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38
Q

What does level 2: spiritual care look like

A

Administration of religious rites, counselling etc.

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39
Q

Mini Mental status exam (MMSE) Assesses?

A

Assess 5 areas of cognitive function

Orientation
* Attention
* Memory
* Language
* Spatial-visual skills

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40
Q

Delusion, vs illusion, vs hallucination

A

Delusion: Fixed false beliefs

Illusion: Misperception of an external stimuli, have SOME basis in reality

Hallucination: Sensory experiences that have no external stimulus

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41
Q

Life Review

A

Form of psychosocial therapy

a progressive return to consciousness of past experiences, particularly unresolved
conflicts, for reexamination and reintegration.

If the reintegration process is successful, the process gives new significance and meaning to life and prepares the person for death by alleviating fear and anxiety

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42
Q

Confabulation

A

the process of
making up information,

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43
Q

Circumstantiation

A

involves the use of excessive details and
roundabout answers in responding to questions.

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44
Q

Executive Function

A

involves
an interrelated set of abilities that include cognitive flexibility,
concept formation and self-monitoring; but it does not
necessarily involve memory impairment

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45
Q

Leading cause of death in canada

A

Heart Disease

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46
Q

Coronary Artery Disease

A

CAD

When major blood vessels that supply the heart struggle to send enough blood O2 and nutrients to theheart muscle

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47
Q

Middle and thickett layer of heat wall

Responsible for pumping action

A

Myocardium

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48
Q

Age related changes to myocardium

A

Decreasing cardiac contractility
* More time is required for diastolic
filling and systolic emptying
* Less responsive to sympathetic
nervous system (fight or flight)

Less pacemaker cells
* Irregularity in the shape of
pacemaker cells
* Increased deposits of fat,
collagen and elastic fibers around
SA node

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49
Q

Age related changes to vasculature

A

Diameter of lumen of aorta
increases to compensate for
arterial stiffening
Veins, like arteries, become
thicker, more dilated, and
less elastic
* Increased vascular resistance
causes a slight increase in
the systolic BP

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50
Q

Why does left ventricle hypertrophy occur with ag

A

Increased peripheral resistance caused by changes to vasculature affecting flow to vital organs

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51
Q

Baroreflex mechanism age related changes

A

Decreased compensatory responses in both hyper- and
hypotensive stimuli (ie heart rate does not increase or
decrease as efficiently in older adults as in younger
adults)
Baroreceptors in the large arteries (carotid and aorta)
less effective in controlling BP, especially during
postural changes

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52
Q

Functional consequences of age-related changes to the cardiovascular system for the older adult?

A

Decreased adaptive response to exercise
* Slightly lower hear rate
* Increased susceptibility to hyper AND hypotension
* Increased susceptibility to arrhythmias (ie. atrial fibrillation)
* Decreased cerebral blood flow

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53
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

An arrhythmia when lower heart chambers controcat in very rapid uncoordinated manner mean heart doesn’t pump blood to rest of body

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54
Q

Atherosclerosis

A

disorder of the medium and
small arteries in which deposits of lipids and atherosclerotic plaques reduce or
obstruct blood flow
Atherosclerotic changes begin in childhood and progress to plaque formation

Lesions can rupture or remain stable

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55
Q

Myocardial Infarction

A

Happens when one or more heart muscledont get enough O2 bc blood flow to heart is blocked

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56
Q

Definition of physical inactivity

A

Definition: <30 mins of moderate physical activity 5x/
week or <20 mins of vigorous physical activity 3x/ week

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57
Q

Non-smokers exposed to second-hand smoke increase their risk for developing CAD by

A

25-30%

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58
Q

High intake of _____ increases risk for CV

A

saturated fats

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59
Q

Number 1 Hypertensive risk factor

A

Hereditary

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60
Q

Hypertension risk factors

A

Age
ethnicity
heredity - NUMBER 1 thing
weight
physical inactivity
psychosocial stressors
sleep apnea
low education and socioeconomic factors

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61
Q

Metabolic Syndrome

A

Group of clinically identifiable conditions that double risk of CV disease and increases the risk of Non insulin dependent Diabetes Melitus

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62
Q

Dyslipidemia

A

A broad term of lipoprotein metabolism
* HDL cholesterol (good cholesterol) - good to have a
high number
* LDL cholesterol (bad cholesterol) - good to have a
low number
* Non-HDL cholesterol (total cholesterol – HDL
cholesterol) - good to have a low number
* Triglycerides - high reading is bad

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63
Q

What age related change results in Orthostatic and postprandial hypotension?

A

Changes to baroreflex mechanism

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64
Q

Numerical defintion of Orthostatic hypertension

A

Orthostatic hypotension is a reduction in 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic within three minutes of standing after being recumbent for at least five minutes.

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65
Q

Postprandial Hypertension numerial defintion

A

a reduction in systolic BP of 20mmHg or more within 2 hours of eating a meal

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66
Q

Atypical SS of CVD

A

*Fatigue
* Nausea
* Anxiety
* Headache
* Cough
* Visual change
* Shortness of breath
* Pain in arm, jaw, neck or throat (vs
“typical” chest or shoulder pain)

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67
Q

The flu affects what body sysyems?

A

Systemic, paired with Resp illness

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68
Q

Age related changes affecting resp function

A

Degenerative structural changes in the nose
Diminished blood flow to nose
Thicker mucus in nasopharynx
Stiffening of trachea due to calcification of cartilage
Blunted cough and laryngeal reflexes
Atrophy of laryngeal nerve endings

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69
Q

Chest wall and musculoskeletal changes affecting resp function

A

Ribs and vertebrae become osteoporotic
- Intercostal cartilage calcifies and resp muscles weaken
Kyphosis
Chest wall expansion is compromised adn older adults need to expend more energy to achieve resp efficiency`

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70
Q

Age related changes to lungs

A

Become Smaller + more fatty
Alveoli enlage and walls thin = gradual increase in anatomic dead space
Pulmonary artery gets wider, thicker, and less elastic
# of caps decrease
Cap blood volume decrease
Mucosal bed, site of diffusion, thickens

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71
Q

Older adults breathe more or less?

A

More shallow breathing

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72
Q

Hypercapnia

A

Too much CO2

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73
Q

Systems stimulating breathing

A

Response to hypercapnia and hypoxia

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74
Q

Summary of age related changes to resp system

A

Summary of age related changes to resp

a
Increased stiffness of chest wall
Enlarged alveoli
Weaker respiratory muscles
Decreased response to hypercapnia or hypoxia

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75
Q

COPD

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

Chronic obstruction interfering with normal breathing

Including both chronic bronchitis
(inflammation of bronchi) and emphysema (chronic progressive
lung disease)

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76
Q

Functional consequences of age related changes to resp system?

A

Increased susceptibility to resp infections

Frailty and dysphagia

Poor Oral Care

Aspiration Pneumonia

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77
Q

TB

A

Eats away at the tissue in the lungs

Lung tissue bleeds up through resp tract

Opportunistic illness

78
Q

Pneumonia

A

An infection in one or both lungs causing alveoli to fill with fluid or pus making breathing difficult

79
Q

Older adult symptoms of pneumonia

A

Present atypically in older adults
acute delirium/ confusion
◦ dizziness
◦lower than normal body temperature
(cold vs warm sepsis, with T < 36 C)

80
Q

Difference bw endemic and pandemic

A

Endemic does not have an end

81
Q

Symptoms of TB

A

Persistent coughing that lasts three or more weeks
Coughing up blood
Chest pain, or pain with breathing or coughing
Unintentional weight loss
Fatigue
Fever
Night sweats
Chills

82
Q

Universal Falls Risk SAFE

A

Safe environment (5 safety checks)
Assist with mobility (mobilize at LEASSt BID)
Fall and injury risk reduction
Engage [ateint and family/caregivier

83
Q

Osteoperosis

A

Porous Bone

When the body loses too much bone or does not make enough bone

Silent disease

High risk of bone fracture`

84
Q

Damage to joints in RA is due to

A

Inflammation

85
Q

Theory of multiple causation regarding OA

A

Infection, autoimmunity, genetic factors,
environmental factors, hormonal factors

86
Q

Non modifiable risk factors for osteoperosis

A

Female gender
Caucasian race
Northern European ancestry
Advanced age
Family history of
osteoporosis
Previous fragility and > 40 yrs
of age

87
Q

Most common type of arthritis

A

RA

88
Q

Synovitis

A

(congestion/edema of
synovial membrane and joint capsule)

1st stage of RA

89
Q

Pannus Formation

A

2nd stage of RA

(thickened layers of
granulation tissue that covers and
invade cartilage, destroy the joint
capsule)

90
Q

Fibrous Ankylosis

A

(fibrous invasion of
the pannus and scar formation that
occludes joint space)

3rd Stage of RA

91
Q

4th stage of RA

A

Calcification of fibrous tissue (total
ankylosis, immobilizing the joint)

Ankylosis

92
Q

RA is ___ times more common in women

A

2-3 times

93
Q

Difference bw OA and RA

A

OA: Bone ends rub together bc of thinned cartilage (Asymmetrical effect, weight bearing joints)

RA: Swollen inflamed synovial membrane and bone erosion (Symmetrical symptoms, occurs at younger age)

94
Q

What is specific abt arthritis tylonel

A

Slow release

95
Q

Parkinsons Disease characterized by

A

Tremor
Rigidity + stooped posture
Bradykinesia (slow movement)* Hypophonia (lowered voice
volume)
* Micrographia (small, cramped
writing)
* Pain
* Depression and dementia are
common comorbidities

96
Q

What is unique abt PD meds “Wearing off effect”?

A

Parkinsons meds have short half life and thus are prescribed close together

Since there are intact neurons usually during parkinosns, the wearing off effect can be sudden and cause great anxiety to clients

97
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

Breakdown of parts of the inner ear

98
Q

Ototoxicity

A

An adverse med effect involving hearing loss

98
Q

Cataracts can cause

A

Sensitivity to glare
Double vision
Halos
Diminished colour perception
Dim and blurred vision

99
Q

Characteristic and cause of Glaucomoa

A

Loss of peripheral vision

Cortisol steroid use, danger of diabetes

100
Q

NSAIDs and anticholernergics are a risk of causing

A

Vision side affects

101
Q

Mac degen

A

Loss of central vision
Blurred Vision and wavy lines

102
Q

Meds that can affect gustatory function and olfactory and cause dry mouth

A

ACE inhibitors and diuretics

103
Q

Xerostomia caused by

A

Decreased salivary production

104
Q

Are use of dentures a nutriotional danger

A

If they are not fitted properly or missing there is a risk for nutrioitonal defficiency

105
Q

Stress incontinence

A

Leakage of urine under activities that increase interdominal pressure

106
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia symptoms

A

difficulty starting urination and a weak urine stream, frequent nocturia

107
Q

UTI risk factors

A

Age
Catheter
Urinary incontinence

108
Q

Age related changes to urine system

A

Increased production of urine at night

109
Q

Impaired calcium absorption related to renal funciton

A

Kidneys help with activating vit D

Vit D helps with absopriton of calcium

When there is less Vit D, cannot absorb calcium

Kidneys become less effective with age, and therefore cannot manage calciumas well

110
Q

Pelvic floor disorder

A

Sensation of pressure in pelvis resulting in flulness feeling and incontinence

111
Q

Age related changes to myocardium

A

Increased time for diastolic filling

Decreased cardiac contrallity

112
Q

Aorta lumen with age

A

Increases

113
Q

What happnees to entothelial cells with age invasculature

A

Become irregularlly shaped

114
Q

Barorecpters involved

A

in BP regulation
Register fight/flight
…

115
Q

Which Cholesterol is good

A

HDL

High LDL associated with increased risk of heart disease

HDL puts bad cholesterol where it belongs

116
Q

Alveoli enlarge and thinner with age true or false

A

True

117
Q

Anticholinergics side affect

A

Dry mouth and upper airway

118
Q

Sacropenia

A

Decreased muscle mass

119
Q

PD gait

A

Reduced arm swing
Shuffling gait
Propulsion gait

120
Q

Tobacco smoking affects mobilitiy how

A

Affects lungs and response to activity

121
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma arises from which layer of skin

A

Stratum basal

122
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma looks like

A

Scaly red papulles and nodules usually on face and neck

123
Q

Sleep affect by age

A

More light sleep, lesss deep sleep

124
Q

Temp regulation affected by age why?

A

Decreased peripheral circulation

125
Q

Risk factors decreasing sexual fuction

A

Societal attutudes
Adverse effects of meds
Functional impairments and chronic illness

126
Q

Stage 3 cancer

A

Has grown, but has not spread to distant organs

Distant organs is stage 4

127
Q

Purpose of a wound dressing

A

Protects wound from microorganism contamination.

Correct.

b.
Provides a moist environment for the wound bed,

Correct.

c.
Aids in hemostasis.

Yes, this is why we apply pressure to a bleeding wound.

d.
Absorbs drainage and supports auto-lytic debridement.

Think about the consequences if drainage is not removed from the wound.

e.
Protects patient from seeing the wound (if perceived as unpleasant).

Correct.

f.
Physically supports the wound site.

Correct.

g.
Promotes thermal insulation of the wound surface.

128
Q

Two types of tissue healing

A

Primary intention: The skin edges are approximated or closed and the risk of infection is low. There is little tissue repair required

Secondary Intention: In this type of wound healing there is loss of tissue which must be filled with scar tissue. Chance of infection is greater.

129
Q

Proliferation phase of wound healing lasts

A

3-24 days

130
Q

A description of a hydro-colloid dressing is:

A

A dressing that forms a gel that interacts with the wound surface.

131
Q

1 tbsp

A

15 ml

132
Q

Examples of types of meds administered by topical route?

A

Ointments, Liniments, Lotions, Pastes, Transdermal discs or patches

133
Q

What should the nurse do to maximize the effectiveness of medicated lotions or ointments?

A

First wash area with nondrying soap and water

134
Q

Good habit when working with nitrate patches

A

It is recommended that nitroglycerin transdermal patches be removed after 10 to 12 hours to allow for a nitrate-free interval.

135
Q

Application of a skin barrier cream to the perineal area can or cannot be delegated to NHCP?

A

Can

136
Q

Standard IM injection needle size

A

22 G 1-1.5 “

137
Q

3 signs of UTI

A

Cloudy +foul smelling urine, abdominal pain, and fever

138
Q

An order is required to administer oxygen to a patient.

A

Yes

139
Q

effluent

A

Stool discharged from an ostomy

140
Q

When pouching an ostomy and cleansing the peristomal skin, a good vigorous scrub with soap and water is required to remove any bacteria or stool residue from the skin. T or F

A

False

141
Q

Is dehydration a risk accosiated with suctioning a patient?

A

No

142
Q

The earliest indications of IV fluid infiltration include:

A

Pallor and coolness

143
Q

Nurses assess the IV site and fluid administration every ________ hours.

A

Every Hour

144
Q

When a patient’s IV site has marked erythema and pain, it is called:

A

Phlebitis

145
Q

_________ occurs when IV fluids enter the surrounding space around the venipuncture site.

A

Infiltration

146
Q

Normal saline as an IV Fluid is also known as

A

0.9% NS

a crystalloid

d.
NaCl

e.
sodium chloride

147
Q

One of the most common electrolyte imbalances is:

A

Hypokalemia

Low potassium

148
Q

Mr Frank is an 82 year old patient who has had a three day history of vomiting and diarrhea. Which symptom would you expect to find on a physical examination?

A

Tachycardia

149
Q

Successful Aging

A

an active engagement with life, high
cognitive and physical function, and low probability of disease
and disability

150
Q

Stages of change

A

Pre-contemplation: Denial
Contemplation: Intention to change bc of acknowledgement of negative consequences
Preparation: Strong inclination to change to healthier behaviour
Action: Behaviour change is made
Maintenance: When health behaviour has been continued for greater than 6 months

151
Q

Skilled home care vs nonmedical home care

A

Skilled home care services address
the needs of people who are recovering from an illness or
injury and have potential for returning to their previous level
of functioning. In contrast, nonmedical home care services
address needs of people with chronic or declining conditions
who do not qualify for skilled care.`

152
Q

To qualify for skilled care in a nursing home, people
must meet the following THREE criteria:

A

Have a medical condition that is associated with the need
for skilled care
e Have a physician referral for services that must be provided
by licensed professionals, such as nurses or therapists
® Require daily skilled care that can be provided appropriately
in a skilled nursing facility

153
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

how the drug is absorbed,
distributed, metabolized and excreted

154
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

how the body is affected by the drug at the
cellular level and in relation to the target organ).

155
Q

Elimination half-time

A

is the
time required to decrease the drug concentration by one half
of its original value. It takes five half times to reach steadystate
concentrations after a drug is initiated or to completely
eliminate a drug from the body after a drug is discontinued.

156
Q

It takes ____ half times to reach steadystate conc. after drug is initiated or to completly eliminate drug from body

A

5

157
Q

Clearance Rate

A

measures the volume of blood from
which the drug is eliminated per unit of time.

158
Q

Major age related change affecting medication clearance rate

A

Decrease GFR

159
Q

Beers Criteria

A

medications are deemed
inappropriate if they are ineffective or have poor safety
profiles, or if better drugs are available in relation to older adults

160
Q

anticholinergic
adverse effects

A

Many OTC agents commonly
used for coughs, colds and sleep problems contain
anticholinergic ingredients.

anticholinergic agents have been identified as
a causative factor for significant and long-term cognitive
impairment in older adults, including delirium and mild
cognitive impairment

161
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A

a constellation of rhythmic and
involuntary movements of the trunk, extremities, jaw, lips as a result of antipsychotic medication

162
Q

Medication Reconciliation

A

the process of identifying a patient’s
medication errors, such as omissions, duplications, dosing
errors or drug interactions during transitions in care. The
three steps involved in the process follow: (1) verification
by collecting an accurate list; (2) clarification of questions
about drugs, dosages, frequency and other pertinent information
and (3) reconciliation of any discrepancies

163
Q

Learned helplessness

A

the experience of uncontrollable
events that leads to expectations that future events
will also be uncontrollable.

164
Q

Executive function

A

multifaceted and involves
an interrelated set of abilities that include cognitive flexibility, concept formation and self-monitoring; but it does not necessarily involve memory

Executive function deficits begin in the early stages of dementia (difficulty with abstract thought)

165
Q

affective function.

A

refers to his or her
expressions of emotions, particularly facial expressions of
underlying emotions.

166
Q

CAM

A

Confusion assessment method
- Diagnosis tool for delirium

1 Acute onset/fluctuating course
AND
2 Inattention

AND ONE of:
3 Disorganized thinking
4 Altered LOC

167
Q

Anosognosia

A

Anosognosia,
which is the diagnostic term for lack of awareness, is assessed
by having the person who is being evaluated and a
family member or caregiver independently answer questions
related to the person’s behaviours and daily activities

168
Q

Distinguishing characteritistcs of delirium

A

Acute
Sudden
Temporary
Preventable
Treatable

169
Q

PD is what type of dementia?

A

Lewy body

170
Q

AD is caused by

A

Plaque in the brain

171
Q

Pharm approach to dementia

A

Cholinesterase inhibitors

172
Q

Slow drug clearance in oldr adults related to

A

increased body fat
Decreased lean muscle
Decreased body water
Reduced hepatic blood flow
Decreased serum albumin

173
Q

Otosclerosis

A

is the sensorineural hearing loss associated
with an abnormality of the auditory structures - associated with younger age hearing loss

174
Q

Presbycusis

A

is the sensorineural hearing loss associated
with an age-related degeneration of the auditory structures.

175
Q

health care proxy (

A

responsible for communicating
the person’s wishes if he or she becomes incompetent
or unable to communicate them.

176
Q

Which layer of the heart is associated with hypertension

A

hypertension

177
Q

Ductectasia

A

Enlargement of the aveoli

178
Q

Ostopenia

A

Milder osteoperosis

179
Q

Which medication is a risk for fall relatd injuries

A

Anticoagulants
Anticholinergics

180
Q

Chronic pain length

A

Lasting 3-6 months longer than expected healing time

181
Q

PAINAD (stands for)

A

Pain assessment in Advanced Dementia

182
Q
A
183
Q

AND

A

Allow Natural Death

184
Q

Most common type of elder abuse

A

Financial exploitation and emotional abuse

185
Q
  1. When using the PAIN-AD for assessing pain in patients with Advanced Dementia, what are two of the five items being assessed?
A

a. Breathing (labored breathing, long period of hyperventilation)
b. Negative vocalization (moans, crying, negative low voice speech, repeatedly calling out)
c. Facial expressions (flat affect, grimacing, confused look, change of demeanor, etc.)
d. Body language: (tense, fidgeting, pacing, fist clenched, pulling away) *
e. Consolability (Can you console or not?)

0, 1 or 2 (0 being normal/baseline, two be Always)

186
Q

Non-Opioid Analgesics typically better for what type of pain

A

Bone and inflammation

187
Q

Adjuvant Analgesics

A

Medication that have a primary indication
other than treatment of pain but relieve pain in
some conditions.

Caffiene helps relieve pain IN the presence of acetiminaphin

188
Q
  1. What assessments are critical to perform when evaluating the effect of a narcotic analgesic?
A

Sedation + VS

189
Q

POSS Scale is?

A

Pasero Opiod induced Sedation Scale

190
Q

PACSLAC

A

Pain Assessment Checklist for Seniors with a Limited Ability to Communicate

191
Q

S/S at end of life

A

Altered breathing patterns:
Changing circulation:
Decreased muscle tone:
Decreased senses (except hearing)

NURS 212 (21 decks)

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