Final exam Flashcards
1
Q
Barium swallow
A
Reason: Dysphagia: difficulty breathing
Area of interest: Deglutition, epiglottis, esophagus, soft palate
Enter: From mouth
2
Q
Esophogram
A
Reason: Stricture, difficulty swallowing, foreign body, pain
Area of interest: Epiglottis, esophagus, proximal stomach
Enter: from mouth
3
Q
Upper gastro-intestinal study
A
Reason: Pain, reflux, heartburn
Interest: Esophagus, stomach and proximal small bowel
Enter from mouth
4
Q
Small bowel series
A
Reason: pain, masses/tumors, nausea
Interest: small bowel - duodenum to ileocecal junction
Enter: Swallow from mouth
5
Q
Lower gastro-intestinal
A
Reason: Constipation, diarrhea, weight loss
Interest: Large colon
Enter: from mouth
6
Q
Arthrorgram
A
Interest: any joint
reason: varied
Contrast injected into joint
7
Q
Urography
A
Interest: urinary system
Reason: varies
Contrast injected intravenously or via catheter
8
Q
Angiography
A
Interest: arteries throughout body
reason: varies
Contrasted injected directyl into artery
9
Q
Cholangiography
A
interest: bile ducts
reason: blockage, stones
Contrast injected
10
Q
Hysterosalpingogram
A
interest: uterus & fallopian tubes
reason: patency of fallopian tubes, abnormalities of uterus
Contrast introduced via catheter
11
Q
Gastrointestinal
A
reason: same as barium studies
Contrast may be oral or injected
12
Q
Myelography
A
interest: subarachnoid space of vertebral column
reason: pain, abnormal gait
Contrast injected into subarachnoid space, L3-L4
13
Q
Cystogram (retrograde)
A
Demonstrates bladder only, contrast injected via catheter in urethra
14
Q
Cystourethrogram
A
Demonstrates bladder and urethra
Contrast through catheter in urethra
15
Q
Retrograde pyelogram
A
Demonstrates bladder, ureters & renal pelvis
Injected from catheter into urethrra
16
Q
CT
A
Contrast injected intravenously
17
Q
Iodine vs barium
A
Iodine: can be injected into arteries
Barium: can only be used for gastrointestinal, swallow, cannot be injected, if risk of perforations use iodine
18
Q
Cultural competence
A
The ability of providers and organizations to effectively deliver health care services that meet the social, cultural, and linguistic needs of patients.
19
Q
Why is cultural competence important in healthcare field?
A
Being culturally competent can help improve health outcomes and quality of care. It can also contribute to the elimination of racial and ethnic health disparities
20
Q
How can we improve our cultural competence?
A
Understand and check your own biases.
21
Q
Pharmacokinetics
A
What the body does with a drug, how it is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted/eliminated
22
Q
Drug abosrption
A
Crossing cell membrane, usually intravenous or intra-arterial injection
23
Q
Drug metabolism
A
Drug has reached the intended destination and runs its course it is converted to a metabolite & purged from the body
24
Q
What are the 3 routes for drug elimination/excretion from the body? What adverse effects might each route have?
A
Kidneys: Eliminate it via urine
Liver: eliminated in feces
Respiratory system: eliminated here
25
Pharmacodynamics
What the drug does to the body
26
Therapeutic effect
The desired effect of the drug
27
Side effect
Predictable effect of drug
28
Adverse effect
Any unwanted effect
29
Six right of drug administration
```
Right patient
right medicaition
right dose
right time
right route
right documentation
```
30
Six routes of drug administration
oral: tablets, capsules
inhalation: liquid medications are vaporized and inhaled via inhaler
sublingual: Under the tongue
topical: drugs absorbed through skin
rectal/vaginal: absorbed by mucous membrane into bloodstream
parenteral: any route other than GI
31
Six parenteral routes
```
intradermal
subcutaneous
intramuscular
intrathecal
intravenous
intra-arterial
```
32
Most common route for drug administation
Oral
33
Fastest route of drug administration
Parenteral
34
Bolus injection
High dose injection, delivered quickly
35
Ampule
Sealed glass container with a single dose, one time use
36
PPE
Personal protective equipment
37
4 types of isolation
Contact: wear gloves and gown, MRSA, C-diff
Droplet: wear surgical mask, Influenza, mumps
Airborne: Respirator mask, TB, chicken pox
Reverse: Mask, gloves, gown, Organ transplants
38
Surgical asepsis
Creating & maintaining area completely free of pathogens
39
PPE required for surgical area
Clean scrubs, shoe covers, cap
40
Is the technologist considered a sterile tea member in surgery?
No they are not
41
Sterile corridor
Area of surgical facility designated primarily for surgical cases and staff
42
5 methods of sterilization
Chemical: immerison and soaking instruments (least successful)
Autoclaving: Steam under pressure (most utilized)
Conventional gas: For items that cant withstand high temps
Dry heat: vacuum chamber with infrared heating element
Gas plasma: used in place of conventional gas, for items that can’t stand high temps
43
Indications item is sterile
Seal isnt broken, packaging isnt damaged, package isnt wet
44
Sterile tray setup
Place on clean surface, check expiration, break seal and open, unfold away from you first, unfold side
45
Sterile field in surgery
Pass back to back, everything in front and above waist, never reach across sterile field
46
Exams using sterile technique
Myelogram, arthrogram, hysterosalpingogram
47
Normal flow rate for IV drip
15-20 drops/min
48
IV bag
18"-20" above level of vein
49
Asepsis
Free from infection
50
Non aseptic
Not free of infection
51
What are microorganisms?
organisms too small to be seen without microscope
52
Pathogens
Microorganisms capable of causing disease
53
Types of pathogens
Protozoa: amoeba-like, unicellular, live together in colonies
Virus: simplest life form, cannot live outside cell
Bacteria: Rapid cell divison, endospore
fungi: Ring worm, yeast infections
54
Conditions for infection
Quantity & strength, reservoir, Exit door
55
Chain of infection
Pathogenic microorganism, resevoir, means of escape, mode of transmission, means of entry, host susceptibility
56
4 routes of transmission
Direct contact: Hands
Fomite: object
Vector: anima/insect
Airborne: indirect, cough
57
Nosocomial infections
Infections acquired while receiving healthcare services
| Ex: MRSA
58
Iatrogenic infection
an infection after medical or surgical management,
| Ex: Healthcare worker didnt wash their hands
59
Medical asepsis
State of being free from disease causing infections
60
Number 1 way to reduce infections
Wash hands
61
Trauma levels
Level 1: Care for all levels of injuries, staffed around clock
Level 2: Emergency department doctor, nurses, xray staff 24 hours
Level 3: Community hospital, doctor or tech on call at night
62
Golden hour
patient outcome is much better if treated within first hour
63
Emergency codes
```
Red= fire
blue= cardiac arrest
orange= hazardous material
gray= combative
silver= armed
pink= infant/child abduction
black= severe weather
triage= mass casualty
rapid response team= be ready for deteriorating condition
code clear= situaiton is resolved
```
64
Crash cart
Carries all necessary equipment/drug needs
| Stocked, mediactions are not expired, check equipment for operation and charged
65
Shock
Life threatening conditon that occurs when body is not getting enough blood
66
Symptoms of shock
Skin is pale, cool to touch, short of breath, distant stare off into space
67
What is universal precautions?
Body fluid and body substance isolatoin
68
Hypoxemia
Low oxygen levels
69
Hypoxia
Low oxygen supply to the cellular tissue
70
What are the radiographers responsibilities for oxygen?
Maintain oxygen flow to patient
Place on wall unit
Ensure enough oxygen in tank for transport
71
What is a flow meter?
Measures amount of O2 in patient
72
Pressure manometer
Volume of O2 in tank
73
What are the 4 types of delivery for low-flow or variable oxygen concentration?
```
Nasal Cannula
0.25 – 8 L/min
Simple Mask
5 – 10 L/min
Nonrebreather Mask
No less than 10 L/min
Reservoir bag
```
74
What is a ventilator
Artificial airway inserted into trachea
75
What are the various methods of delivery for high concentrations of oxygen?
```
Tents and Hoods
10 – 20 L/min
Ventilators
Never silence alarms
Respiratory therapists
```
76
What is a nebulizer?
Administer medication in the form of a mist inhaled into the lungs
Commonly used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis, asthma, COPD and other respiratory diseases or disorders
77
How is O2 flow measured?
L/min
78
Suction
Used for patients that can’t clear secretions, blood, or vomit out of mouth/throat on their own
79
When can a radiographer safely perform suction on a patient?
Never, outside scope of practice
80
What does ROCM stand for?
Radio opaque contrast media
81
Why is ROCM used?
It enhances subjects contrast allowing improved visualization of areas with similar densities
82
Types of ROCM?
Negative: air
Positive: water soluble iodine and barium sulfate
83
Difference between negative and positive contrast
Negative: shows up as black or darker color in image, use for lungs
Positive: shows up white in image, use to find defects on organ wall
84
Atomic number for barium
56
85
Atomic number for iodine
53
86
How does atomic number affect-ray photon absorption?
Higher atomic number, the more dense the object is and harder to penetrate
87
Which ROCM is water soluble, barium or iodinated?
Iodinated
88
Give examples of exams performed using iodinated contrast media.
Arthrogram, myelogram, urogram, angiogram
89
Give contraindications for using iodinated contrast media
Severe anaphylaxis, renal dysfunction
90
What is the difference between ionic and non-ionic iodinated contrast media?
Ionic:
Breaks down in blood stream anion & cation
Higher osmolality – more particles/kg of water
More adverse reactions
Allergic reactions
Damage to kidneys
Dehydration
```
Non-ionic:
Does not break down in blood stream
Lower osmolality
Fewer adverse reactions
Much more expensive
```
91
Give examples of exams performed using barium contrast media
Small bowel, barium swallow, upper GI, lower GI, esophogram
92
Give contraindications for using barium contrast media
Obstruction/Constipation
| Perforation Barium peritonitis
93
When injecting contrast or medication intravenously what is extravasation? What is infiltration?
Extravasation: injection that contains fluid that irritates the tissue
Infiltration: injection that contains fluid that does not irritate the tissue
94
Describe mild, moderate, and severe reactions to ROCM. Define what action should be taken for each.
Mild:
Warmth
Flushing
Metallic taste
```
Moderate:
Hives/Rash
Nausea/vomiting
Shortness of breath
Wheezing
Facial swelling
Throat tightness without shortness of breath
```
```
Severe:
Low blood pressure
Rapid heart rate
Wheezing with shortness of breath
Swelling in throat/airway with difficulty breathing
```
Notify RN or Radiologist
95
What is creatinine? What range would be considered normal and safe to inject ROCM?
waste product that comes from the normal wear and tear on muscles, excreted through urine
Normal range: anything under 1.2 mg/100mL
96
What is GFR? What range would be considered normal and safe to inject ROCM?
Glomeral Filtration Rate
Creatinine + age + gender + ethnicity
Normal range: anything above 60 mL/min
97
What is an intrathecal injection? Where would this be made? (Be specific)
Injection into the spinal canal or subarachnoid space
98
Which pole of the kidney lies more medial and posteriorly?
The upper pole
99
Renal pelvis
Upper wide portion
| Lies within the hilum
100
Renal medulla
Composed of collecting tubules
101
Renal cortex
Inner layer of kidney
102
Major calyces
3 large tubes that form the renal pelvis
103
Minor calyces
Branches that form the major calyces
104
Renal pyramids
Consist of 8-15 segments from renal medulla
105
Nephrons
Functional unit of the kidneys
106
Renal columns
Extensions of the cortex
107
Glomerulus/bowman's capsule
Filters waste out of blood
108
Proximal convoluted tubule
Drains glomerulus capsule
| Where most of the reabsorption of nutrients occurs
109
Loop of Henle
More reabsorption of water & sodium ions
| Controls concentration of urine
110
Distal convoluted tubule
Regulates pH, potassium, sodium
| Dilution of urine
111
Medical term for urine?
Micturition
112
What does IVU stand for?
Intravenous urogram
113
What does IVP stand for?
Intravenous pyelogram
114
What is the purpose of an IVU/IVP?
Function & Structure
| Ability to filter contrast from blood urine
115
What are indications for a physician to order an IVU?
```
Tumors or cysts
Kidney stones
Pyelonephritis
Hydronephrosis
Trauma
Renal hypertension
```
116
What are contraindications for performing an IVU?
Renal dysfunction
| History of allergic reaction
117
Supine KUB
```
IR: 14"x17"
CR: MSP perpendicular, level of iliac crest
Positioning:
Arms/hands out of collimated field
No rotation
Support under knees
Eval:
Spinous process center of vertebrae
Vertebral column centered
Symmetrical iliac wings
Symmetrical obturator foreman
```
118
Right + left posterior oblique
```
IR: 14"x17" LW
CR: 2" later of MSP, at elevated side of crest
Angle: 30 degrees
Position:
Pt rotated 30° from plane of IR (table)
Shoulders & hips in same oblique plane
Arms/hands out of collimated field
Eval:
Elevated kidney parallel to IR & w/o vertebral SI
Ureter on side down w/o vertebral SI
RPO: left kidney parallel &w/o SI
right ureter w/o SI
LPO: right kidney parallel &w/o SI
left ureter w/o SI
Mark Side closest to IR
```
119
Supine tomograph
IR: 10"x12" CW, (14"x17" CW more commonly used, collimate)
CR: MSP @ the level of the kidneys (bottom of IR at crest)
Position: Supine, arms to side
Explain procedure and equipment
Measure with calipers:
divide by 3 = center cut
Eval:
Entire kidney demonstrated
Correct level in body to demonstrate all structures of kidney filled with contrast
120
Supine bladder
```
IR: 8"x10" CW or 10"x12" CW
CR: MSP & 2” above the upper border of pubic symphysis or MSP & 2’’ below the ASIS
Position: Patient lays supine on table
Legs extended
Arms at side or across chest
No rotation in the hips
Eval:
No rotation – obturator foramen equal size & shape
```
121
Supine bladder with angle
Everyhting is the same except tube angled at 10-15 degrees caudal
122
Cystourethrogram RPO and LPO
IR: 10"x12" CW
CR: 2” above upper border of pubic symphysis & 2” medial of elevated ASIS
Position:
From supine, rotate patient 40-60° to the right or left
Abduct upper thigh to eliminate superimposition
Eval:
Pubic bones below bladder
Without superimposition of elevated thigh
Mark side of body down
123
Name the parts of the scotty dog and what anatomy makes up each part.
```
Ear: Superior articular process
Eye: pedicle
Nose: transverse process
Neck: Pars interarticularis
Leg: inferior articular process
Body: lamina
```
124
When doing an IVU/IVP, which kidney is parallel to the IR when the patient is in the RPO position? Which kidney is perpendicular?
Left kidney is parallel, right is perpendicular
125
Consequentialism
The ends justify the means
126
Nonconsequentialism
Absolutes
127
Social contract
Based on relationship built between 2 parties
128
Ethics of care
Each action is not an isolated event
129
Right based ethics
Based on understanding of human rights
130
Principle based ethics
Used moral principles to decide whats right
131
Virtue based ethics
Based on the moral character of person
132
Patient bill of rights
Care that every patient can expect to receive
Privcacy
Confidentiality
Informed consent
133
Torts
Intentional: false imprisonment
Unintentional: negligence
134
List what info all medical records must contain.
```
Patient’s identification data
Medical history
Physical exam findings
Diagnostic & Therapeutic orders
Clinical observations
Reports from diagnostic & therapeutic procedures
Informed consent documentation
Conclusions before release
```
135
Urine flow
Glomerulus capsule, renal tubule, collecting ducts, kidney to ureter, ureter, urinary bladder to urethra, urine exits
136
Why is osmosis important when using contrast media?
It can aid in reducing obstructions because the increase in fluid increases peristalsis (involuntary constriction and contraction of muscles)
137
Prospective payment
System for Medicare patients where a predetermined reimbursement is established before services are provided
138
Digital related group
Categorizes into payment groups
