Final Exam Questions (all) Flashcards
What are the functions of the kidney?
final
Regulate blood volume and composition,
help regulate blood pressure,
synthesize glucose,
release erythropoietin,
participate in vitamin D synthesis,
excrete wastes in urine.
What are the components of the urinary system?
final exam
kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra
What is the meaning of rental hilum?
final
It is the entrance (a depression) in the kidney for:
Rental artery
Renal vein
Ureter
Nerves
Lymphatics
Which structures of the nephron in kidney reabsorbs the most substances?
final
Nephron Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PTC)
The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the ________; the attachment of the muscle’s other tendon to the movable bone is called the ________.
Mid-term
origin
insertion
The attachment at the immovable end is referred to as the origin and at the moveable end, the insertion.
Motion will occur at a lever system when
a) resistance at the insertion exceeds the load.
b) the force of the contraction is not more than the load.
c) effort at the origin exceeds the load.
d) effort at the insertion exceeds the load.
Mid-term
d) effort at the insertion exceeds the load.
What is the major hormone that regulates water loss?
Final exam
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Glucose that is not immediately needed is stored as
mid-term
glycogen
What % of urine is water?
final
95%
What is the percentage of resting cardiac output received by the kidneys?
final
20-25%
The process that stores glucose as glycogen is called
mid-term
glycogenesis
When ATP is needed for the body’s activities,
stored glycogen is broken down by a process called
mid-term
glycogenolysis
What are oxidation and reduction?
mid-term and final
Oxidation is the loss of electrons during a reaction by a molecule, atom or ion.
Reduction is the addition of an electron.
What factors affect metabolic rate / heat production?
- Exercise
- Hormones
- Nervous system
- Body temperature
- Ingestion of food
- Age
- Gender, climate, sleeping, malnutrition
Where in the. body are sperm produced?
final exam
seminiferous tubules of the testes (spermatogenesis)
What is the function of the epididymus?
The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that stores sperm and transports it from the testes
o Sperm mature in the epididymis and degenerated sperm are reabsorbed
o The epididymis propels sperm into the ductus (vas) deferens
What is the location and function of seminal vesicle?
final exam
The seminal vesicles are a pair of glands along the back of the bladder base in men : above prostate, behind the bladder, in front of rectum. Main function is to produce a fluid (alkaline, viscous fluid containing fructose, prostaglandins and clotting proteins) that makes up semen.
Provides sperm with a source of energy to help them move.
What are produced in and released from the ovaries?
final exam
Gametes (mature into ova) and hormones (progesterone, estrogen, inhibin, relaxin)
What waste product is normally excreted by the Kidneys?
final
Urine
What structure attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall?
final exam
The suspensory ligaments (borad ligament) ttach each ovary to the pelvic sidewall. The ovarian ligaments, which connect each ovary to the lateral side of the uterus, do not contain any blood vessels. These are also known as the utero-ovarian ligaments or the proper ovarian ligaments
Where is the site of fertilization?
final exam
fallopian tubes (uterine tubes)
What hormone promotes the final step of spermatogenesis?
final exam
Testosterone
What is a reduction reaction?
Oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously.
Reduction: gaining one or more electrons
What process describes the synthesis of triglycerides
final exam
Synthesis of triglycerides from glucose and fatty acids is called lipogenesis.
What factors affect the metabolic rate and the rate of heat production?
final exam
Exercise
Hormones
Nervous system
Body temperature
Ingestion of food
Age
Gender, climate, sleeping, malnutrition
What makes up the largest single component of the human body?
final exam
water
What is the main factor that determines water loss?
final exam
Urinary salt loss
What hormones are used to promote water reabsorption by the kidneys?
final exam
Aldosterone & ADH
What product is produced when electrons are accepted by oxygen during aerobic respiration?
final
water
What is the response of our body to decreasing blood pressure?
final exam
When blood pressure drops too low, the rate of baroreceptor firing decreases. This triggers an increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart, causing cardiac output to increase. Higher heart rate. It also triggers sympathetic stimulation of the peripheral vessels, resulting in vasoconstriction. Production of angiotensin II, Angiotensin II, antidiuretic hormone (ADH), epinephrine.†
What’s the major hormone that regulates water loss?
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Most abundant mineral in body?
final
Calcium
Your friend nods “yes” to you, going through flexion, extension and hyperextension.
This movement at the fulcrum represents a
first- class lever system
The muscle that serves as the “prime mover” during a movement is called the
agonist
The rhomboid major is named for what characteristics?
Size and shape
When the knee is being flexed, what is the fulcrum?
Knee joint
During knee flexion, what is the effort?
Contraction of hamstring muscle group
Which of these muscles flexes the thigh at the hip joint alone,
but extends the knee working in a group?
Rectus femoris
(Only quadricep muscle that crosses the hip)
Which muscle in this figure can abduct, medially and laterally rotate, and extend the arm at the glenohumeral joint?
c) F
The Deltoid
Which muscle in this image produces the effort when you plantar flex to see over a taller person in front of your view?
b) D
plantaris
Which describes the study of the functions of body structures?
Physiology
A group of cells that work together to perform a particular function is a
tissue
The two organ systems that predominantly regulate and maintain homeostasis are the
nervous and endocrine systems
Which body fluid fills the narrow spaces between cells and tissues?
Interstitial fluid
Which letters in this figure identify the serratus anterior? Select all that apply
C + G
Which muscles in this figure compress the abdomen? Select all that apply.
E & H
External Oblique
Transverse abdominus
Hormonal or electrical signals are sent from the control center to the
effectors
A component that detects decreasing oxygen concentrations in blood would be the
receptor
If blood concentrations of thyroid hormones increase above a certain level, Thyroid releasing hormone (TRH) neurons in the hypothalamus are inhibited and stop secreting TRH. This is an example of
negative feedback or positive feedback?
negative feedback
Which cavity contains the heart?
Pericardial cavity
The function of the secretions of the pleura is to
reduce friction between neighboring organs
) Cutting the body in half at the diaphragm, would create the thoracic cavity and the abdominopelvic cavity. What plane would create these halves?
Transverse
When holding your arms out to the side at shoulder level,
your fingers are ________ from your midline
a) medial
b) anterior
c) proximal
d) posterior
e) lateral
e) lateral
Which muscle in this figure elevates and adducts the scapula?
I - Rhomboid major
(rhomboid minor also does this)
Which muscles in this figure flex the forearm? Select all that apply.
A+C
brachioradialis
Where is the sartorius?
C
Which three muscles make up the hamstring?
L, M, N
Semimembranosus
Semitendinosus.
Biceps femoris.
Which muscles help move the jaw during mastication?
Masseter, temporalis, pterygoid (medial and lateral)
Which muscle is this?
Masseter
(Temporalis top)
Which muscles are these?
Pterygoid muscles
(lateral pterygoid at top and medial pterygoid below)
What are the four major elements found in the chemicals that comprise the human body?
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
What are the three main parts of a human body cell?
Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
The subcutaneous layer is also known as the
hypodermis
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium composes the
epidermis
Which pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light?
Melanin
What is the the muscle “G”?
Pectorialis major
What is the action of the muscle “G”?
a) Adducts and medially rotates arm at shoulder joint
b) Abducting arm at shoulder joint
c) Laterally rotates arm at shoulder joint
d) Laterally rotates and extends arm at shoulder joint
e) Extends forearm at elbow joint
Adducts and medially rotates arm at shoulder joint
Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone?
Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle
What is the action of the muscle labeled “I”?
Flexes the forearm at the elbow joint
Which of the following bones articulate with the scapula?
a) Thoracic vertebra
b) Humerus
c) Sacrum
d) Tibia
e) Sternum
Humerus
Which region of a long bone articulates with other bones?
Epiphysis
The shaft of a long bone is the
diaphysis
What is the insertion of the muscle labeled D?
Calcaneus by way of Achilles tendon
In the diagram, which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?
D
The ________ is composed of hyaline cartilage
and allows the diaphysis to grow in length
Epiphyseal plate
Which two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing?
Calcium and phosphorous
How many bones dones the axial skeleton have?
80
The appendicular skeleton has ______ bones
126
True or false?
Babies have more bones than adults
True
True or false?
The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles
False.
This is the thick edge of the scapula that is closer to the arm
Axillary border
(lateral border)
Which bone marking on the scapula is an
indentation into which the head of the humerus fits?
Glenoid cavity
Where is the coracoid process?
Small hook-like structure on the lateral edge of the
superior anterior portion of the scapula
The glenohumeral joint is formed by articulation of which bones?
humerus and scapula
The capitulum of the humerus articulates with the
radius
The hard sharp ridge of the shin that can easily be felt below the skin is the
anterior border (crest) of the tibia
The lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone?
Fibula
Which of following bones is NOT a tarsal bone?
a) Talus
b) Calcaneus
c) Navicular
d) Cuneiform
e) Capitate
Capitate (is a carpal)
Name the bones of the wrist (carpals)
(Mnemonic: So Long To Pinky, Here Comes The Thumb)
In the diagram, which of the labeled structures is the coracoid process?
A
In the diagram, which of the labeled structures is the supraspinous fossa?
C
(A fossa is a shallow depression in the bone surface).
In the diagram, which is the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?
B
These types of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and resist their separation during contractile activities.
a) Tight junctions and hemidesmosomes
b) Gap junctions and tight junctions
c) Adherens junctions and desmosomes
d) Desmosomes and gap junctions
e) Hemidesmosome and tight junctions
c) Adherens junctions and desmosomes
The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of
a) enzymes and membranous organelles.
b) plasma membranes and ground substance.
c) keratinized cells and protein fibers.
d) calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes.
e) protein fibers and ground substance.
e) protein fibers and ground substance.
Where is the styloid process of the radius?
E
In the diagram of the pelvis, which labeled structure terminates
anteriorly as the anterior superior iliac spine?
A
) In the diagram, where is the tibial tuberosity?
C
Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton?
a) Hyoid
b) Ribs
c) Vertebrae
d) Carpals
e) Sternum
D
Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
a) Tarsals
b) Tibia
c) Sphenoid
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle
C
What types of bone is the occipital bone?
flat bone
Which bone is the anterior bone
that articulates with the manubrium of the sternum
at the sternoclavicular joint?
Clavicle
Which bone is the navicular?
C
In the diagram of the foot, which labeled bone is the largest and strongest tarsal bone?
A
Calcaneus
In the diagram, the pectoral girdle consists of 2 bones labeled ________ and ________.
C and F
Which of the following bones is located in the posterior thorax between the levels of second and seventh vertebrae?
a) Sternum
b) Clavicle
c) Pelvis
d) Scapula
e) Sacrum
d) Scapula
Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity?
Humerus
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the human hand?
a) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
b) There are 8 carpals, 6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
c) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 15 phalanges
d) There are 8 carpals, 5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
e) There are 5 carpals, 8 metacarpals and 15 phalanges
D
In the diagram of the hand, which labeled bone is a metacarpal bone?
E
Which function do all three muscles perform?
a) Moving and storing material throughout the body
b) Generating heat through contractions
c) Stabilizing the movement of joints
d) Promoting movement of body structures
Moving and storing material throughout the body
Which property of muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage?
Extensibility
(NOT elasticity. Extensibility is the ability of a muscle to be stretched.
Elasticity is the ability to recoil or bounce back to the muscle’s original length)
Place the muscle tissue type in order from least to most ability to regenerate.
a) Smooth, skeletal, cardiac
b) Skeletal, cardiac, smooth
c) Cardiac, smooth, skeletal
d) Skeletal, smooth, cardiac
e) Cardiac, skeletal, smooth
b) Skeletal, cardiac, smooth
Most muscles cross at least one
Joint
Which are functions of the nervous system?
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
d) Contractility
e) Elasticity
a) Sensory function
b) Integrative function
c) Motor function
Which division of the peripheral nervous system
only innervates the gastrointestinal tract’s wall?
a) Somatic nervous system
b) Autonomic nervous system
c) Enteric nervous system
d) Parasympathetic nervous system
e) Sympathetic nervous system
C) Enteric nervous system
The motor portion of the autonomic nervous system can be divided into
a) somatic and sympathetic divisions
b) somatic and parasympathetic divisions.
c) enteric and somatic divisions
d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
e) voluntary and involuntary divisions.
d) sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
a) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
b) Regulates metabolism
c) Regulates glandular secretions
d) Produces electrolytes
e) Controls growth and development
d) Produces electrolytes
Which of the following is a function of the lymphoid system?
a) Drain excessive interstitial fluid
b) Transport dietary lipids
c) Carry out immune responses
d) All of these are functions of the lymphoid system
e) None of these are functions of the lymphoid system
d) All of these are functions of the lymphoid system
What is the major difference between lymph and interstitial fluid?
location
Which of the following is NOT considered an organ of the immune system?
a) Spleen
b) Lymph node
c) Red bone marrow
d) Thymus
e) Pancreas
e) Pancreas
The skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in the
a) lymphoid system only
b) cardiovascular system only
c) immune system only.
d) lymphoid and immune systems only
e) lymphoid, immune and cardiovascular systems
e) lymphoid, immune and cardiovascular systems
Lymphatic capillaries, because of their greater permeability than blood capillaries, can readily absorb which molecules that are NOT easily absorbed by blood capillaries?
a) Nucleic acids
b) Lipids
c) Interstitial fluid
d) Carbohydrates
b) Lipids
Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
a) Nasal cavities
b) Laryngopharynx
c) Oropharynx
d) Trachea
e) Nasal meatuses
d) Trachea
7) The GI tract is long tube, the named portions of the tube including__?
a) esophagus
b) stomach
c) small intestine
d) large intestine
e) rectum
f) all of them
f) all of them
Which of the following is a passageway for air, food and water?
a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Paranasal sinuses
d) Trachea
e) Esophagus
a) Pharyns
Where is the site of primary gas exchange?
Alveolus
Which of the following is a factor that affects pulmonary ventilation?
a) Lung compliance
b) Surface tension of the alveolar fluid
c) Elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs
d) Airway resistance
e) All of these are factors that affect pulmonary ventilation
Quiz 4
All of these are factors that affect pulmonary ventilation
Which of the following indicates the direction of diffusion of gases at the pulmonary alveoli of the lungs?
a) Oxygen into blood, Carbon dioxide into blood
b) Oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide into blood
c) Oxygen into blood, Carbon dioxide out of blood
d) Oxygen out of blood, Carbon dioxide out of blood
C
Osygen into blood - Cardnon dioxide out of blood
Exhalation begins when
a) inspiratory muscles relax
b) diaphragm contracts
c) blood circulation is the lowest
d) inspiratory muscles relax and diaphragm contracts.
e) all of these choices.
a) inspiratory muscles relax
Which of the following is the dominant method of carbon dioxide transport in blood?
a) Bound to hemoglobin
b) Bound to oxygen
c) Dissolved in plasma as a gas
d) Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions
e) Dissolved in the cytosol of the RBC
d) Dissolved in plasma as bicarbonate ions
Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
a) Ingestion
b) Secretion
c) Motility
d) Absorption
e) Reabsorption
c) Motility
What is the Glomerular filtration rate?
final
Amount of filtrate formed by both kidneys each minute
Which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine?
a) Ingestion
b) Secretion
c) Mixing and propulsion
d) Absorption
e) Reabsorption
d) Absorption
16) The capability of the GI tract to move material along its length is called (select 2)
a. motility.
b. propulsion.
c. digestion.
d. defecation.
a and b
motility and propulstion
Which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften solid food?
a) Teeth
b) Salivary glands
c) Liver
d) Gallbladder
e) Pharynx
b) Salivary glands
c) Liver
Which accessory organs produces a fluid that functions to emulsify dietary fats?
Liver
Which of the following accessory organs stores bile?
a) Teeth
b) Salivary glands
c) Liver
d) Gallbladder
e) Pharynx
Gallbladder
Why do emotions such as anger or fear slow digestion?
Because they stimulate the sympathetic nerves supplying the GI tract
Whst are the layers of the heart, superficial to deep?
Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium
What are the functions of the Tricuspid valve and the Bicuspid valve?
Tricuspid: Right side of the heart between atrium and ventricle,
keeps blood from flowing back to the atrium
Bicuspid (also called mitral) is between the left atrium and left ventrical. When oxygen rich blood flows into the left ventricle the mitral valve opens and allows it to flow into the left ventricle, and closes to make sure it doesn’t flow blackwards
Whaere is the Pulmonary semilunar valve and where is it?
The pulmonary valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk.
Where is the Aortic semilunar valve ?
Beween the left ventricle and the aorta
The largest autonomic plexus is called the
celiac plexus
Which of the following is NOT a function of a hormone?
a) Regulates chemical composition and volume of the internal environment
b) Regulates metabolism
c) Regulates glandular secretions
d) Produces electrolytes
e) Controls growth and development
D) hormones do not produce electrolytes
The autonomic nervous system is involved in controlling what effectors? Select all that apply.
a) Exocrine glands
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Cardiac muscle
d) Smooth muscle
e) Endocrine glands
A, C, D and E
(not skeletal muscles)
Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by (select all that apply):
- increasing activities in effector tissue.
- decreasing activities in effector tissue.
- allowing bidirectional conduction across synapses.
1 and 2
What are the two types of glands?
Endocrine and exocrine
(Exocrine glands secrete non-hormonal substances into a ductal system to an epithelial surface, and endocrine glands secrete products directly into the bloodstream.)
Differences between endocrine and exocrine glands include
- endocrine glands secrete hormones while exocrine glands secrete non-hormonal substances
- exocrine glands secrete their contents into ducts; endocrine glands have no ducts
With respect to neurons, the term nerve fiber refers to what structure?
a) An axon
b) A dendrite
c) A Nissl body
d) Microtubules
e) Neurofibrils
An axon and a dendrite
Which spinal meninges is composed of collagen fibers arranged in an irregular pattern that is very strong?
Arachnoid mater
What is the outermost and the strongest of the meninges?
Dura Mater
(The middle layer is the arachnoid mater, and the inner-most layer lays directly on the nervous tissue of the brain or spinal cord, and is called the pia mater.)
Spinal nerves
- are part of the PNS.
- connect the CNS to sensory receptors and effectors in all parts of the body.
- are named according to the region of the vertebral column from which they emerge.
- are mixed nerves.
- only transmit sensory information.
- only transmit motor information.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) 1, 3, 6 d) 1 and 3 e) 1, 2, 3, 6
midterm
B
Spinal nerves transmit both sensory and motor information
Sensory information travels to the brain via
ascending tracts
Interoceptors can detect what sensation? Select all that apply.
a) Blood gas levels
b) Stretch of organ walls
c) Grilled steak aroma
d) Taste of chocolate
e) Pain in visceral organs
A, B E.
Interoceptors mediate sensation from the viscera as well
as visceral pain and pressure or distention
What can detect C and D?
a) Blood gas levels
b) Stretch of organ walls
c) Grilled steak aroma
d) Taste of chocolate
e) Pain in visceral organs
An exteroreceptor
(monitors for stimuli outside of the body)
