Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Summer 2022 > Final exam > Flashcards

Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

Barium swallow

A

Reason: Dysphagia: difficulty breathing
Area of interest: Deglutition, epiglottis, esophagus, soft palate
Enter: From mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Esophogram

A

Reason: Stricture, difficulty swallowing, foreign body, pain
Area of interest: Epiglottis, esophagus, proximal stomach
Enter: from mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Upper gastro-intestinal study

A

Reason: Pain, reflux, heartburn
Interest: Esophagus, stomach and proximal small bowel
Enter from mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Small bowel series

A

Reason: pain, masses/tumors, nausea
Interest: small bowel - duodenum to ileocecal junction
Enter: Swallow from mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lower gastro-intestinal

A

Reason: Constipation, diarrhea, weight loss
Interest: Large colon
Enter: from mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Arthrorgram

A

Interest: any joint
reason: varied
Contrast injected into joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Urography

A

Interest: urinary system
Reason: varies
Contrast injected intravenously or via catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Angiography

A

Interest: arteries throughout body
reason: varies
Contrasted injected directyl into artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cholangiography

A

interest: bile ducts
reason: blockage, stones
Contrast injected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hysterosalpingogram

A

interest: uterus & fallopian tubes
reason: patency of fallopian tubes, abnormalities of uterus
Contrast introduced via catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gastrointestinal

A

reason: same as barium studies

Contrast may be oral or injected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Myelography

A

interest: subarachnoid space of vertebral column
reason: pain, abnormal gait
Contrast injected into subarachnoid space, L3-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cystogram (retrograde)

A

Demonstrates bladder only, contrast injected via catheter in urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cystourethrogram

A

Demonstrates bladder and urethra

Contrast through catheter in urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Retrograde pyelogram

A

Demonstrates bladder, ureters & renal pelvis

Injected from catheter into urethrra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CT

A

Contrast injected intravenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Iodine vs barium

A

Iodine: can be injected into arteries
Barium: can only be used for gastrointestinal, swallow, cannot be injected, if risk of perforations use iodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cultural competence

A

The ability of providers and organizations to effectively deliver health care services that meet the social, cultural, and linguistic needs of patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is cultural competence important in healthcare field?

A

Being culturally competent can help improve health outcomes and quality of care. It can also contribute to the elimination of racial and ethnic health disparities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How can we improve our cultural competence?

A

Understand and check your own biases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does with a drug, how it is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted/eliminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Drug abosrption

A

Crossing cell membrane, usually intravenous or intra-arterial injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Drug metabolism

A

Drug has reached the intended destination and runs its course it is converted to a metabolite & purged from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the 3 routes for drug elimination/excretion from the body? What adverse effects might each route have?

A

Kidneys: Eliminate it via urine
Liver: eliminated in feces
Respiratory system: eliminated here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Therapeutic effect

A

The desired effect of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Side effect

A

Predictable effect of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Adverse effect

A

Any unwanted effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Six right of drug administration

A 
Right patient
right medicaition
right dose
right time
right route
right documentation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Six routes of drug administration

A

oral: tablets, capsules
inhalation: liquid medications are vaporized and inhaled via inhaler
sublingual: Under the tongue
topical: drugs absorbed through skin
rectal/vaginal: absorbed by mucous membrane into bloodstream
parenteral: any route other than GI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Six parenteral routes

A 
intradermal
subcutaneous
intramuscular
intrathecal
intravenous
intra-arterial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common route for drug administation

A

Oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fastest route of drug administration

A

Parenteral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Bolus injection

A

High dose injection, delivered quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Ampule

A

Sealed glass container with a single dose, one time use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

PPE

A

Personal protective equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

4 types of isolation

A

Contact: wear gloves and gown, MRSA, C-diff
Droplet: wear surgical mask, Influenza, mumps
Airborne: Respirator mask, TB, chicken pox
Reverse: Mask, gloves, gown, Organ transplants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Surgical asepsis

A

Creating & maintaining area completely free of pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

PPE required for surgical area

A

Clean scrubs, shoe covers, cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Is the technologist considered a sterile tea member in surgery?

A

No they are not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sterile corridor

A

Area of surgical facility designated primarily for surgical cases and staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

5 methods of sterilization

A

Chemical: immerison and soaking instruments (least successful)
Autoclaving: Steam under pressure (most utilized)
Conventional gas: For items that cant withstand high temps
Dry heat: vacuum chamber with infrared heating element
Gas plasma: used in place of conventional gas, for items that can’t stand high temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Indications item is sterile

A

Seal isnt broken, packaging isnt damaged, package isnt wet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sterile tray setup

A

Place on clean surface, check expiration, break seal and open, unfold away from you first, unfold side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Sterile field in surgery

A

Pass back to back, everything in front and above waist, never reach across sterile field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Exams using sterile technique

A

Myelogram, arthrogram, hysterosalpingogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Normal flow rate for IV drip

A

15-20 drops/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

IV bag

A

18”-20” above level of vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Asepsis

A

Free from infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Non aseptic

A

Not free of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are microorganisms?

A

organisms too small to be seen without microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Pathogens

A

Microorganisms capable of causing disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Types of pathogens

A

Protozoa: amoeba-like, unicellular, live together in colonies
Virus: simplest life form, cannot live outside cell
Bacteria: Rapid cell divison, endospore
fungi: Ring worm, yeast infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Conditions for infection

A

Quantity & strength, reservoir, Exit door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Chain of infection

A

Pathogenic microorganism, resevoir, means of escape, mode of transmission, means of entry, host susceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

4 routes of transmission

A

Direct contact: Hands
Fomite: object
Vector: anima/insect
Airborne: indirect, cough

57
Q

Nosocomial infections

A

Infections acquired while receiving healthcare services

Ex: MRSA

58
Q

Iatrogenic infection

A

an infection after medical or surgical management,

Ex: Healthcare worker didnt wash their hands

59
Q

Medical asepsis

A

State of being free from disease causing infections

60
Q

Number 1 way to reduce infections

A

Wash hands

61
Q

Trauma levels

A

Level 1: Care for all levels of injuries, staffed around clock
Level 2: Emergency department doctor, nurses, xray staff 24 hours
Level 3: Community hospital, doctor or tech on call at night

62
Q

Golden hour

A

patient outcome is much better if treated within first hour

63
Q

Emergency codes

A 
Red= fire
blue= cardiac arrest
orange= hazardous material
gray= combative
silver= armed
pink= infant/child abduction
black= severe weather
triage= mass casualty
rapid response team= be ready for deteriorating condition
code clear= situaiton is resolved
64
Q

Crash cart

A

Carries all necessary equipment/drug needs

Stocked, mediactions are not expired, check equipment for operation and charged

65
Q

Shock

A

Life threatening conditon that occurs when body is not getting enough blood

66
Q

Symptoms of shock

A

Skin is pale, cool to touch, short of breath, distant stare off into space

67
Q

What is universal precautions?

A

Body fluid and body substance isolatoin

68
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Low oxygen levels

69
Q

Hypoxia

A

Low oxygen supply to the cellular tissue

70
Q

What are the radiographers responsibilities for oxygen?

A

Maintain oxygen flow to patient
Place on wall unit
Ensure enough oxygen in tank for transport

71
Q

What is a flow meter?

A

Measures amount of O2 in patient

72
Q

Pressure manometer

A

Volume of O2 in tank

73
Q

What are the 4 types of delivery for low-flow or variable oxygen concentration?

A 
Nasal Cannula
0.25 – 8 L/min
Simple Mask
5 – 10 L/min
Nonrebreather Mask
No less than 10 L/min
Reservoir bag
74
Q

What is a ventilator

A

Artificial airway inserted into trachea

75
Q

What are the various methods of delivery for high concentrations of oxygen?

A 
Tents and Hoods
10 – 20 L/min
Ventilators
Never silence alarms
Respiratory therapists
76
Q

What is a nebulizer?

A

Administer medication in the form of a mist inhaled into the lungs

Commonly used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis, asthma, COPD and other respiratory diseases or disorders

77
Q

How is O2 flow measured?

A

L/min

78
Q

Suction

A

Used for patients that can’t clear secretions, blood, or vomit out of mouth/throat on their own

79
Q

When can a radiographer safely perform suction on a patient?

A

Never, outside scope of practice

80
Q

What does ROCM stand for?

A

Radio opaque contrast media

81
Q

Why is ROCM used?

A

It enhances subjects contrast allowing improved visualization of areas with similar densities

82
Q

Types of ROCM?

A

Negative: air
Positive: water soluble iodine and barium sulfate

83
Q

Difference between negative and positive contrast

A

Negative: shows up as black or darker color in image, use for lungs
Positive: shows up white in image, use to find defects on organ wall

84
Q

Atomic number for barium

A

56

85
Q

Atomic number for iodine

A

53

86
Q

How does atomic number affect-ray photon absorption?

A

Higher atomic number, the more dense the object is and harder to penetrate

87
Q

Which ROCM is water soluble, barium or iodinated?

A

Iodinated

88
Q

Give examples of exams performed using iodinated contrast media.

A

Arthrogram, myelogram, urogram, angiogram

89
Q

Give contraindications for using iodinated contrast media

A

Severe anaphylaxis, renal dysfunction

90
Q

What is the difference between ionic and non-ionic iodinated contrast media?

A

Ionic:
Breaks down in blood stream  anion & cation
Higher osmolality – more particles/kg of water
More adverse reactions
Allergic reactions
Damage to kidneys
Dehydration

Non-ionic:
Does not break down in blood stream
Lower osmolality
Fewer adverse reactions
Much more expensive
91
Q

Give examples of exams performed using barium contrast media

A

Small bowel, barium swallow, upper GI, lower GI, esophogram

92
Q

Give contraindications for using barium contrast media

A

Obstruction/Constipation

Perforation  Barium peritonitis

93
Q

When injecting contrast or medication intravenously what is extravasation? What is infiltration?

A

Extravasation: injection that contains fluid that irritates the tissue
Infiltration: injection that contains fluid that does not irritate the tissue

94
Q

Describe mild, moderate, and severe reactions to ROCM. Define what action should be taken for each.

A

Mild:
Warmth
Flushing
Metallic taste

Moderate:
Hives/Rash
Nausea/vomiting
Shortness of breath
Wheezing
Facial swelling
Throat tightness without shortness of breath
Severe:
Low blood pressure
Rapid heart rate
Wheezing with shortness of breath
Swelling in throat/airway with difficulty breathing

Notify RN or Radiologist

95
Q

What is creatinine? What range would be considered normal and safe to inject ROCM?

A

waste product that comes from the normal wear and tear on muscles, excreted through urine
Normal range: anything under 1.2 mg/100mL

96
Q

What is GFR? What range would be considered normal and safe to inject ROCM?

A

Glomeral Filtration Rate
Creatinine + age + gender + ethnicity
Normal range: anything above 60 mL/min

97
Q

What is an intrathecal injection? Where would this be made? (Be specific)

A

Injection into the spinal canal or subarachnoid space

98
Q

Which pole of the kidney lies more medial and posteriorly?

A

The upper pole

99
Q

Renal pelvis

A

Upper wide portion

Lies within the hilum

100
Q

Renal medulla

A

Composed of collecting tubules

101
Q

Renal cortex

A

Inner layer of kidney

102
Q

Major calyces

A

3 large tubes that form the renal pelvis

103
Q

Minor calyces

A

Branches that form the major calyces

104
Q

Renal pyramids

A

Consist of 8-15 segments from renal medulla

105
Q

Nephrons

A

Functional unit of the kidneys

106
Q

Renal columns

A

Extensions of the cortex

107
Q

Glomerulus/bowman’s capsule

A

Filters waste out of blood

108
Q

Proximal convoluted tubule

A

Drains glomerulus capsule

Where most of the reabsorption of nutrients occurs

109
Q

Loop of Henle

A

More reabsorption of water & sodium ions

Controls concentration of urine

110
Q

Distal convoluted tubule

A

Regulates pH, potassium, sodium

Dilution of urine

111
Q

Medical term for urine?

A

Micturition

112
Q

What does IVU stand for?

A

Intravenous urogram

113
Q

What does IVP stand for?

A

Intravenous pyelogram

114
Q

What is the purpose of an IVU/IVP?

A

Function & Structure

Ability to filter contrast from blood  urine

115
Q

What are indications for a physician to order an IVU?

A 
Tumors or cysts
Kidney stones
Pyelonephritis
Hydronephrosis
Trauma
Renal hypertension
116
Q

What are contraindications for performing an IVU?

A

Renal dysfunction

History of allergic reaction

117
Q

Supine KUB

A 
IR: 14"x17"
CR: MSP perpendicular, level of iliac crest
Positioning: 
Arms/hands out of collimated field
No rotation
Support under knees
Eval:
Spinous process center of vertebrae
Vertebral column centered
Symmetrical iliac wings
Symmetrical obturator foreman
118
Q

Right + left posterior oblique

A 
IR: 14"x17" LW
CR: 2" later of MSP, at elevated side of crest
Angle: 30 degrees
Position:
Pt rotated 30° from plane of IR (table)
Shoulders & hips in same oblique plane
Arms/hands out of collimated field
Eval:
Elevated kidney parallel to IR & w/o vertebral SI
Ureter on side down w/o vertebral SI
RPO:  left kidney parallel &w/o SI
               right ureter w/o SI
LPO:  right kidney parallel &w/o SI
              left ureter w/o SI
Mark Side closest to IR
119
Q

Supine tomograph

A

IR: 10”x12” CW, (14”x17” CW more commonly used, collimate)
CR: MSP @ the level of the kidneys (bottom of IR at crest)
Position: Supine, arms to side
Explain procedure and equipment
Measure with calipers:
divide by 3 = center cut
Eval:
Entire kidney demonstrated
Correct level in body to demonstrate all structures of kidney filled with contrast

120
Q

Supine bladder

A 
IR: 8"x10" CW or 10"x12" CW
CR: MSP & 2” above the upper border of pubic symphysis or MSP & 2’’ below the ASIS
Position: Patient lays supine on table
Legs extended
Arms at side or across chest
No rotation in the hips
Eval:
No rotation – obturator foramen equal size & shape
121
Q

Supine bladder with angle

A

Everyhting is the same except tube angled at 10-15 degrees caudal

122
Q

Cystourethrogram RPO and LPO

A

IR: 10”x12” CW
CR: 2” above upper border of pubic symphysis & 2” medial of elevated ASIS
Position:
From supine, rotate patient 40-60° to the right or left
Abduct upper thigh to eliminate superimposition
Eval:
Pubic bones below bladder
Without superimposition of elevated thigh
Mark side of body down

123
Q

Name the parts of the scotty dog and what anatomy makes up each part.

A 
Ear: Superior articular process
Eye: pedicle
Nose: transverse process
Neck: Pars interarticularis
Leg: inferior articular process
Body: lamina
124
Q

When doing an IVU/IVP, which kidney is parallel to the IR when the patient is in the RPO position? Which kidney is perpendicular?

A

Left kidney is parallel, right is perpendicular

125
Q

Consequentialism

A

The ends justify the means

126
Q

Nonconsequentialism

A

Absolutes

127
Q

Social contract

A

Based on relationship built between 2 parties

128
Q

Ethics of care

A

Each action is not an isolated event

129
Q

Right based ethics

A

Based on understanding of human rights

130
Q

Principle based ethics

A

Used moral principles to decide whats right

131
Q

Virtue based ethics

A

Based on the moral character of person

132
Q

Patient bill of rights

A

Care that every patient can expect to receive
Privcacy
Confidentiality
Informed consent

133
Q

Torts

A

Intentional: false imprisonment
Unintentional: negligence

134
Q

List what info all medical records must contain.

A 
Patient’s identification data
Medical history
Physical exam findings
Diagnostic & Therapeutic orders
Clinical observations
Reports from diagnostic & therapeutic procedures
Informed consent documentation
Conclusions before release
135
Q

Urine flow

A

Glomerulus capsule, renal tubule, collecting ducts, kidney to ureter, ureter, urinary bladder to urethra, urine exits

136
Q

Why is osmosis important when using contrast media?

A

It can aid in reducing obstructions because the increase in fluid increases peristalsis (involuntary constriction and contraction of muscles)

137
Q

Prospective payment

A

System for Medicare patients where a predetermined reimbursement is established before services are provided

138
Q

Digital related group

A

Categorizes into payment groups

Summer 2022 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions