Chapter 14 - BLS Resuscitation

Question 1

A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

Select one:

A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. determine if he has a valid living will.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. begin CPR until an AED is available.

Answer 1

D. begin CPR until an AED is available.

Question 2

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:

Select one:

A. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.

B. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.

C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

D. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.

Answer 2

C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

Question 3

Between each chest compression, you should __________.

Select one:

A. remove your hands from the chest
B. check for a pulse
C. administer a breath
D. allow full chest recoil

Answer 3

D. allow full chest recoil

Question 4

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. liver laceration.
B. a fractured sternum.
C. rib fractures.
D. gastric distention.

Answer 4

D. gastric distention.

Question 5

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?

Select one:

A. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse.

B. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse.

D. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart.

Answer 5

B. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

Question 6

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:

Select one:

A. is delivered by computer.
B. involves hands-on practice.
C. occurs every 24 months.
D. is self-paced and brief.

Answer 6

B. involves hands-on practice.

Question 7

CPR should be initiated when:

Select one:

A. the carotid pulse is very weak.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. a valid living will is unavailable.
D. rigor mortis is obvious.

Answer 7

C. a valid living will is unavailable.

Question 8

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

Select one:

A. horizontal.
B. supine.
C. prone.
D. on a firm surface.

Answer 8

C. prone.

Question 9

Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:

Select one:

A. when the airway is completely obstructed.
B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
C. in patients who are intubated.
D. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.

Answer 9

B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

Question 10

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient’s airway, you should __________.

Select one:

A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side

Answer 10

C. remove it

Question 11

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

Select one:

A. respiratory arrest.
B. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
C. a drug overdose.
D. severe chest trauma.

Answer 11

A. respiratory arrest.

Question 12

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient’s airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:

Select one:

A. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
B. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
C. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient’s neck.

Answer 12

C. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

Question 13

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:

A. acute cyanosis.
B. forceful coughing.
C. inability to speak.
D. grasping the throat.

Answer 13

B. forceful coughing.

Question 14

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by:

Select one:

A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.

B. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.

D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.

Answer 14

B. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

Question 15

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?

Select one:

A. 30:1
B. 15:2
C. 15:1
D. 30:2

Answer 15

D. 30:2

Question 16

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:

Select one:

A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. until a radial pulse is felt.
C. with one or two hands.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.

Answer 16

C. with one or two hands.

Question 17

While rescuer one is finishing their fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:

Select one:

A. move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.
B. suction the patient’s mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
D. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.

Answer 17

A. move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.

Question 18

Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.

Select one:

A. improve over time
B. deteriorate over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. become part of your muscle memory

Answer 18

B. deteriorate over time

Question 19

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:

Select one:

A. administer back blows.
B. place the patient supine.
C. encourage the patient to cough.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.

Answer 19

C. encourage the patient to cough.

Question 20

Your conscious patient has a weak cough with an airway obstruction. You should:

Select one:

A. administer back blows.
B. place the patient supine.
C. encourage the patient to cough.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.

Answer 20

D. perform abdominal thrusts.

Question 21

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:

Select one:

A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

B. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.

C. move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the AED pads.

D. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.

Answer 21

A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

Question 22

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:

Select one:

A. until he or she loses consciousness.
B. in sets of five followed by reassessment.
C. about 1″ below the xiphoid process.
D. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.

Answer 22

A. until he or she loses consciousness.

Question 23

Brain damage is very likely in a brain that does not receive oxygen for:
A. 0–1 minutes.
B. 0–4 minutes.
C. 4–6 minutes.
D. 6–10 minutes.

Answer 23

D.
Permanent brain damage is very likely if the brain is without oxygen for 6 minutes or longer. After 10 minutes without oxygen, irreversible brain damage is likely.
[0-1 = Cardiac irritability ensues at this stage
0-4 = Brain damage is not likely at this stage
4-6 = Brain damage is possible at this stage, but not likely.]

Question 24

Which of the following sequences of events describes the AHA chain of survival?

A. Early access, integrated post-arrest care, early advanced care, early CPR, early defibrillation, recovery

B. Early advanced care, early defibrillation, integrated post-arrest care, early CPR, early access

C. Early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post-arrest care, recovery

D. Early access, early riser, early CPR, early advanced care

Answer 24

C.
The AHA has determined an ideal sequence of events that, if taken, can improve the chance of successful resuscitation of a patient who has an occurrence of sudden cardiac arrest: early access, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care, integrated post-arrest care, and a recovery plan. If any one of the links in the chain is absent, the patient is more likely to die.