[additional] MT 2 Review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:
Select one:
A.
has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.
B.
is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes.
C.
has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL.
D.
has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex.

A

A.
has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:
Select one:
A.
repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.
B.
instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test.
C.
defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.
D.
repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.

A

D.
repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by:
Select one:
A.
regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity.
B.
a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.
C.
pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions.
D.
alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.

A

D.
alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:
Select one:
A.
a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.
B.
signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.
C.
a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage.
D.
medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot.

A

A.
a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should:
Select one:
A.
recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects.
B.
give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport.
C.
assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
D.
transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin.

A

A.
recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following steps is not proper procedure when performing an emergency move?
Select one:
A.
Pulling the patient’s clothing in the shoulder area
B.
Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her
C.
Using a long-axis body drag during the move
D.
Pulling the patient on a blanket or similar object

A

B.
Lifting the patient by the belt to move him or her

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is an example of a functional behavioral disorder?
Select one:
A.
Alzheimer’s disease
B.
Schizophrenia
C.
Drug addiction
D.
Head trauma

A

B.
Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The diastolic blood pressure represents the:
Select one:
A.
minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.
B.
difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation.
C.
increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.
D.
average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle

A

A.
minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
loss of appetite and a cough.
B.
jaundice and abdominal pain.
C.
vomiting, fever, and fatigue.
D.
pain in the muscles and joints.

A

B.
jaundice and abdominal pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A 35-year-old obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is:
Select one:
A.
pancreatitis.
B.
acute cystitis.
C.
acute cholecystitis.
D.
appendicitis.

A

C.
acute cholecystitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to:
Select one:
A.
give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.
B.
use an automatic transport ventilator.
C.
insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.
D.
apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter.

A

C.
insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when:
Select one:
A.
the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.
B.
myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen.
C.
the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions.
D.
coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart.

A

B.
myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?
Select one:
A.
Severe hypoglycemia
B.
Pulmonary embolism
C.
Diabetic ketoacidosis
D.
Congestive heart failure

A

B.
Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?
Select one:
A.
50-year-old woman with moderate obesity
B.
68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
C.
39-year-old man with mild hypertension
D.
12-year-old child with a fractured arm

A

B.
68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the kidneys is correct?
Select one:
A.
A series of small blood vessels attach the kidneys directly to the superior vena cava and renal arteries.
B.
The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body’s fluid balance.
C.
Because the kidneys require little oxygen, only 5% of the body’s blood volume passes through them each minute.
D.
Both kidneys are located in the anterior abdominal cavity and lie in between the liver and the spleen.

A

B.
The kidneys eliminate toxic waste products from the body and control the body’s fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should:
Select one:
A.
advise the patient why restraint was needed.
B.
inform medical control of the situation.
C.
document the time the restraints were applied.
D.
reassess the patient’s airway and breathing.

A

D.
reassess the patient’s airway and breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group?
Select one:
A.
The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
B.
The systolic blood pressure decreases.
C.
Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
D.
Secondary sexual development begins

A

D.
Secondary sexual development begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?
Select one:
A.
A 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex
B.
A 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee
C.
A 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen
D.
A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

A

D.
A 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained?
Select one:
A.
Intraosseous
B.
Subcutaneous
C.
Transcutaneous
D.
Intramuscular

A

A.
Intraosseous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED), and he tells you that he does. You should:
Select one:
A.
administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure.
B.
avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once.
C.
ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.
D.
recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension.

A

C.
ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?
Select one:
A.
Albuterol (Ventolin)
B.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C.
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

D.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
spinal injury.
B.
severe infection.
C.
ischemic stroke.
D.
anaphylaxis.

A

C.
ischemic stroke.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
severe twitching of all the body’s muscles.
B.
a core body temperature of greater than 103°F (40°C).
C.
a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness.
D.
unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes

A

A.
severe twitching of all the body’s muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when:
Select one:
A.
a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time.
B.
a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
C.
a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent.
D.
a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water.

A

B.
a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?
Select one:
A.
Deep and rapid breathing
B.
Hypotension and tachycardia
C.
Restlessness and irritability
D.
Rapid and weak pulse

A

A.
Deep and rapid breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
Select one:
A.
Depression
B.
Alzheimer’s disease
C.
Substance abuse
D.
Schizophrenia

A

B.
Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:
Select one:
A.
have weak immune systems.
B.
have a history of esophagitis.
C.
have uncontrolled diabetes.
D.
consume a lot of alcohol

A

D.
consume a lot of alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A.
to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B.
with one or two hands.
C.
until a radial pulse is felt.
D.
80 to 100 times per minute.

A

B.
with one or two hands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A.
cool, clammy skin.
B.
acetone breath odor.
C.
rapid, thready pulse.
D.
warm, dry skin.

A

A.
cool, clammy skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk?
Select one:
A.
Axillary
B.
Cephalic
C.
Saphenous
D.
Subclavian

A

C.
Saphenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Your patient’s past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?
Select one:
A.
Seizures
B.
Hypertension
C.
Diabetes
D.
Heart failure

A

D.
Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:
Select one:
A.
have weak immune systems.
B.
have a history of esophagitis.
C.
have uncontrolled diabetes.
D.
consume a lot of alcohol.

A

D.
consume a lot of alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately three minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke two hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should:
Select one:
A.
assess her for crowning.
B.
place her on her left side.
C.
apply high-flow oxygen.
D.
transport her immediately.

A

A.
assess her for crowning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which layer of the skin is composed of fatty tissue and serves as an insulator for the body?
Select one:
A.
Epidermis
B.
Sebaceous
C.
Subcutaneous
D.
Dermal

A

C.
Subcutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure is characterized by:
Select one:
A.
severe twitching of all the body’s muscles.
B.
a core body temperature of greater than 103°F (40°C).
C.
a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness.
D.
unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes.

A

A.
severe twitching of all the body’s muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?
Select one:
A.
Albuterol (Ventolin)
B.
Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C.
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

A

D.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the most appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance?
Select one:
A.
Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.
B.
Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench.
C.
Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.
D.
Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.

A

D.
Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:
Select one:
A.
not able to swallow without choking.
B.
unable to produce or understand speech.
C.
usually conscious but has slurred speech.
D.
experiencing a right hemispheric stroke.

A

B.
unable to produce or understand speech.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Albuterol is a generic name for:
Select one:
A.
Ventolin.
B.
Atrovent.
C.
Singulair.
D.
Alupent.

A

A.
Ventolin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:
Select one:
A.
recall that most visually impaired patients are blind.
B.
expect the patient to have difficulty understanding.
C.
determine the degree of the patient’s impairment.
D.
possess an in-depth knowledge of sign language.

A

C.
determine the degree of the patient’s impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?
Select one:
A.
Weight loss and polyuria
B.
Low blood glucose level
C.
Total lack of appetite
D.
Weight gain and edema

A

A.
Weight loss and polyuria

42
Q

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient’s illness?
Select one:
A.
Asking questions related to the chief complaint
B.
Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched
C.
Trending of the patient’s vital signs over time
D.
Refraining from asking open-ended questions

A

A.
Asking questions related to the chief complaint

43
Q

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
Select one:
A.
apply a pulse oximeter and assess her vital signs.
B.
obtain a complete list of all of her medications.
C.
assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
D.
administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A

C.
assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

44
Q

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
Select one:
A.
the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.
B.
slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.
C.
blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
D.
dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.

A

C.
blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.

45
Q

At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:
Select one:
A.
audible stridor.
B.
profound cyanosis.
C.
rales and rhonchi.
D.
expiratory wheezing.

A

A.
audible stridor.

46
Q

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations:
Select one:
A.
slow and deep.
B.
deep and rapid.
C.
slow and shallow.
D.
rapid and shallow.

A

B.
deep and rapid.

47
Q

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should:
Select one:
A.
apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.
B.
insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning.
C.
place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.
D.
insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.

A

D.
insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.

48
Q

During each heartbeat, ___________ of blood is ejected from the adult heart, an amount called the stroke volume.
Select one:
A.
90 to 100 mL
B.
40 to 50 mL
C.
100 to 120 mL
D.
70 to 80 mL

A

D.
70 to 80 mL

49
Q

Worn-out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the:
Select one:
A.
kidney.
B.
liver.
C.
pancreas.
D.
spleen.

A

D.
spleen.

50
Q

Which of the following glands regulates the function of all other endocrine glands in the body?
Select one:
A.
Thyroid
B.
Pituitary
C.
Parathyroid
D.
Adrenal

A

B.
Pituitary

51
Q

The atlas is the:
Select one:
A.
attachment between the first and second cervical vertebrae.
B.
point where the ribs attach to the sternum.
C.
first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.
D.
seventh cervical vertebra, which is easily palpable.

A

C.
first cervical vertebra, which articulates with the skull.

52
Q

The three bones that make up the shoulder girdle are the:
Select one:
A.
acromion, humerus, and clavicle.
B.
clavicle, scapula, and humerus.
C.
acromion, clavicle, and scapula.
D.
acromion, scapula, and humerus.

A

B.
clavicle, scapula, and humerus.

53
Q

The most superior section of the sternum is called the:
Select one:
A.
xiphoid process.
B.
angle of Louis.
C.
costal arch.
D.
manubrium.

A

D.
manubrium.

54
Q

Which of the following arteries does not carry highly oxygenated blood?
Select one:
A.
Femoral
B.
Renal
C.
Pulmonary
D.
Aorta

A

C.
Pulmonary

55
Q

The ___________ portion of the spinal column is joined to the iliac bones of the pelvis.
Select one:
A.
coccyx
B.
sacrum
C.
thoracic
D.
lumbar

A

B.
sacrum

56
Q

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last?
Select one:
A.
Posterior
B.
Extremities
C.
Abdomen
D.
Anterior chest

A

A.
Posterior

57
Q

While en route to the scene of a shooting, the dispatcher advises you that the perpetrator has fled the scene. You should:
Select one:
A.
proceed to the scene as usual but exercise extreme caution upon arrival.
B.
ask the dispatcher if he or she knows the location of the perpetrator.
C.
confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.
D.
request law enforcement personnel if the scene is unsafe upon arrival.

A

C.
confirm this information with law enforcement personnel at the scene.

58
Q

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:
Select one:
A.
reassess your interventions.
B.
repeat the primary assessment.
C.
obtain updated vital signs.
D.
confirm medical history findings.

A

B.
repeat the primary assessment.

59
Q

You should avoid palpating a patient’s pelvis if:
Select one:
A.
the patient is older than 50 years of age.
B.
the MOI suggests trauma to the pelvis.
C.
the pelvis does not appear deformed.
D.
the patient complains of pelvic pain.

A

D.
the patient complains of pelvic pain.

60
Q

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate:
Select one:
A.
increased blood volume.
B.
forceful cardiac contraction.
C.
arterial constriction.
D.
loss of vascular tone.

A

D.
loss of vascular tone.

61
Q

When gathering a patient’s medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)?
Select one:
A.
Isordil
B.
Nexium
C.
Lasix
D.
Digoxin

A

B.
Nexium

62
Q

The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.
Select one:
A.
class
B.
type
C.
name
D.
form

A

D.
form

63
Q

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?
Select one:
A.
Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.
B.
Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
C.
Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.
D.
Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects

A

B.
Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

64
Q

The only indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:
Select one:
A.
vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta.
B.
breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.
C.
limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage.
D.
nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg

A

B.
breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

65
Q

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
Select one:
A.
rate and depth of breathing.
B.
rate of the patient’s pulse.
C.
presence of a medical identification tag.
D.
patient’s mental status

A

A.
rate and depth of breathing.

66
Q

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:
Select one:
A.
can be reversed with prompt treatment.
B.
causes dehydration from excessive urination.
C.
occurs from conditions such as dehydration.
D.
is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

A

D.
is often caused by hypertension or diabetes.

67
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the:
Select one:
A.
urinary bladder.
B.
uterus.
C.
fallopian tubes.
D.
ovaries

A

A.
urinary bladder.

68
Q

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is:
Select one:
A.
sitting up at a 45° angle.
B.
in a supine position.
C.
in a prone position.
D.
in a recumbent position.

A

A.
sitting up at a 45° angle.

69
Q

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), recommended immunizations and tests include a:
Select one:
A.
TB skin test every six months.
B.
smallpox vaccine every five years.
C.
tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years.
D.
two-shot hepatitis A vaccination series.

A

C.
tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis booster every 10 years.

70
Q

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:
Select one:
A.
careless handling of sharps.
B.
lack of proper immunizations.
C.
excessive blood splashing or splattering.
D.
noncompliance with standard precautions

A

A.
careless handling of sharps.

71
Q

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Select one:
A.
Exacerbation of his COPD
B.
Acute pulmonary embolism
C.
Spontaneous pneumothorax
D.
Rupture of the diaphragm

A

C.
Spontaneous pneumothorax

72
Q

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the:
Select one:
A.
pubic symphysis.
B.
iliac crest.
C.
umbilicus.
D.
nipple line

A

C.
umbilicus.

73
Q

Both areas of the pons are used to:
Select one:
A.
ensure that the lungs do not overinflate during breathing.
B.
provide forced inspiration or expiration as needed.
C.
augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.
D.
set the base rate and depth of breathing in a healthy person.

A

C.
augment respirations during emotional or physical stress.

74
Q

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by:
Select one:
A.
severe bradycardia.
B.
cardiogenic shock.
C.
congestive heart failure.
D.
ventricular fibrillation.

A

D.
ventricular fibrillation.

75
Q

Older patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of:
Select one:
A.
chronic dementia, which inhibits communication.
B.
age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.
C.
progressive deterioration of abdominal organ function.
D.
interactions of the numerous medications they take.

A

B.
age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.

76
Q

The femoral head forms a ball-and-socket joint with the:
Select one:
A.
ischium.
B.
femoral condyle.
C.
ilium.
D.
acetabulum.

A

D.
acetabulum.

77
Q

You are transporting a veteran whose legs were amputated in the war. When calling your radio report to the emergency department, which of the following words would be the most appropriate to use when describing the patient?
Select one:
A.
Handicapped
B.
Crippled
C.
Deformed
D.
Disabled

A

D.
Disabled

78
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient’s vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient’s presentation, you should suspect:
Select one:
A.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
B.
Lyme disease.
C.
an allergic reaction.
D.
exposure to poison ivy.

A

B.
Lyme disease.

79
Q

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
Select one:
A.
take standard precautions.
B.
quickly access the patient.
C.
notify law enforcement.
D.
contact medical control.

A

A.
take standard precautions.

80
Q

It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may:
Select one:
A.
be self-destructive.
B.
inject illicit drugs.
C.
have a definitive plan.
D.
be homicidal as well.

A

D.
be homicidal as well.

81
Q

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:
Select one:
A.
15:2.
B.
5:2.
C.
5:1.
D.
30:2.

A

D.
30:2.

82
Q

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?
Select one:
A.
Drug overdose
B.
Accidental knife wound
C.
Attempted suicide
D.
Cardiac arrest

A

C.
Attempted suicide

83
Q

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:
Select one:
A.
meningitis.
B.
tuberculosis.
C.
hepatitis.
D.
MERS-CoV.

A

A.
meningitis.

84
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?
Select one:
A.
Untreated PID can lead to an ectopic pregnancy or an abscess.
B.
The majority of women with PID never develop symptoms.
C.
PID is an infection of the lower female reproductive organs.
D.
PID is a life-threatening condition that is associated with shock.

A

A.
Untreated PID can lead to an ectopic pregnancy or an abscess.

85
Q

The bony prominence on the lateral/superior aspect of the thigh is called the:
Select one:
A.
greater trochanter.
B.
sacroiliac joint.
C.
iliac crest.
D.
sacral symphysis.

A

A.
greater trochanter.

86
Q

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?
Select one:
A.
Injected poison.
B.
Plant poisoning.
C.
Alkaline poison.
D.
Inhaled poison.

A

C.
Alkaline poison.

87
Q

When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then:
Select one:
A.
conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.
B.
apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.
C.
document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.
D.
transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

A

D.
transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.

88
Q

In which of the following circumstances can the EMT legally release confidential patient information?
Select one:
A.
The family requests a copy for insurance purposes
B.
A media representative inquires about the patient
C.
The patient is competent and signs a release form
D.
A police officer requests a copy to place on file

A

C.
The patient is competent and signs a release form

89
Q

What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?
Select one:
A.
7,400 mL
B.
8,000 mL
C.
5,600 mL
D.
6,000 mL

A

C.
5,600 mL

90
Q

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should:
Select one:
A.
maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes.
B.
apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.
C.
perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.
D.
slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally.

A

B.
apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.

91
Q

In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air:
Select one:
A.
remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution.
B.
decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.
C.
decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide.
D.
increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

A

D.
increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.

92
Q

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the:
Select one:
A.
underside of the arms.
B.
forehead.
C.
palms and soles.
D.
chest and abdomen.

A

C.
palms and soles.

93
Q

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
Select one:
A.
19 and 25 years.
B.
25 and 35 years.
C.
21 and 30 years.
D.
18 and 22 years.

A

A.
19 and 25 years.

94
Q

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days’ duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying supplemental oxygen, you should:
Select one:
A.
prepare for immediate transport.
B.
perform a head-to-toe exam.
C.
obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes.
D.
allow him to drink plain water.

A

A.
prepare for immediate transport.

95
Q

A physiologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:
Select one:
A.
functional disorder
B.
traumatic brain injury
C.
seizure
D.
drug and alcohol abuse

A

A.
functional disorder

96
Q

Most prehospital cardiac arrests in adults occur as the result of:
Select one:
A.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B.
severe blunt trauma.
C.
an acute ischemic stroke.
D.
obstruction of the airway.

A

A.
a cardiac dysrhythmia.

97
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs when:
Select one:
A.
the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
B.
massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
C.
failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
D.
there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.

A

C.
failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

98
Q

The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because:
Select one:
A.
a child’s cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults’ do.
B.
illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.
C.
children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury.
D.
children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults

A

D.
children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults

99
Q

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?
Select one:
A.
Overconfidence
B.
Bias
C.
Anchoring
D.
Streamlining

A

C.
Anchoring

100
Q

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that:
Select one:
A.
he has a thrombosis.
B.
his blood clots too quickly.
C.
he has hemophilia A.
D.
he has thrombophilia.

A

C.
he has hemophilia A.

101
Q

Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49-year-old male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience?
Select one:
A.
Pupillary constriction
B.
A fall in blood pressure
C.
Dry mucous membranes
D.
Excessive lacrimation

A

C.
Dry mucous membranes

102
Q

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT?
Select one:
A.
Sublingually
B.
Orally
C.
Injected
D.
Inhaled

A

A.
Sublingually