Final Review

Question 1

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm:
Select one:
A.
is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest.
B.
usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours.
C.
is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.
D.
often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.

Answer 1

D.
often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset.

Question 2

Shivering is a mechanism in which the body generates heat by:
Select one:
A.
retaining excess carbon dioxide.
B.
decreasing the metabolic rate.
C.
decreasing the use of oxygen.
D.
increasing the metabolic rate.

Answer 2

D.
increasing the metabolic rate.

Question 3

The mesentery is:
Select one:
A.
the point of attachment between the small and large intestines.
B.
a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.
C.
a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.
D.
a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

Answer 3

D.
a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

Question 4

While transporting a stable patient with chest pain to the hospital, you come across a major motor vehicle crash involving several critically injured patients. You should:
Select one:
A.
remain at the scene until law enforcement and another ambulance arrive.
B.
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.
C.
ask a bystander to remain with your patient as you treat the crash victims.
D.
stop and triage the patients while your partner remains in the ambulance.

Answer 4

B.
continue transporting your patient and notify the dispatcher of the crash.

Question 5

For electricity to flow through the body and cause damage:
Select one:
A.
an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient.
B.
the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity.
C.
a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground.
D.
the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry.

Answer 5

C.
a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground.

Question 6

In which of the following situations would the EMT be the least likely to immobilize a patient’s spine?
Select one:
A.
No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication
B.
No spinal pain, but tingling in the extremities
C.
Pain to the c-spine, but no numbness or tingling.
D.
Unresponsive, but moving all extremities equally

Answer 6

A.
No distracting injuries or evidence of intoxication

Question 7

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by:
Select one:
A.
limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
B.
maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
C.
maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.
D.
drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.

Answer 7

A.
limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

Question 8

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
important medical history not previously given.
B.
the patient’s response to treatment you provided.
C.
the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.
D.
the chief complaint or mechanism of injury.

Answer 8

C.
the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.

Question 9

Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means:
Select one:
A.
driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph.
B.
driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient’s condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway.
C.
keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors’ blind spots.
D.
remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.

Answer 9

C.
keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirrors’ blind spots.

Question 10

Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient’s condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should:
Select one:
A.
advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.
B.
carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form.
C.
obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual.
D.
state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate.

Answer 10

A.
advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification.

Question 11

Functions of the liver include:
Select one:
A.
release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.
B.
absorption of nutrients and toxins.
C.
production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels.
D.
secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.

Answer 11

D.
secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.

Question 12

Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone?
Select one:
A.
Command
B.
Medical monitoring
C.
Decontamination
D.
Personnel staging

Answer 12

C.
Decontamination

Question 13

Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
Select one:
A.
The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher.
B.
A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.
C.
If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher.
D.
The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling.

Answer 13

D.
The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects him or her from excess handling.

Question 14

Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate only if:
Select one:
A.
his or her respirations are shallow.
B.
he or she is breathing inadequately.
C.
an oral airway has been inserted.
D.
his or her tidal volume is adequate.

Answer 14

D.
his or her tidal volume is adequate.

Question 15

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:
Select one:
A.
arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
B.
speech, pupil reaction, and memory.
C.
arm drift, memory, and grip strength.
D.
facial droop, speech, and pupil size

Answer 15

A.
arm drift, speech, and facial droop.

Question 16

Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should:
Select one:
A.
observe for conditions that might make the residence unsafe.
B.
talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment.
C.
begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles.
D.
immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver.

Answer 16

A.
observe for conditions that might make the residence unsafe.

Question 17

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:
Select one:
A.
increase rescue breathing to a rate of 14 breaths/min.
B.
decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.
C.
deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.
D.
pause compressions to deliver ventilations

Answer 17

C.
deliver one rescue breath every 6 seconds.

Question 18

Organic brain syndrome is defined as:
Select one:
A.
a change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow.
B.
a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ.
C.
bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.
D.
a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.

Answer 18

D.
a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function.

Question 19

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:
Select one:
A.
advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.
B.
ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her.
C.
place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.
D.
allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment

Answer 19

C.
place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

Question 20

EMTs are dispatched for a fall. The patient, a 16-year-old female with Down syndrome, is experiencing difficulty walking and says that her fingers “feel like needles.” The EMTs should suspect:
Select one:
A.
an intracranial hemorrhage.
B.
a cervical spine injury.
C.
a seizure.
D.
hydrocephalus

Answer 20

B.
a cervical spine injury.

Question 21

A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients for ___ hour(s) or more.
Select one:
A.
4
B.
2
C.
1
D.
3

Answer 21

C.
1

Question 22

Three months after returning home from West Africa, a 50-year-old man begins experiencing a fever, cough, and muscle aches. The EMT should suspect:
Select one:
A.
whooping cough.
B.
hepatitis.
C.
Ebola.
D.
influenza

Answer 22

D.
influenza

Question 23

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
an overdose of aspirin.
B.
high blood glucose levels.
C.
a respiratory infection.
D.
a narcotic overdose.

Answer 23

D.
a narcotic overdose.

Question 24

Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
carbon dioxide deficiency.
B.
risk of building collapse.
C.
smoke and toxic gases.
D.
high ambient temperatures.

Answer 24

A.
carbon dioxide deficiency.

Question 25

A 5-year-old female pulled a pot of boiling water from the stove. She has superficial and partial-thickness burns to her head, face, and anterior trunk. What percentage of her body surface area has been burned?
Select one:
A.
30%
B.
18%
C.
27%
D.
36%

Answer 25

A.
30%

Question 26

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A.
any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.
B.
elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.
C.
bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.
D.
osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position

Answer 26

D.
osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position

Question 27

A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is most suggestive of a:
Select one:
A.
myocardial contusion.
B.
pericardial tamponade.
C.
tension pneumothorax.
D.
ruptured aorta

Answer 27

A.
myocardial contusion.

Question 28

The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it:
Select one:
A.
destroys the body’s red blood cells.
B.
suppresses the respiratory drive.
C.
causes severe local tissue damage.
D.
weakens the structure of the bones

Answer 28

C.
causes severe local tissue damage.

Question 29

After blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be most suspicious of injury to the:
Select one:
A.
spleen.
B.
pancreas.
C.
gallbladder.
D.
kidneys.

Answer 29

A.
spleen.

Question 30

You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene, and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should:
Select one:
A.
remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.
B.
assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.
C.
direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport.
D.
transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center.

Answer 30

A.
remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.

Question 31

A 29-year-old female presents with confusion and disorientation. Her respirations are rapid and shallow, and her pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. She is markedly diaphoretic and has an oxygen saturation of 89%. You should:
Select one:
A.
provide ventilatory support.
B.
transport immediately.
C.
treat her for hyperglycemia.
D.
administer oral glucose.

Answer 31

A.
provide ventilatory support.

Question 32

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?
Select one:
A.
Bayer
B.
Aspirin
C.
Advil
D.
Excedrin

Answer 32

B.
Aspirin

Question 33

Pleural fluid is contained between the:
Select one:
A.
visceral pleura and the lung.
B.
parietal pleura and the chest wall.
C.
visceral and parietal pleurae.
D.
parietal pleura and the heart.

Answer 33

C.
visceral and parietal pleurae.

Question 34

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
Select one:
A.
sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
B.
lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
C.
sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
D.
lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position

Answer 34

B.
lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Question 35

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include:
Select one:
A.
significant hypotension.
B.
pain and distention.
C.
bruising only.
D.
widespread ecchymosis.

Answer 35

B.
pain and distention.

Question 36

Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first ____ minutes following exposure.
Select one:
A.
90
B.
5
C.
60
D.
30

Answer 36

D.
30

Question 37

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A.
a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
B.
the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
C.
the way in which traumatic injuries occur.
D.
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Answer 37

D.
your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Question 38

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm:
Select one:
A.
is less prone to penetrating trauma.
B.
contracts and flattens inferiorly.
C.
descends below the level of the navel.
D.
might rise as high as the nipple line.

Answer 38

D.
might rise as high as the nipple line.

Question 39

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the most appropriate method of moving a patient?
Select one:
A.
A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car
B.
A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
C.
An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke
D.
A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall

Answer 39

B.
A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain

Question 40

Which of the following medications would indicate that a patient has a history of seizures?
Select one:
A.
Levetiracetam (Keppra)
B.
Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
C.
Enalapril (Vasotec)
D.
Metformin (Glucophage)

Answer 40

A.
Levetiracetam (Keppra)

Question 41

To assess a patient’s general body temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the:
Select one:
A.
abdomen.
B.
neck.
C.
chest.
D.
forehead

Answer 41

A.
abdomen.

Question 42

You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type 2 diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient should include:
Select one:
A.
applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min.
B.
administering one to two tubes of oral glucose.
C.
performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs.
D.
assisting the patient with his diabetic medication

Answer 42

A.
applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min.

Question 43

Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of:
Select one:
A.
fracture of the cervical spine.
B.
bleeding in the brain.
C.
intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
D.
multiple open fractures

Answer 43

B.
bleeding in the brain.

Question 44

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
Select one:
A.
Hypotension
B.
Wheezing
C.
Dizziness
D.
Pallor

Answer 44

B.
Wheezing

Question 45

An 84-year-old male fell a week ago and has been bedridden since then. Today, he presents with an altered mental status. His skin is pale and cold, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. The EMT should suspect:
Select one:
A.
a subdural hematoma.
B.
a systemic infection.
C.
acute hyperglycemia.
D.
hypovolemic shock.

Answer 45

B.
a systemic infection.

Question 46

When victims involved in a multiple-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:
Select one:
A.
secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
B.
they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries.
C.
all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.
D.
definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made.

Answer 46

A.
secondary triage is performed, and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

Question 47

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:
Select one:
A.
rear-end collisions.
B.
lateral collisions.
C.
frontal collisions.
D.
rollover collisions.

Answer 47

B.
lateral collisions.

Question 48

At the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A.
place both patients in the ambulance and transport them at once.
B.
make another attempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain.
C.
ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio.
D.
use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.

Answer 48

D.
use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.

Question 49

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:
Select one:
A.
requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems.
B.
is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms.
C.
almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem.
D.
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms

Answer 49

D.
is focused on the nature of illness, the patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms

Question 50

Gathering data about a patient begins when:
Select one:
A.
a full medical history has been obtained.
B.
the EMT is given dispatch information.
C.
an initial patient care plan has been established.
D.
the EMT first sets eyes on the patient.

Answer 50

B.
the EMT is given dispatch information.

Question 51

An epidural hematoma is most accurately defined as:
Select one:
A.
bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
B.
venous lacerations that occur within the brain.
C.
an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.
D.
bleeding between the dura mater and brain.

Answer 51

A.
bleeding between the skull and dura mater.

Question 52

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should:
Select one:
A.
forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.
B.
begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
C.
perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.
D.
closely monitor him and reassess him frequently

Answer 52

D.
closely monitor him and reassess him frequently

Question 53

Which of the following would be the least likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)?
Select one:
A.
Mental status decreases
B.
Finger motion ceases
C.
Muscle activity increases
D.
Shivering stops

Answer 53

C.
Muscle activity increases

Question 54

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
Select one:
A.
Depression
B.
Schizophrenia
C.
Alzheimer’s disease
D.
Substance abuse

Answer 54

C.
Alzheimer’s disease

Question 55

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:
Select one:
A.
administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.
B.
obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
C.
assess the adequacy of his respirations.
D.
administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

Answer 55

C.
assess the adequacy of his respirations.

Question 56

When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMT should administer:
Select one:
A.
a minimum of 2.5 mg.
B.
a maximum of 0.5 mL.
C.
a half dose into each nostril.
D.
at least 2 mL into each nostril.

Answer 56

C.
a half dose into each nostril.

Question 57

A viral infection that might cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called:
Select one:
A.
asthma.
B.
epiglottitis.
C.
croup.
D.
bronchitis

Answer 57

C.
croup.

Question 58

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities.
Select one:
A.
triage
B.
transportation
C.
treatment
D.
medical

Answer 58

B.
transportation

Question 59

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should:
Select one:
A.
adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.
B.
recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels.
C.
begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing.
D.
avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.

Answer 59

A.
adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations.

Question 60

A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured, and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should:
Select one:
A.
request that EMS personnel don standard precautions, enter the warm zone, and begin immediate treatment of the patient.
B.
defer the decontamination procedure and bring the patient directly to awaiting EMS personnel for immediate treatment.
C.
cut away all of the patient’s clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.
D.
decontaminate the patient as they would any other patient and then move him to the area where EMTs are waiting

Answer 60

C.
cut away all of the patient’s clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.

Question 61

Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
Select one:
A.
their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.
B.
an infant’s ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.
C.
their intercostal muscles are not functional.
D.
their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

Answer 61

A.
their rib cage is less rigid, and the ribs sit horizontally.

Question 62

Excessive eating caused by cellular “hunger” is called:
Select one:
A.
polydipsia.
B.
dyspepsia.
C.
polyphagia.
D.
dysphasia.

Answer 62

C.
polyphagia.

Question 63

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient’s abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect:
Select one:
A.
a brown recluse spider bite.
B.
a black widow spider bite.
C.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
D.
envenomation from a pit viper.

Answer 63

B.
a black widow spider bite.

Question 64

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?
Select one:
A.
Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.
B.
In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe.
C.
Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.
D.
Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory–Weiss syndrome.

Answer 64

A.
Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.

Question 65

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?
Select one:
A.
Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus
B.
Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient’s vehicle
C.
Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
D.
Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

Answer 65

C.
Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

Question 66

When a female has reached menarche:
Select one:
A.
she can no longer produce an ovum.
B.
she usually requires hormone therapy.
C.
she is capable of becoming pregnant.
D.
menstrual periods become less frequent.

Answer 66

C.
she is capable of becoming pregnant.

Question 67

When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should:
Select one:
A.
secure the head before the torso.
B.
secure the torso before the head.
C.
slide the device under the child.
D.
pad underneath the child’s head.

Answer 67

B.
secure the torso before the head.

Question 68

The cricoid cartilage:
Select one:
A.
is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
B.
lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.
C.
is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage.
D.
lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck.

Answer 68

A.
is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.

Question 69

Upon arrival at a motor vehicle crash, the EMT should:
Select one:
A.
park at least 300 feet away from the accident scene.
B.
leave only the essential warning lights activated.
C.
turn off the ambulance and set the emergency brake.
D.
turn off the emergency flashing lights and headlights.

Answer 69

B.
leave only the essential warning lights activated.

Question 70

When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should:
Select one:
A.
place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.
B.
conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack.
C.
give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing.
D.
determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps.

Answer 70

D.
determine the position in which the patient normally sleeps.

Question 71

The hepatitis B vaccine program, a component of the infection control plan, addresses all of the following issues, except:
Select one:
A.
postvaccine antibody titers.
B.
record keeping and tracking.
C.
family history of hepatitis.
D.
vaccine safety and efficacy.

Answer 71

C.
family history of hepatitis.

Question 72

You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has most likely been exposed to:
Select one:
A.
a neurotoxin.
B.
anthrax.
C.
Ebola.
D.
botulinum.

Answer 72

B.
anthrax.

Question 73

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):
Select one:
A.
EMT.
B.
advanced EMT (AEMT).
C.
EMR.
D.
paramedic.

Answer 73

D.
paramedic.

Question 74

Signs of absorbed poison exposure include all of the following, except:
Select one:
A.
liquid or powder on a patient’s skin.
B.
severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
C.
redness of skin in light-skinned people.
D.
burns, itching, or irritation to the skin.

Answer 74

B.
severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

Question 75

Capillary refill time is most reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than:
Select one:
A.
8 years.
B.
6 years.
C.
10 years.
D.
4 years

Answer 75

B.
6 years.

Question 76

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?
Select one:
A.
Providing the handoff report only to a physician.
B.
Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.
C.
Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report.
D.
Clearly identifying your EMS certification level.

Answer 76

B.
Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format.

Question 77

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient’s clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:
Select one:
A.
has a low blood glucose level.
B.
is significantly hyperglycemic.
C.
has a urinary tract infection.
D.
has overdosed on her insulin

Answer 77

B.
is significantly hyperglycemic.

Question 78

you are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. You expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should:
Select one:
A.
move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest and administer oxygen.
B.
remove the nitroglycerin patch and apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest.
C.
complete your secondary assessment and reassess his blood pressure in 5 minutes.
D.
remove the nitroglycerin patch, administer oxygen, and place him in a supine position

Answer 78

D.
remove the nitroglycerin patch, administer oxygen, and place him in a supine position

Question 79

A multiparous patient is one who:
Select one:
A.
has double vision.
B.
has given birth more than once.
C.
has an irregular heartbeat.
D.
is paralyzed in all extremities.

Answer 79

B.
has given birth more than once.

Question 80

Which of the following findings should make the EMT especially suspicious that a woman was sexually assaulted?
Select one:
A.
Inability to remember the event
B.
A prescription for alprazolam (Xanax)
C.
Signs of shock on assessment
D.
The odor of alcohol on her breath

Answer 80

A.
Inability to remember the event

Question 81

An open fracture is most accurately defined as a fracture in which:
Select one:
A.
the bone is broken but does not penetrate the skin.
B.
a bullet or other projectile shatters the underlying bone.
C.
an external wound is present over the fracture site.
D.
fractured bone ends protrude through the skin

Answer 81

C.
an external wound is present over the fracture site.

Question 82

If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ pounds.
Select one:
A.
60
B.
40
C.
70
D.
50

Answer 82

B.
40

Question 83

EMTs are dispatched for a patient whose central venous catheter is malfunctioning. When they arrive and assess the patient, they find bleeding from the tubing attached to the line. The EMTs should:
Select one:
A.
request an ALS ambulance to clamp the tubing.
B.
gently manipulate the catheter to reduce the bleeding.
C.
apply direct pressure to the tubing and transport.
D.
carefully remove the catheter and transport.

Answer 83

C.
apply direct pressure to the tubing and transport.

Question 84

Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct?
Select one:
A.
Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place.
B.
Gastrostomy tubes are used for patients who cannot digest food.
C.
Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.
D.
Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine

Answer 84

C.
Patients with a gastrostomy tube might still be at risk for aspiration.