Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What would the nurse question when administering the muscarinic antagonist atropine?

A. 28 yr client with diarrhea

B. 55 yr client being prepped for abdominal surgery

C. 60 yr client diagnosed with symptomatic sinus bradycardia

D. 69 yr client diagnosed with glaucoma

A

A. 28 yr client with diarrhea

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2
Q

What medication is appropriate for a client with Printzmetal angina?

A. Nitrates

B. Beta blockers

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. Aci inhibitors

A

C. Calcium channel blockers

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3
Q

A client has overdosed on aspirin. The physician orders sodium bicarbonate. What it the rationale for this?

A. It affects urine so that the kidneys can remove the aspirin faster.

B. It affects the rate of the liver and allows for the faster metabolizing of the drug.

C. It prevents excessive bleeding

D. pH is lowered to help neutralize the aspirin.

A

A. It affects urine so that the kidneys can remove the aspirin faster.

Sodium bicarb makes the urine more basic which aides in renal excretion of acidic drugs like aspirin.

It does not change the rate of urine flow such as drugs like diuretics.

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4
Q

The client is suffering from cerebral edema. Hypertonic crystalloid solution is ordered. The nurse hangs a hypotonic solution. What is to be expected?

A. The client will not need to be rehydrated.

B. Headache, irritability, and decreased level of consciousness.

C. Diarrhea, gastric ulcers, bloody stool

D. Hallucinations

A

B. Headache, irritability, and decreased level of consciousness.

The hypotonic solution will shift fluid out of the plasma tissues. It will increase the edema. Headache, irritability, and decreased level of consciousness are all common signs of cerebral edema.

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5
Q

What is a S/S of a client with a pH of 7.9?

A. Cyanosis

B. Headache

C. Seizures

D. Sleepiness

A

A. Cyanosis

Cyanosis is a common sign of alkalosis, others include slow RR, muscle twitching and irritability.

The others listed (headache, seizures, and sleepiness) are examples of acidosis.

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6
Q

The nurse administers a drug at 1000. It peaks at 1 hour. When would you draw for trough level?

A. 0800

B. 0945

C. 1100

D. 1200

A

B. 0945

Trough levels determine lowest level between or before doses.

Blood is drawn just before administering.

Peak is when the drug level is at its highest.

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7
Q

The client is prescribed a 3rd generation Fluoroquinolone. Why would you expect is the he receiving it?

A. The client has a gram positive infection.

B. The client has both a gram positive and negative infection.

C. The client has an allergy to 1st or 2nd generation fluroquinolones.

D. The client has the flu.

A

B. The client has both a gram positive and negative infection.

Gram positive infections would be treated with 1st and 2nd.

If there is an allergy most likely the client would not even be given any type of fluoroquinolones.

Influenza is a virus not a bacterial infection.

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8
Q

Which drug would be contraindicated in an organ transplant pt.

A. Glucocorticoids

B. Antimetabolites

C. Immunostimulants

D. Immunosuppresants

A

C. Immunostimulants

The client does not need his immune system increased. The others are examples of drugs that suppress the immune system.

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9
Q

How do K+ sparing diuretics work?

A. Interferes with RAAS activation and prevents sodium rebasorption.

B. Vasodilates the body and stops angiotensin production.

C. Blocks the activity of beta receptors and decrease the force of contractions.

D. Act on the loop of Henle and decrease blood volume while releasing sodium and potassium.

A

A. Interferes with RAAS activation and prevents sodium rebasorption.

ACE inhibitors = vasodilates the body and stops angiotensin production.

Beta blockers = blocks the activity of beta receptors and decrease the force of contractions.

Loop diuretics = act on the loop of Henle and decrease blood volume while releasing sodium and potassium.

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10
Q

A patient develops flushing, a rash, and pruritus during an IV infusion of vancomycin. What actions should you take?

A. Change the IV tubing

B. Check the patency of line

C. Continue to infuse normally symptoms will dissipate

D. Notify MD to treat the reaction, then infuse at lower rate.

A

D. Notify MD to treat the reaction, then infuse at lower rate.

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11
Q

Which approach should a nurse take when administering a daily dose of PO tetracyline?

A. Administer oral dose with magnesium-based antacid

B. Administer Benadryl to prevent red-man

C. Ensure that the intravenous site has been started within 24 hours

D. Do not administer milk products or iron

A

D. Do not administer milk products or iron

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12
Q

Which symptom is most indicative of muscarinic poisoning?

A. Blurred vision

B. Constipation

C. Hypertension

D. Tachycardia

A

A. Blurred vision

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13
Q

Which patient would you be most concerned about giving aspirin?

A. 40 yr male suffering from heart diease

B. 19 yr female with headache

C. 27 yr male with pain level of 6

D. 8 yr child with a fever

A

D. 8 yr child with a fever

8 yr child, with aspirin can develop Reye’s syndrome which is fat accumulation around the brain and liver which could be fatal.

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14
Q

A patient has just been prescribed aspirin. Which one of these statements show that patient needs further teaching?

A. I must take this with meals

B. I should report to my doctor if I hear ringing in my ears

C. I can take this with other herbals such as ginseng and gingko

D. I need to stop taking the medication if there is blood in my stool

A

C. I can take this with other herbals such as ginseng and gingko

***

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15
Q

Which patient would you be most concerned about taking a glucocorticoid?

A. A patient with severe asthma

B. A 74 year old women suffering from osteoporosis

C. A patient with hormone imbalances.

D. A 23 year old female who is recovering from an organ transplant.

A
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16
Q

A client has reached a neutrophil count nadir due to chemotherapy. What is the priority nursing action?

A. Restrict all fruits and vegetables

B. Provide daily oral hygiene

C. Obtain temperature q4 and prn

D. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL/day

A

C. Obtain temperature q4 and prn

17
Q

Client is receiving intravenous a cytotoxic antibiotic. The nurse observes that there is swelling, redness, and pain at the IV site. What do you do

A. Apply warm compress

B. Continue to administer but decrease rate of infusion.

C. Notify clients physician.

D. Stop the administration of the drug immediately.

A

D. Stop the administration of the drug immediately.

Stop infusion of drug

18
Q

Client received a non-selective beta adrenergic blocker, what will be priority assessment?

A. BP- 142/85 no c/o headache or dizziness

B. Pt breath sounds wheezy, SOB

C. Pt. reports Seizures

D. Telemetry shows A-Fib

A

B. Pt breath sounds wheezy, SOB

Non selective blockers affect both beta 1 and beta 2 causing bronchoconstriciton.

A-fib not likely due to MOA of drug, and there is no electrical activity stimulation.

19
Q

Which statement is most appropriate to include when teaching about a new prescription of clonodine an alpha-2 agonist

A. If you stop this drug abruptly you could have rebound HTN.

B. Take this medication in the morning to avoid insomina

C. This medication is used to manage PID

D. You will need to have you blood draw regularly for anemia

A

A. If you stop this drug abruptly you could have rebound HTN.

Alpha-2 suppress outflow by causing body wide vasodilatation, so abruptly stopping can cause Rebound HTN,

20
Q

When doing med education for Atenolol the nurse determines learning has been made by what statement?

A. I cannot have my cup of joe in the morning

B. I do not have to check my B/S anymore

C. I need to take my pulse everyday

D. If I have any side affects I will stop the medication immediately.

A

C. I need to take my pulse everyday

Beta blockers slow HR. and you can’t take the medication if below what range?