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A&P II > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is myxedema in the adult ?

A

hypothyroidism

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2
Q

Approximately what percentage of diabetes mellitis cases are type I?

A

10%

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3
Q

Once through the optic tract, which structure sends the impulses to the Primary Visual Center of the
brain?

A

Lateral Geniculate Body

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4
Q

What compound is activated by transducin?

A

Phosphodiesterase

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5
Q

One function of prostaglandins is?

A

ovulatory pain

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6
Q

Which of the following is produced in the anterior pituitary gland?

A

growth hormone

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7
Q

What produces aqueous humor?

A

Ciliary processes

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8
Q

The muscle which contracts or closes the pupil?

A

Sphincter pupillae

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9
Q

During close-in focusing, do the ciliary muscles contract or relax?

A

Contract

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10
Q

The ability to monitor position and movement of body is known as?

A

Proprioception

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11
Q

Which of the autonomic nervous systems stimulates the dilator pupillae?

A

Sympathetic

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12
Q

Where is most cortisol produced ?

A

adrenal medulla

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13
Q

Which of the photoreceptor cells are most numerous in the macula lutea?

A

Cones

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14
Q

What type of frequency travels the farthest in the cochlea?

A

Low frequency

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15
Q

Deficiency in which of the following hormones is often associated with seasonal affected disorder?

A

melatonin or melanocyte stimulating hormone

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16
Q

Ringing of the ears is known as?

A

Tinnitus

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17
Q

Name the fluid that fills the osseous labyrinth?

A

Perilymph

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18
Q

Which of the following has an inhibitory effect on growth hormone

A

somatostatin

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19
Q

The compound that is directly activated or deactivated by the cells “surface” receptor?

A

G protein

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20
Q

The degeneration of the ossicles making them immobile is a condition known as?

A

Ostosclerosis

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21
Q

Where is calcitonin produced ?

A

thyroid

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22
Q

A major function of antidiuretic hormone is?

A

water retention

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23
Q

Where is luteinizing hormone (LH) produced?

A

anterior pituitary gland

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24
Q

Once the action potentials for hearing leave the auditory nerve, what structure do they enter next?

A

Inferior Colliculus

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25
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated by “Fatal Tetany”?

A

hypoparathyroidism

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26
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated by an increase in body temperature ?

A

Graves Disease

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27
Q

Which component of rhodopsin is a derivative from Vitamin A?

A

Retinal

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28
Q

“Up regulation” is a process by which

A

receptors for a certain horomone increase in numbers

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29
Q

The space between the cornea and iris is called?

A

Anterior Chamber

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30
Q

A second messenger systems responsible for the production of prostaglandins is?

A

arachidonic acid

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31
Q

Stone-like structures which float in a gel and settle due to gravity to stimulate hair cells?

A

Otoliths

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32
Q

Which of the following is released in response to physical and chemical stress to the body?

A

cortisol

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33
Q

One common function of intracellular calcium is:

A

regulates various ion channels

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34
Q

Which of the three layers of the retina is closest to the light source (lines the inside of the vitreous
chamber)?

A

Ganglion cells

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35
Q

Which of the papillae are found on the sides of tongue?

A

Foliate papillae

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36
Q

Approximately what percentage of diabetes mellitis cases are type II?

A

90%

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37
Q

The term “autocrine” reflects a compount that….

A

has its effect in the very same cell in which it was produced

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38
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva?

A

Conjunctivitis

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39
Q

Which of the ossicles is attached to the tympanic membrane?

A

Malleus

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40
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for splitting PIP2?

A

phospholipase C

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41
Q

Which of the organs is both a major site for lymphocyte proliferation as well as the major site for
removal of dead or dying erythrocytes?

A

spleen

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42
Q

A tissue transplant (transfer) within the same individual is known as a?

A

Autotransplant

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43
Q

Specialized chemicals released by Cytotoxic T cells that digest holes in diseased cells are known as?

A

Perforins

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44
Q

The reaction to poison ivy is a type of?

A

delayed hypersensitivity

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45
Q

The process by which phagosomes produce large amounts of free radicals?

A

respiratory burst

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46
Q

Approximately what percent of the U.S. population has type O blood?

A

48%

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47
Q

Which of the following conditions result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Father is Rh “+” and mother is Rh “-“

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48
Q

A type of lymphocyte that destroy our cells that become cancerous or contain viruses?

A

natural killer cells

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49
Q

Reddening of the skin in response to various hormones, etc. us usually the result of :

A

vasodilation

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50
Q

These cells come from B lymphocytes and produce antibodies that directly target specific antigens
in case of subsequent exposure?

A

plasma Cells

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51
Q

A term that describes the fact that proteins in the blood can have a profound effect on osmotic
balance ?

A

colloid osmotic pressure

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52
Q

The elevation of which protein in maternal plasma may indicate a neural tube defect?

A

alpha fetal protein

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53
Q

Which of the following antibodies are often found in secretions such as saliva and milk?

A

IgA’s

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54
Q

Reactions to Penicillin can be deadly when the drug binds to certain proteins. In this instance,
Penicillin is known as ?

A

haptens

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55
Q

What happens to water soluble compounds as they percholate through the liver?s sinusoids?

A

detoxification

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56
Q

Which class of major histocompatibility complexes are found on every nucleated cell in the body?

A

MHC-I

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57
Q

A type of resistance or immunity that you acquire after you are born?

A

specific

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58
Q

What percent of cholesterol is produced by our livers?

A

85%

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59
Q

Which of the following is an example of a specialized protein that transport lipids, metal ion, and fat-
soluble vitamins in the blood?

A

Beta globulins

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60
Q

A combination of protein and lipid that is associated with arteriosclerosis?

A

Low density lipoproteins

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61
Q

A general term for the sites for lymphocyte proliferation and maturation which are scattered
throughout the body?

A

diffuse lympatic tissue

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62
Q

What percentage of the white blood cells are represented by neutrophils?

A

50 - 70%

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63
Q

Which type of cells populate the outer portion of the lymphoid follicles?

A

T lymphocytes

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64
Q

Which of the following terms indicate a condition in which pus is found?

A

suppurative

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65
Q

Approximately how many red blood cells are found in human males?

A

5.1 - 5.8 million per microliter

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66
Q

Organelles found in neutrophils which function as the body’s “detoxifyers”?

A

Peroxysomes

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67
Q

Which of the tonsils are located at the base of the tongue?

A

lingual tonsils

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68
Q

A type of leukemia that is most commonly seen in pediatric cases?

A

Acute lymphoblastic

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69
Q

The chemical attraction of WBC to various areas where they are needed such as areas of
inflammation, infected areas, etc.?

A

chemotaxis

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70
Q

Which of the following belongs to the “external barriers” of the immune system?

A

mucus

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71
Q

These specialized fatty acids cause pain associated with ovulation

A

prostaglandins

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72
Q

Which of the following is your body’s second line of immune defense ?

A

Kupffer Cells

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73
Q

The “+” or “-“ for blood types comes from a protein in the cell membrane of proteins. This protein
(glycoprotein) is known as?

A

Rh or Rhesus Group

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74
Q

A condition in which the arteries loose their elasticity ?

A

Arteriosclerosis

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75
Q

An auto-immune disease in which antibodies are made against the myelin sheath ?

A

multiple sclerosis

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76
Q

What is a condition caused by abnormally low levels of folate (or folic acid)?

A

Folate-Deficiency Anemia

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77
Q

Once in the lacteals, where do lipid (fat) soluble compounds go next?

A

Thoracic duct

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78
Q

The red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are known as?

A

Formed elements

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79
Q

The entire process by which bleeding is stopped?

A

Hemostasis

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80
Q

Which organ converts Fe+++ into Fe++?

A

stomach

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81
Q

What nerve transmits signals from the Aortic chemoreceptors to the respiratory center?

A

Vagus Nerve

82
Q

The speed or velocity of the action potential through the heart is slowed down in the AV Node. The
purpose of this ?slow down? is?

A

Allow for optimal filling in the ventricles

83
Q

Factors that increase heart rate are known as?

A

Positive Chronotropic

84
Q

Which of the following contributes approximately 2/3 of the collapsing forces of the lungs?

A

Surface tension of water

85
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which digitalis functions?

A

Poisons the Na-K-ATPase pump

86
Q

A condition in which the “parachute-like” cords holding the atrioventricular valves in place break:

A
  • Valvular stenosis
  • None of these responses*
  • Atrioventricular regurgitation
  • Valvular prolaps
  • Murmur
87
Q

An enzyme which normally transfers a phosphate group?

A

Creatine Kinase

88
Q

An abnormally dilated artery?

A

Aneurysm

89
Q

The outermost, connective tissue layer of a blood vessel is known as?

A

tunica externa

90
Q

Which layer of the respiratory membrane is second from the alveolar lumen (air w/in the alveolus)?

A

alveolar epithelium

91
Q

What effect would compressing the abdominal inferior vena cava have on cardiac function?

A

Reduced stroke volume

92
Q

Which of the following would occur as a result of a drop in blood pressure?

A

Increase in angiotensin II synthesis

93
Q

This form of lung cancer constitutes approximately 30% of bronchogenic carcinomas, tumors often
seen at the hilus, and often associated with neumonia and atelectasis?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

94
Q

Where is renin synthesized ?

A

Kidneys

95
Q

Which of the following represents the closest value to a normal ejection fraction?

A

54%

96
Q

Give the location of the cardioinhibitory center?

A

medulla oblongata

97
Q

For an EKG, a wave sometimes seen in a normal EKG which has unknown origins is the?

A

U wave

98
Q

The process by which more CO2 can bind with hemoglobin under conditions of low oxygen levels is
known as?

A

haldane effect

99
Q

Which of the blood vessels regulate a majority (2/3) of the peripheral resistance?

A

arterioles

100
Q

Which of the following would occur in response to a drop in blood pressure?

A

Increase in endothelin release

101
Q

What tissue type makes up type I alveolar cells?

A

simple squamous epithelium

102
Q

What percent of the total blood volume is contained in the veins?

A

54%

103
Q

This area regulates breathing rhythms during vocalization?

A

Pontine repiratory centers

104
Q

At rest, what saturation level does venous blood typically drop to?

A

75%

105
Q

Which of the following causes hemoglobin to bind to oxygen?

A

reduced levels of hydrogen ions

106
Q

A term that describes the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is:

A

Diastole

107
Q

How does ADH cause water retention?

A

turns on protein synthesis of water channels in kidneys

108
Q

How does surfactant function?

A

Reduces the surface tension of water

109
Q

Flutter is defined as a heart rates:

A

Between 250 - 300

110
Q

What is the typical partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries?

A

100 mm Hg

111
Q

The cavity between the lungs containing the pericardium and heart is known as the?

A

mediastinum

112
Q

Blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart are generally known as?

A

arteries

113
Q

A condition caused by poor blood perfusion to the tissues?

A

Shock

114
Q

The volume of air that can be forcibly expired over and above the normal, quiet breathing volume?

A

Expiratory reserve volume

115
Q

The sounds listened to when cutting off blood flow in an artery and listening to the sounds made
when flow are knowns as ?______? sounds?

A

Korotkoff?s

116
Q

Which of the following would most likely result in the release of oxygen from hemoglobin

A

increase in temperature

117
Q

What is a normal “end systolic volume”?

A

50 ml

118
Q

What is the outermost layer of parietal pericardium?

A

Fibrous layer of the parietal pericardium

119
Q

At the ARTERIAL end of a capillary, is the ?Interstitial colloid (osmotic) pressure? HIGH or LOW when
compared to the interstitium?

A

high

120
Q

How many potassium ions are pumped into the urine to be excreted under the influence of Aldosterone?

A
  • 2
  • 5
  • 15
  • None of these responses
121
Q

What percent of water (or sodium) is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules?

A

65%

122
Q

Bile which surrounds lipids to facilitate their absorption by the small intestines

A

miscelles

123
Q

Which of the following is a major function for cholecystokinin ?

A

causes the gall bladder to contract

124
Q

Which of the following is a major method of transmission for hepatitis B?

A

sexual intercourse

125
Q

What percent of kidney stones are made of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate?

A

15%

126
Q

How many NADH molecules are produced by the glycolysis of one glucose molecule?

A

2

127
Q

What is the primary defect in diabetes mellitus?

A

insufficient insulin or its receptors

128
Q

With ANP, the sodium pump moves how many Potassium ions out of urine back to the blood?

A

2

129
Q

Which cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor ?

A

parietal

130
Q

What is the diameter of the openings in the specialized cells that surround the filtering capillaries to
aid in the filtration process are known as?

A

30 nm

131
Q

Normal BUN levels would be:

A

7-18 mg/dl

132
Q

Which of the following would occur to increase urine output in order to regulate bp?

A

reduce antidiuretic hormone release

133
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

A

cristae

134
Q

Which of the following would increase the glomerular filtration rate?

A

increase Bowman’s capsule colloid (oncotic) pressure

135
Q

How many carbons make up lactic acid?

A

3

136
Q

The process by which food (nutrients) are broken down in order to produce ATP?

A

cellular respiration

137
Q

Which nerve stimulates most of the gastrointestinal system?

A

vagus

138
Q

Does activation of the Renin-angiotensin system cause an increase or decrease in blood pressure?

A

increase

139
Q

Which cells of the stomach produce Carbonic Anhydrase ?

A

parietal

140
Q

An inflammation of the urinary bladder is known as?

A

cystitis

141
Q

What is the fate of all the carbons in glucose due to glycolysis, the intermediate reaction, and the
Krebs’ Cycle?

A

expelled from the lungs as carbon dioxide

142
Q

All the biochemical processes of an organism are known as?

A

metabolism

143
Q

What is phosphorylated in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

adenosine diphosphate

144
Q

Where does the Kreb’s cycle occur?

A

matrix

145
Q

Which of the following is a common cause of constipation?

A

poor diet

146
Q

What is the total number of ATP’s produced from the break down of one glucose molecule using
aerobic & anaerobic systems?

A

36 - 38

147
Q

The most common cause of neurological damage in western world is known as?

A

diabetic neuropathy

148
Q

Which compound from the kidneys and liver stimulates the production of red blood cells?

A

erythropoietin

149
Q

How does atropine work?

A

antiparasympathetic

150
Q

The name for the tube that makes up the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus is?

A

alimentary canal

151
Q

The primary, toxic, nitrogenous waste product found in our blood is?

A

urea

152
Q

The smallest of the papillae on dorsum of tongue which give it friction?

A

Filiform

153
Q

The primary function of the Kreb’s cycle is?

A

supply electrons (and hydrogen ions) for NAD and FAD

154
Q

Which cells of the pancrease produce glucagon?

A

alpha cells

155
Q

Into which structure does the Ureter drain?

A

urinary bladder

156
Q

Blocking WHICH TYPE of receptor will reduce the production of stomach acic?

A

Histamine Type 2 (H2) Receptors

157
Q

The process of swallowing is known as ?

A

deglutition

158
Q

Give a major function of pepsin ?

A

to digest proteins into smaller (although non-absorbable) polypeptides

159
Q

Once absorbed by the small intestines, where do water-soluble compounds go next?

A

intestinal veins

160
Q

What is the normal value for the colloid pressure of the blood?

A

30 mm Hg

161
Q

Where does fertilization occur in the woman?

A

ampulla of fallopian tube

162
Q

Which primary germ layer gives rise to the epidermis?

A

ectoderm

163
Q

These cells from the trophoblast invade the uterus to establish the placenta?

A

syncytiotrophoblasts

164
Q

An overwhelming majority of cervical carcinoma is directly attributable to which of the following?

A

the STD, human papilloma virus (HPV)

165
Q

What is the location for the production of luteinizing hormone?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

166
Q

The name of an embryo when it becomes a solid ball of cells?

A

morula

167
Q

Which of the following hormones maintains the corpus luteum?

A

Progesterone

168
Q

Which primary germ layer gives rise to the adrenal medulla?

A

ectoderm

169
Q

A method of collecting fetal cells by sampling the amniotic fluid?DF

A

amniocentesis

170
Q

What occurs during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?

A

granulosa cells produce estrogen

171
Q

A glycoprotein “shell” that surrounds the early human embryo?

A

zona pellucida

172
Q

What does the inner cell mass become in a human embryo?

A

embryo proper

173
Q

Days 6 - 14 of the uterine cycle are collectively known as?

A

Proliferative phase

174
Q

At what stage of meiosis is the first meiotic arrest?

A

Prophase I

175
Q

Which of the following gives rise to female reproductive structures?

A

Paramesonephric duct

176
Q

Which of the following directly stimulate an increase in the numbers of progesterone receptors in
the myometrium ?

A

Estrogen

177
Q

Approximately how old is the human embryo when it reaches the Morula stage?

A

3 days

178
Q

The name given to the outer most layer of cells of an early human blastula?

A

trophoblasts

179
Q

The process of the production of the primary germ layers is known as?

A

embryogenesis

180
Q

What occurs if the corpus luteum regresses?

A

menses

181
Q

What is a major function of the corpus luteum?

A

maintain the uterine lining for pregnancy

182
Q

Approximately how old is the human embryo when it reaches the uterus?

A

3 ? 4 days

183
Q

The name given to the human embryo once inner cell mass flattens and devlelops three layers?

A

embryonic disc or trilaminar embryo

184
Q

How many developing oocytes does a female have at birth?

A

1.5 million

185
Q

At what stage of meiosis are almost all the oocytes in all of the women of “reproductive” age?

A

Prophase I

186
Q

A condition caused by production of excessive amounts of androgens (male sex hormones) ?

A

polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCO)

187
Q

Which primary germ layer gives rise to the blood?

A

mesoderm

188
Q

Which of the following causes prolonged and painful errection that accures without sexual arousal
is known as?

A

spinal cord trauma, sickle cell disease and tumors

189
Q

A stage of cervical carcinoma in which almost all of the cervical epithelial cells demonstrate cellular
features of carcinoma, however, the underlying tissues remain unaffected?

A

cervical carcinoma in situ

190
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of estrogen?

A

Aromatase

191
Q

How does the abortion pill (RU 486) function?

A

Blocks progesterone receptors

192
Q

Why are the testes located in the scrotum rather than inside the abdominal cavity ?

A

to allow cooler temperatures necessary for normal spermatogenesis

193
Q

What is the location for the production of gonadotroin releasing hormone?

A

Hypothalamus

194
Q

After the 4th month of pregnancy, which endocrine processes maintain the pregnancy?

A

estrogen and progesterone are produced by the placenta

195
Q

At what stage of meiosis does fertilization occur?

A

Metaphase II

196
Q

Approximately how many women experience clinically painful menstruation ?

A

50%

197
Q

The name given to the human embryo once the inner cell mass differentiates into two layers?

A

bilaminar blastula

198
Q

Which primary germ layer gives rise to the adrenal cortex?

A

mesoderm

199
Q

What is the major function of the granulosa cells?

A

Produce estradiol

200
Q

Spaces that become filled with Maternal blood which will bath the chorionic villi of the embryo?

A

Lacunae

A&P II (13 decks)

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