Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 1105 > Final Exam Review: Cumulative Portion > Flashcards

Final Exam Review: Cumulative Portion Flashcards

1
Q

List the six steps of the scientific method.

A
  1. Observation
  2. Question
  3. Hypothesis
  4. Prediction
  5. Experiment
  6. Conclusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a prediction?

A

What you think the result of the experiment will be, based on the hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of the hypothesis?

A

It is an educated guess about the cause of a phenomenon that must make a testable prediction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false:

A hypothesis can be definitively proven correct.

A

False

It can be rejected or supported, but never definitively proven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the purpose of the experiment?

A

It systematically tests the hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What four things will a well-defined experiment include?

A
  1. Independent variable
  2. Dependent variable
  3. Control group
  4. Experimental group(s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All living things are descended from a…

A

Common ancestor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or false:

Despite being descended from a commmon ancestor, living things show wide variations in complexity, genotype, and phenotype.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List the eight taxonomic ranks.

A
  1. Domain
  2. Kingdom
  3. Phylum
  4. Class
  5. Order
  6. Family
  7. Genus
  8. Species
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A family is ____ specific than a genus.

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the three main tenets of cell theory.

A
  1. All organisms are composed of cells
  2. Cells are the smallest living things and the smallest unit of life.
  3. Cells arise only from pre-existing cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the hierarchy for a unicellular organism.

A

Atom, molecule, macromolecule, organelle, cell, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List the hierarchy for a multicellular organism.

A

Atom, molecule, macromolecule, organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The number of valence electrons determines an atom’s….

A

Reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The ____ states that most atoms will react in such a way that they obtain a full valence shell.

A

Octet rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atoms with eight valence electrons (plus helium) are…

A

Inert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atoms with few valence electrons tend to…

A

Lose electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Atoms with more valence electrons tend to…

A

Gain electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When an atom or molecule loses electrons, it becomes….

A

A positively-charged cation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When an atom or molecule gains electrons, it becomes…

A

A negatively-charged anion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____ are formed when atoms or molecules share electrons.

A

Covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____ are formed between a metal and a nonmetal.

A

Ionic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

____ are formed when atoms or molecules share a hydrogen atom.

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which type of bonds are the strongest in biological systems?

A

Covalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

____ describes an atom or molecule’s affinity for electrons.

A

Electronegativity

high electronegativity = wants to gain electrons ; low electronegativity = wants to lose electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List six properties of water that are fundamental for life on Earth.

A
  1. Cohesion
  2. Adhesion
  3. High specific heat
  4. High heat of vaporization
  5. Less dense solid form
  6. Universal solvent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Water exhibits cohesion because…

A

Its polarity allows it to form hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why is cohesion important for life?

A

It creates surface tension, allowing water to exist as a liquid at room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Water exhibits adhesion because…

A

Its polarity causes it to be attracted to other polar molecules, and adhere to anything it can form hydrogen bonds with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why is adhesion important for life?

A

It drives capillary action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Water has a high specific heat because…

A

The hydrogen bonds formed between water molecules restrict molecular movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is water’s high specific heat important for life?

A

Water exists in liquid form at a wide range of temperatures since it gains and loses heat slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Water has a high heat of vaporization because…

A

Significant amounts of energy are required to break the hydrogen bonds between water molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is water’s high heat of vaporization important for life?

A

Water remains in liquid form even at high temperatures, allowing organisms to cool themselves through sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why is ice less dense than liquid water?

A

Water molecules are spaced further apart in ice than they are in liquid water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Why is the fact that ice is less dense than water important for life?

A

Ice floats on water, enabling aquatic life to survive even when the lake/pond/river freezes over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is water considered a universal solvent?

A

It clusters around charged or polar molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The pH scale measures…

A

The concentration of dissolved H+ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The concentration of H+ ions in a solution with a pH of 5 is ____ than in a solution with a pH of 8.

A

1,000 times higher

each number down on the pH scale represents a tenfold increase in H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

List the four main types of biological macromolecules.

A
  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Proteins
  3. Lipids
  4. Nucleic acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the main functions of carbohydrates?

A

Energy storage and structural support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Carbohydrates are assembled from…

A

Monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the main functions of proteins?

A

Structural support and enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Proteins are assembled from…

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the main function of nucleic acids?

A

Encode genetic information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nucleic acids are assembled from…

A

Nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the main functions of lipids?

A

Energy storage, membrane structure, and cell identity/communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Lipids are assembled from…

A

Fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

List the seven functional groups found in biological macromolecules.

A
  1. Hydroxyl
  2. Carbonyl
  3. Carboxyl
  4. Amino
  5. Sulfhydryl
  6. Methyl
  7. Phosphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Carbohydrates contain which functional groups?

A
  1. Hydroxyl
  2. Carbonyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Proteins contain which functional groups?

A
  1. Hydroxyl
  2. Carboxyl
  3. Amino
  4. Sulfhydryl
  5. Methyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Nucleic acids contain which functional groups?

A
  1. Hydroxyl
  2. Carbonyl
  3. Amino
  4. Phosphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Lipids contain which functional groups?

A
  1. Hydroxyl
  2. Carboxyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

List the three major parts of a nucleotide.

A
  1. Nitrogenous base
  2. Phosphate group
  3. Pentose sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In both DNA and RNA, the 5’ carbon is attached to the…

A

Phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In both DNA and RNA, the 1’ carbon is attached to the…

A

Nitrogenous base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In RNA, the 2’ carbon is attached to…

A

Ribose
(OH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In DNA, the 2’ carbon is attached to…

A

Deoxyribose
(H)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In both DNA and RNA, the 3’ carbon is attached to…

A

A hydroxyl (OH) group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What four nitrogenous bases are found in RNA?

A
  1. Adenine
  2. Cytosine
  3. Guanine
  4. Uracil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What four nitrogenous bases are found in DNA?

A
  1. Adenine
  2. Cytosine
  3. Guanine
  4. Thymine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which bases are purines, and which are pyrimidines?

A

Purines - AG
Pyrimidines - CTU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

A protein’s identifying amino acid sidechain is called the…

A

R-group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How many different amino acids are there?

A

20

ten nonpolar, five polar w/no charge, two polar w/negative charge, three polar w/positive charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

A protein’s ____ is its amino acid sequence.

A

Primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A protein’s ____ is dependent on hydrogen bonds between adjacent amino acids.

A

Secondary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What two shapes can the secondary structure of a protein make?

A

Alpha sheet and beta helix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A protein’s ____ is three-dimensional and depends on interactions between distant amino acids.

A

Tertiary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A protein’s ____ is formed by the association of two or more polypeptides.

A

Quarternary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In order to function, a protein must be…

A

Properly folded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

____ occurs when a protein unfolds and inactivates.

A

Denaturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

True or false:

It is possible for a denatured protein to re-fold if the proper environmental conditions are restored.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

List six characteristics of prokaryotes.

A
  1. Smaller than eukaryotes
  2. Always unicellular
  3. No internal compartments
  4. Have a cell wall and/or plasma membrane
  5. May have a capsule coating
  6. May have pili and/or flagella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

List five characteristics of eukaryotes.

A
  1. Larger than prokaryotes
  2. May be unicellular or multicellular
  3. Have organelles
  4. Have a plasma membrane
  5. Have both cytoplasm and cytosol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What structure is believed to be unique to animal cells?

A

Lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which structures are unique to plant cells?

A
  1. Chloroplasts
  2. Vacuoles
  3. Cell walls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The largest organelle in eukaryotic cells is the…

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

RNA is made in the…

A

Nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

List two major functions of the nucleus.

A
  1. Protects DNA from damage
  2. Separates RNA making from protein making
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the primary function of mitochondria?

A

Makes ATP from sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

List four characteristics of mitochondria that help differentiate them from other organelles.

A
  1. Reproduce by binary fission
  2. Have two membranes
  3. Have their own circular DNA
  4. Have their own ribosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the primary function of chloroplasts?

A

Use light to make ATP and sugars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

List four characteristics of chloroplasts that help distinguish them from other organelles.

A
  1. Reproduce by binary fission
  2. Have three membranes
  3. Have their own circular DNA
  4. Have their own ribosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

List three major components of cell membranes.

A
  1. Phospholipids
  2. Proteins
  3. Carbohydrates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the function of phospholipids in cell membranes?

A

They form the membrane’s primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Describe the basic structure of phospholipids.

A

They are amphipathic, with a polar hydrophilic head and two nonpolar hydrophobic tails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

List the two major classes of proteins found in cell membranes.

A
  1. Transmembrane
  2. Peripheral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the functions of carbohydrates in the cell membrane?

A
  1. Form an outer sugar coat
  2. Help protect the cell
  3. Help with cell identification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the six types of membrane protein functions?

A
  1. Receptors
  2. Cell identity
  3. Enzymes
  4. Cell adhesion
  5. Cytoskeletal
  6. Transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the function of receptor proteins?

A

Detect signal molecules and initiate a response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the function of cell identity proteins?

A

Allow the cell to be recognized by other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the function of enzymes in the cell membrane?

A

Promote and catalyze chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the function of cell adhesion proteins?

A

Allow the cell to attach to other cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the function of cytoskeletal proteins?

A

Help the cytoskeleton to control cell shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the function of transport proteins?

A

Move molecules across the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

____ occurs when molecules are moved down their concentration gradient.

A

Passive transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

____ transport does not require energy.

A

Passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Facilitated diffusion is a form of….

A

Passive transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

____ occurs when molecules are moved up their concentration gradient.

A

Active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

____ transport uses energy to create and maintain a concentration gradient.

A

Active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

____ can create a pore in the cell membrane to allow molecules through.

A

Channel proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

True or false:

Channel proteins are always open.

A

False

Some are always open, but some open and close in response to a signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

____ proteins may or may not be specific to a certain molecule.

A

Channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

True or false:

Channel proteins only engage in passive transport.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

True or false:

Carrier proteins only engage in active transport.

A

False

They can perform both passive and active transport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

During passive transport, carrier proteins carry out…

A

Facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

____ let molecules in the cell by binding to it, then reversing shape.

A

Carrier proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

____ proteins are always specific to a certain molecule.

A

Carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

During active transport, carrier proteins…

A

Pump molecules against their concentration gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Most carrier proteins that engage in active transport are…

A

ATPases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

____ occurs when water moves down its concentration gradient to an area of higher solute concentration.

A

Osmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

____ is the process by which eukaryotic cells ingest large materials.

A

Endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

List the three main types of endocytosis.

A
  1. Pinocytosis
  2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
  3. Phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

____ is “cell drinking” and occurs when parts of the cell membrane bud inward to engulf all nearby molecules.

A

Pinocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

____ occurs when a cell recognizes and consumes specific macromolecules.

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

____ is “cell eating” and occurs when a cell engulfs another cell.

A

Phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

____ is the outward movement of proteins and lipids.

A

Exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

____ occurs when an atom or molecule loses an electron.

A

Oxidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

____ occurs when an atom or molecule gains an electron.

A

Reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The ____ form of an atom or molecule has more energy.

A

Reduced

because it has more electrons than the oxidized form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the first law of thermodynamics?

A

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only change forms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is the second law of thermodynamics?

A

The entropy of the universe is constantly increasing. Energy naturally changes forms from more ordered, less stable to less ordered, more stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

____ regulate many reactions in cells.

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

True or false:

Most enzymes are proteins.

125
Q

Enzymes are usually specific to a…

126
Q

True or false:

When acting as catalysts, enzymes are neither changed nor consumed in the reaction.

127
Q

A substrate binds to an enzyme’s…

A

Active site

128
Q

How do enzymes catalyze reactions?

A

They lower the activation energy by applying stress

129
Q

List four things that can affect the rates of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.

A
  1. Concentration of the substrate
  2. Concentration of the enzyme
  3. Conditions that affect enzyme structure
  4. Presence or absence or regulatory molecules
130
Q

How does ATP store energy?

A

It stores energy in the covalent bonds in phosphates. Breaking the bonds releases energy.

131
Q

True or false:

ATP is a good option for long-term energy storage.

132
Q

List the four stages of aerobic respiration of glucose.

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Pyruvate oxidation
  3. Krebs cycle
  4. ETC & chemiosmosis
133
Q

Glycolysis occurs in the…

134
Q

Pyruvate oxidation occurs in the…

A

Mitochondrial matrix

135
Q

The Krebs cycle occurs in the…

A

Mitochondrial matrix

136
Q

The ETC and chemiosmosis occur in the…

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

137
Q

List the main steps of glycolysis.

(four)

A
  1. Glucose is converted into 2 G3P.
  2. Each G3P is converted into a 3-carbon molecule.
  3. Each 3-carbon molecule is oxidized
  4. An inorganic phosphate is added to each 3-carbon molecule.
138
Q

For each molecule of glucose, glycolysis produces…

A

4 ATP (net 2)
2 NADH
2 pyruvate

139
Q

List the main steps of pyruvate oxidation.

(two)

A
  1. CO2 is removed from pyruvate.
  2. The remaining 2-carbon acetyl group attaches to a cofacor.
140
Q

For each molecule of GLUCOSE, pyruvate oxidation produces…

A

2 CO2
2 NADH
2 acetyl-CoA

141
Q

List the major steps of the Krebs cycle.

(three)

A
  1. acetyl-CoA is combined with oxaloacetate to make citrate.
  2. Citrate is rearranged into 4-carbon succinate.
  3. Succinate is used to make more oxaloacetate.
142
Q

For each molecule of GLUCOSE, the Krebs cycle produces…

A

4 CO2
6 NADH
2 FADH2
2 ATP

143
Q

List the major steps of the electron transport chain.

(four)

A
  1. 3 transmembrane proteins harvest energy from electrons
  2. Energy from the electrons is used to make a proton gradient
  3. Electrons are given to O2 to form H2O
  4. The proton gradient produces ATP
144
Q

What happens to the electrons from NADH in the ETC?

(five)

A
  1. They are given to an electron carrier.
  2. They are given to the bc1 complex.
  3. They are given to cytochrome C
  4. They are given to the cytochrome oxidase complex
  5. They are given to molecular oxygen.
145
Q

For each molecule of glucose, the ETC produces…

A

28 ATP
6 H2O

146
Q

During ____, protons are moved down their concentration gradient to release energy.

A

Chemiosmosis

147
Q

____ uses the energy released by the proton gradient to make ATP.

A

ATP synthase

148
Q

The energy from ____ proton(s) is enough to make one molecule of ATP.

149
Q

What is the total ATP yield for each step of aerobic respiration?

A

Glycolysis - 2 directly, 5 from NADH
Pyruvate oxidation - 5 from NADH
Krebs cycle - 2 directly, 15 from NADH, 3 from FADH2

150
Q

For each glucose molecule, the cell produces…

A

32 ATP
(30 in eukaryotes)

151
Q

Photosynthesis and aerobic respiration are effectively…

A

“Reverse reactions”

152
Q

What is the equation for aerobic cellular respiration?

A

C6H12O6 + 6O2 = 6CO2 + 6H2O
(glucose + 6 oxygen = 6 carbon dioxide + 6 water)

153
Q

What is the equation for photosynthesis?

A

6CO2 + 6H2O + light = C6H12O6 + 6O2
(6 carbon dioxide + 6 water + light = glucose + 6 oxygen)

154
Q

____ are molecules that can absorb specific wavelengths of visible light.

155
Q

List the three main pigments found in photosynthetic cells.

A
  1. Chlorophyll a
  2. Chlorophyll b
  3. Carotenoids
156
Q

Which photosynthetic pigment(s) are capable of directly producing glucose from sunlight?

A

Chlorophyll a

157
Q

Which colors of light does chlorophyll a absorb?

A

Red and violet-blue

158
Q

Which colors of light does chlorophyll b absorb?

A

Blue and red-orange

159
Q

Which colors of light do carotenoids absorb?

A

Blue and blue-green

160
Q

Light-dependent reactions take place in the…

A

Thylakoids

161
Q

The ____ reactions use energy from sunlight to make oxygen and ATP.

A

Light-dependent

162
Q

The light-independent reactions take place in the…

163
Q

The ____ reactions use carbon fixation to make organic molecules from carbon dioxide.

A

Light-independent

164
Q

During photosynthesis, electrons are taken from ____ to make NADPH.

165
Q

List the six places an electron from water travels during photosynthesis.

A
  1. Photosystem 2
  2. Plastiquinone (PQ)
  3. b6f complex
  4. Photosystem 1
  5. Ferredoxin
  6. NADP+
166
Q

During photosynthesis, ATP is produced using…

A

A proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane

167
Q

During photosynthesis, ATP is made by ATP synthase in the…

A

Chloroplasts

168
Q

Each pair of electrons taken from water produces…

A

1 NADPH
~1 ATP

169
Q

The ____ is a biochemical pathway that enables carbon fixation.

A

Calvin cycle

170
Q

The Calvin cycle occurs in the….

171
Q

List the 3 phases of the Calvin cycle.

A
  1. Carbon fixation
  2. Reduction
  3. Regeneration of RuBP
172
Q

What happens during the carbon fixation phase of the Calvin cycle?

A

Carbon dioxide combines with RuBP to generate 2 molecules of PGA

173
Q

Carbon fixation is catalyzed by…

174
Q

What happens during the reduction phase of the Calvin cycle?

A

PGA is reduced to G3P. Some of the G3P then exits the cycle.

175
Q

What happens during the regeneration phase of the Calvin cycle?

A

G3P is used to make more RuBP

176
Q

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required to produce one G3P?

177
Q

How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required to produce one glucose?

178
Q

The 5’ end of one strand of DNA is linked to the ____ end of the other strand.

179
Q

DNA has a double helix shape because…

A

The bonds between the bases twist it into that structure

180
Q

In DNA, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with….

181
Q

Cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with…

182
Q

The sequence of the parent DNA strand determines…

A

The sequence of the daughter strand

183
Q

True or false:

Watson and Crick came up with their model of DNA without performing any experiments.

184
Q

A DNA molecule is comprised of two nucleotide chains that twist together into a…

A

Double helix

185
Q

The sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA is held together by….

A

Phosphodiester bonds

186
Q

There are ____ hydrogen bond(s) between adenine and thymine.

187
Q

There are ____ hydrogen bond(s) between cytosine and guanine.

188
Q

The two grooves in the sugar-phosphate backbone are called the…

A

Major and minor grooves

189
Q

The two strands of DNA are ____ to each other.

A

Antiparallel

190
Q

List the three main functions of DNA polymerase.

A
  1. Matches the template strand to complementary bases
  2. Adds new bases to the daughter strand
  3. Removes phosphates to grow the sugar-phosphate backbone
191
Q

DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA in the ____ direction.

A

5’ to 3’

192
Q

The new base added by DNA polymerase must ____ the base on the parent strand.

A

Complement

193
Q

The action of DNA polymerase in the 5’-3’ direction is called…

A

Writing or synthesizing

194
Q

The action of DNA polymerase in the 3’-5’ direction is called…

195
Q

DNA replication is….

A

Semi-discontinuous

196
Q

The ____ strand of DNA is made continuously from an initial RNA primer.

197
Q

The ____ strand of DNA is made discontinuously through multiple priming and synthesis events.

198
Q

List the four main steps involved in replicating the lagging strand.

A
  1. RNA primase makes a short RNA primer
  2. DNA polymerase 3 extends the primer into an Okazaki fragment
  3. DNA polymerase 1 replaces the RNA primer with DNA
  4. DNA ligase seals nicks in the sugar-phosphate backbone
199
Q

List the three main components required for DNA replication.

A
  1. Something to copy (template strand)
  2. Something to do the copying (DNA polymerase)
  3. Enough relevant building blocks (nucleoside triphosphates)
200
Q

List the three main phases of DNA replication.

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Elongation
  3. Termination
201
Q

The genome encodes….

A

Functional molecules

202
Q

List the five main types of RNA.

A
  1. Messenger (mRNA)
  2. Ribosomal (rRNA)
  3. Transfer (tRNA)
  4. Micro (miRNA)
  5. Small nuclear (snRNA)
203
Q

A ____ is a sequence of three nucleotides that usually specifies an amino acid.

204
Q

There are a total of ____ possible codons.

205
Q

____ codons specify an amino acid.

206
Q

____ codons do not specify an amino acid and are “stop codons”.

207
Q

AUG, which codes for methionine, is often referred to as the…

A

“Start codon”

208
Q

True or false:

The genetic code is redundant.

209
Q

True or false:

The genetic code is practically universal.

210
Q

____ is the process by which DNA is converted into RNA.

A

Transcription

211
Q

Transcription occurs in the…

212
Q

RNA polymerase is important in the process of….

A

Transcription

213
Q

Transcription ends once a ____ is encountered and transcribed.

A

Terminator sequence

214
Q

____ is the process by which mRNA is converted into a polypeptide sequence and ultimately a protein.

A

Translation

215
Q

Translation occurs in the…

216
Q

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are all important in the process of….

A

Translation

217
Q

Translation continues until a ____ is encountered.

A

Stop codon

218
Q

List the three main phases of translation.

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Elongation
  3. Termination
219
Q

What happens during the initiation phase of translation?

(four)

A
  1. The small subunit binds to determine translation start site
  2. Initiator tRNA binds to AUG at the P-site
  3. The large subunit binds
  4. The A-site and E-site are empty
220
Q

The elongation phase of translation begins when…

A

The A-site is occupied for the first time

221
Q

During the elongation phase of translation…

A

Amino acids are added to the polypeptide chain

222
Q

What happens during the elongation phase of translation?

(four)

A
  1. An amino acid enters the A-site
  2. A peptide bond forms between the amino acids at the A- and P-sites
  3. The A-site amino acid moves to the P-site, and the P-site amino acid moves to the E-site
  4. The tRNA at the E-site is released
223
Q

The termination phase of translation begins when…

A

A stop codon enters the A-site

224
Q

What happens during the termination phase of translation?

(four)

A
  1. A stop codon enters the A-site
  2. The stop codon is recognized by a release factor
  3. The release factor triggers the release of the completed polypeptide
  4. The ribosome shifts one “codon” and disassembles
225
Q

List the two main classes of DNA mutations.

A
  1. Point mutations
  2. Chromosome mutations
226
Q

List the two main types of point mutations.

A
  1. Base substitution
  2. Frameshift
227
Q

A base substitution occurs when…

A

One nucleotide base is changed

228
Q

List the three types of base substitutions.

A
  1. Silent mutation
  2. Missense mutation
  3. Nonsense mutation
229
Q

A ____ mutation occurs when the nucleotide change does not change the encoded amino acid.

230
Q

A ____ mutation occurs when the nucleotide change alters the encoded amino acid.

231
Q

A ____ mutation occurs when the nucleotide change results in a stop codon and thus a nonfunctional protein.

232
Q

A ____ mutation occurs when a nucleotide base is added or deleted, thus changing the downstream reading frame.

A

Frameshift

233
Q

List the four main types of chromosome mutations.

A
  1. Deletion
  2. Duplication
  3. Inversion
  4. Translocation
234
Q

____ occurs when part of a chromsome is lost.

235
Q

____ occurs when part of a chromosome is copied.

A

Duplication

236
Q

____ occurs when part of a chromosome is in reverse order.

237
Q

____ occurs when part of a chromosome moves onto another chromosome.

A

Translocation

238
Q

List the three main types of gene expression control.

A
  1. Transcriptional
  2. Post-transcriptional
  3. Post-translational
239
Q

____ regulation is the most common form of gene expression regulation.

A

Transcriptional

240
Q

Which type of gene expression control only occurs in eukaryotes?

A

Post-transcriptional

241
Q

____ is a form of transcriptional regulation that occurs when proteins promote or inhibit transcription.

A

Positive or negative control

242
Q

____ occurs when activator proteins recruit RNA polymerase to help transcription begin.

A

Positive control

243
Q

____ occurs when repressor proteins prevent a gene from being transcribed.

A

Negative control

244
Q

Regulatory proteins are also called…

A

Transcription factors

245
Q

____ are forms of transcriptional regulation that occur when molecules in the environment stimulate or inhibit transcription.

A

Induction and repression

246
Q

____ regulation occurs during mRNA processing, transport, and/or translation.

A

Post-transcriptional

247
Q

List four main types of post-transcriptional regulation.

A
  1. Alternative splicing
  2. Export inhibition
  3. Translation inhibition
  4. Regulation by small RNAs
248
Q

____ is the process by which a single primary transcript can code for multiple proteins depending on how the introns are cut out.

A

Alternative splicing

249
Q

____ is a form of post-transcriptional regulation where mRNAs are prevented from exiting the nucleus.

A

Export inhibition

250
Q

____ occurs when a cell uses proteins to prevent mRNA in the cytoplasm from being translated.

A

Translation inhibition

251
Q

What happens during post-transcriptional regulation by small RNAs?

(three)

A
  1. The small RNAs form a RISC complex with proteins
  2. The small RNAs bind to the target mRNA
  3. The proteins in RISC block translation or degrade the mRNA
252
Q

DNA is packaged into discrete molecules called…

A

Chromosomes

253
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes are….

254
Q

True or false:

Eukaryotic chromosomes are several molecules of DNA packaged together.

A

False

They are a single continuous molecule of DNA

255
Q

Eukaryotic chromosomes are made of a substance called…

256
Q

List and differentiate the two types of chromatin.

A
  1. Heterochromatin - tightly packaged and cannot be expressed
  2. Euchromatin - loosely package and is able to be expressed
257
Q

Explain the 3 levels of DNA packaging in eukaryotes.

A
  1. DNA condenses around histone proteins, which attach to each other to make a nucleosome fiber
  2. The fiber condenses into a solenoid
  3. Several solenoids condense into a mitotic chromosome
258
Q

List and define the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

A
  1. G1 - primary growth phase
  2. S - DNA replication
  3. G2 - more growth and preparation
  4. M - mitosis, nuclear and cytoplasmic division
259
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

The cell grows, replicates its DNA, and carries out its normal functions

260
Q

List the six phases of mitosis.

A
  1. Prophase
  2. Prometaphase
  3. Metaphase
  4. Anaphase
  5. Telophase
  6. Cytokinesis
261
Q

What happens during prophase?

A
  1. The mitotic spindle assembles
  2. The chromosomes condense
  3. The nuclear envelope disassembles
262
Q

What happens during prometaphase?

A
  1. The chromosomes are released into the cytoplasm
  2. The chromosomes attach to the mitotic spindle
  3. The chromsomes begin to move towards the spindle equator
263
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A
  1. The chromosomes align on the metaphase plate (spindle equator)
264
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A
  1. The sister chromatids separate
  2. The chromatids move towards opposite poles of the spindle
  3. Microtubules in the spindle shorten
265
Q

What happens during telophase?

A
  1. The chromosomes de-condense
  2. The nuclear envelope re-forms
266
Q

What happens during cytokinesis?

A

A cleavage furrow or cell plate forms, splitting the cytoplasm into two daughter cells.

267
Q

List the three major cell cycle checkpoints.

A
  1. G1/S
  2. G2/M
  3. Spindle
268
Q

What occurs at the G1/S checkpoint?

A

The cell decides whether to commit to S phase

Factors: cell size, presence of nutrients, presence of growth factors

269
Q

What occurs at the G2/M checkpoint?

A

The cell decides whether to commit to M phase

Factors: whether DNA replication is complete, extent of DNA damage

270
Q

What occurs at the spindle checkpoint?

A

The cell decides whether to commit to anaphase

Factors: whether the chromosomes are aligned on the metaphase plate

271
Q

Why is meiosis important in sexual reproduction?

A

Diploid germline cells undergo meiosis to produce genetically unique haploid gametes

272
Q

List three important events in meiosis.

A
  1. Synapsis
  2. Crossing over
  3. Reduction division
273
Q

Synapsis occurs during…

A

Early prophase 1

274
Q

During synapsis…

A

Homologous chromosomes become closely associated

275
Q

Crossing over begins after synapsis, and continues until…

A

Anaphase 1

276
Q

During crossing over events…

A

Genetic material is exchanged between non-sister chromatids, enabling genetic recombination

277
Q

Reduction division occurs during…

278
Q

Reduction division is the process by which…

A

A diploid parent cell produces haploid daughter cells

279
Q

What happens to the chromosomes during prophase 1?

(three)

A
  1. Homologues associate with each other
  2. Crossing over events occur
  3. Each homologue attaches to an opposite spindle pole
280
Q

What happens to the chromosomes during metaphase 1?

A

The homologues congress to the metaphase plate

281
Q

What happens to the chromosomes during anaphase 1?

(three)

A
  1. Crossing over events stop
  2. The homologues are separated
  3. The sister chromatids remain attached
282
Q

What happens to the chromosomes during meiosis 2?

A

The sister chromatids are separated

283
Q

What is observed during a monohybrid cross?

(parent, F1, F2, F3)

A

Parent - both are homozygous for a trait
F1 - 100% are heterozygous and express the dominant trait
F2 - 75% express the dominant trait and 25% express the recessive trait
F3 - 1:2:1 genotype ratio, 3:1 phenotype ratio

284
Q

What is observed during a dihybrid cross?

(parent, F1, F2)

A

Parent - both homozygous for 2 traits
F1: 100% heterozygous dominant for both traits
F2: 9:3:3:1 phenotype ratio

285
Q

Mendel’s Principle of Independent Assortment states that…

A

In a dihybrid cross, alleles assort independently.
(the segregation of allele pairs is independent)

286
Q

List the six non-Mendelian inheritance patterns.

A
  1. Multiple alleles
  2. Polygenic inheritance
  3. Pleiotropy
  4. Incomplete dominance
  5. Codominance
  6. Epistasis
287
Q

____ occurs when there are more than 2 alleles for a gene present in a population.

A

Multiple alleles

(ex: human ABO blood typing)

288
Q

____ occurs when a single trait is controlled by multiple genes, as well as environmental factors.

A

Polygenic inheritance

(ex: human height, obesity)

289
Q

____ occurs when a single gene impacts multiple traits, making the effects of a mutation difficult to predict.

A

Pleiotropy

(ex: cystic fibrosis)

290
Q

____ occurs when the heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate of the homozygous phenotypes.

A

Incomplete dominance

(ex: pink snapdragons)

291
Q

____ occurs when a heterozygote has aspects of both homozygous phenotypes.

A

Codominance

(ex: AB blood type)

292
Q

____ occurs when the products of genes interact, and/or the genes show some form of dependence at the level of function.

A

Epistasis

(ex: labrador retriever coat colors)

293
Q

True or false:

The way that sex is determined varies between species.

294
Q

True or false:

The structure, number, and naming of sex chromosomes is similar among most species.

295
Q

In humans, sex is determined by…

A

The presence or absence of the Y chromosome (specifically, the SRY gene it carries)

296
Q

Humans have ____ pair(s) of autosomes.

297
Q

Humans have ____ pair(s) of sex chromosomes.

298
Q

Traits caused by genes located on the X chromosome are called…

A

X-linked or sex-linked

299
Q

For sex-linked traits, the male phenotype is determined by…

A

The X chromosome he received from his mother

300
Q

True or false:

A man who expresses a sex-linked trait could pass the trait on to his sons.

301
Q

In order to express most sex-linked traits, females must….

A

Have two copies of the mutated gene

302
Q

True or false:

A man who is affected by a sex-linked trait and a woman who is a carrier for that trait could have affected daughters.

303
Q

Many human genetic disorders are the result of…

A

Mutations or nondisjunction

304
Q

____ occurs when chromosomes fail to align properly on the metaphase plate and thus do not segregate correctly.

A

Nondisjunction

305
Q

Nondisjunction leads to…

A

Aneuploidy

306
Q

True or false:

In humans, aneuploidy is almost always fatal before or shortly after birth.

307
Q

Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) is a result of….

A

Autosome nondisjunction

308
Q

True or false:

The consequences of nondisjunction in sex chromosomes is usually less severe than in autosomes.

309
Q

A common effect of sex chromosome nondisjunction is…

A

Mental disability and sterility

BIOL 1105 (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions