FINAL Flashcards
Which of the following is myxedema in the adult ?
hypothyroidism
Approximately what percentage of diabetes mellitis cases are type I?
10%
Once through the optic tract, which structure sends the impulses to the Primary Visual Center of the
brain?
Lateral Geniculate Body
What compound is activated by transducin?
Phosphodiesterase
One function of prostaglandins is?
ovulatory pain
Which of the following is produced in the anterior pituitary gland?
growth hormone
What produces aqueous humor?
Ciliary processes
The muscle which contracts or closes the pupil?
Sphincter pupillae
During close-in focusing, do the ciliary muscles contract or relax?
Contract
The ability to monitor position and movement of body is known as?
Proprioception
Which of the autonomic nervous systems stimulates the dilator pupillae?
Sympathetic
Where is most cortisol produced ?
adrenal medulla
Which of the photoreceptor cells are most numerous in the macula lutea?
Cones
What type of frequency travels the farthest in the cochlea?
Low frequency
Deficiency in which of the following hormones is often associated with seasonal affected disorder?
melatonin or melanocyte stimulating hormone
Ringing of the ears is known as?
Tinnitus
Name the fluid that fills the osseous labyrinth?
Perilymph
Which of the following has an inhibitory effect on growth hormone
somatostatin
The compound that is directly activated or deactivated by the cells “surface” receptor?
G protein
The degeneration of the ossicles making them immobile is a condition known as?
Ostosclerosis
Where is calcitonin produced ?
thyroid
A major function of antidiuretic hormone is?
water retention
Where is luteinizing hormone (LH) produced?
anterior pituitary gland
Once the action potentials for hearing leave the auditory nerve, what structure do they enter next?
Inferior Colliculus
Which of the following is demonstrated by “Fatal Tetany”?
hypoparathyroidism
Which of the following is demonstrated by an increase in body temperature ?
Graves Disease
Which component of rhodopsin is a derivative from Vitamin A?
Retinal
“Up regulation” is a process by which
receptors for a certain horomone increase in numbers
The space between the cornea and iris is called?
Anterior Chamber
A second messenger systems responsible for the production of prostaglandins is?
arachidonic acid
Stone-like structures which float in a gel and settle due to gravity to stimulate hair cells?
Otoliths
Which of the following is released in response to physical and chemical stress to the body?
cortisol
One common function of intracellular calcium is:
regulates various ion channels
Which of the three layers of the retina is closest to the light source (lines the inside of the vitreous
chamber)?
Ganglion cells
Which of the papillae are found on the sides of tongue?
Foliate papillae
Approximately what percentage of diabetes mellitis cases are type II?
90%
The term “autocrine” reflects a compount that….
has its effect in the very same cell in which it was produced
Inflammation of the conjunctiva?
Conjunctivitis
Which of the ossicles is attached to the tympanic membrane?
Malleus
Which enzyme is responsible for splitting PIP2?
phospholipase C
Which of the organs is both a major site for lymphocyte proliferation as well as the major site for
removal of dead or dying erythrocytes?
spleen
A tissue transplant (transfer) within the same individual is known as a?
Autotransplant
Specialized chemicals released by Cytotoxic T cells that digest holes in diseased cells are known as?
Perforins
The reaction to poison ivy is a type of?
delayed hypersensitivity
The process by which phagosomes produce large amounts of free radicals?
respiratory burst
Approximately what percent of the U.S. population has type O blood?
48%
Which of the following conditions result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Father is Rh “+” and mother is Rh “-“
A type of lymphocyte that destroy our cells that become cancerous or contain viruses?
natural killer cells
Reddening of the skin in response to various hormones, etc. us usually the result of :
vasodilation
These cells come from B lymphocytes and produce antibodies that directly target specific antigens
in case of subsequent exposure?
plasma Cells
A term that describes the fact that proteins in the blood can have a profound effect on osmotic
balance ?
colloid osmotic pressure
The elevation of which protein in maternal plasma may indicate a neural tube defect?
alpha fetal protein
Which of the following antibodies are often found in secretions such as saliva and milk?
IgA’s
Reactions to Penicillin can be deadly when the drug binds to certain proteins. In this instance,
Penicillin is known as ?
haptens
What happens to water soluble compounds as they percholate through the liver?s sinusoids?
detoxification
Which class of major histocompatibility complexes are found on every nucleated cell in the body?
MHC-I
A type of resistance or immunity that you acquire after you are born?
specific
What percent of cholesterol is produced by our livers?
85%
Which of the following is an example of a specialized protein that transport lipids, metal ion, and fat-
soluble vitamins in the blood?
Beta globulins
A combination of protein and lipid that is associated with arteriosclerosis?
Low density lipoproteins
A general term for the sites for lymphocyte proliferation and maturation which are scattered
throughout the body?
diffuse lympatic tissue
What percentage of the white blood cells are represented by neutrophils?
50 - 70%
Which type of cells populate the outer portion of the lymphoid follicles?
T lymphocytes
Which of the following terms indicate a condition in which pus is found?
suppurative
Approximately how many red blood cells are found in human males?
5.1 - 5.8 million per microliter
Organelles found in neutrophils which function as the body’s “detoxifyers”?
Peroxysomes
Which of the tonsils are located at the base of the tongue?
lingual tonsils
A type of leukemia that is most commonly seen in pediatric cases?
Acute lymphoblastic
The chemical attraction of WBC to various areas where they are needed such as areas of
inflammation, infected areas, etc.?
chemotaxis
Which of the following belongs to the “external barriers” of the immune system?
mucus
These specialized fatty acids cause pain associated with ovulation
prostaglandins
Which of the following is your body’s second line of immune defense ?
Kupffer Cells
The “+” or “-“ for blood types comes from a protein in the cell membrane of proteins. This protein
(glycoprotein) is known as?
Rh or Rhesus Group
A condition in which the arteries loose their elasticity ?
Arteriosclerosis
An auto-immune disease in which antibodies are made against the myelin sheath ?
multiple sclerosis
What is a condition caused by abnormally low levels of folate (or folic acid)?
Folate-Deficiency Anemia
Once in the lacteals, where do lipid (fat) soluble compounds go next?
Thoracic duct
The red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are known as?
Formed elements
The entire process by which bleeding is stopped?
Hemostasis
Which organ converts Fe+++ into Fe++?
stomach
What nerve transmits signals from the Aortic chemoreceptors to the respiratory center?
Vagus Nerve
The speed or velocity of the action potential through the heart is slowed down in the AV Node. The
purpose of this ?slow down? is?
Allow for optimal filling in the ventricles
Factors that increase heart rate are known as?
Positive Chronotropic
Which of the following contributes approximately 2/3 of the collapsing forces of the lungs?
Surface tension of water
Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which digitalis functions?
Poisons the Na-K-ATPase pump
A condition in which the “parachute-like” cords holding the atrioventricular valves in place break:
- Valvular stenosis
- None of these responses*
- Atrioventricular regurgitation
- Valvular prolaps
- Murmur
An enzyme which normally transfers a phosphate group?
Creatine Kinase
An abnormally dilated artery?
Aneurysm
The outermost, connective tissue layer of a blood vessel is known as?
tunica externa
Which layer of the respiratory membrane is second from the alveolar lumen (air w/in the alveolus)?
alveolar epithelium
What effect would compressing the abdominal inferior vena cava have on cardiac function?
Reduced stroke volume
Which of the following would occur as a result of a drop in blood pressure?
Increase in angiotensin II synthesis
This form of lung cancer constitutes approximately 30% of bronchogenic carcinomas, tumors often
seen at the hilus, and often associated with neumonia and atelectasis?
squamous cell carcinoma
Where is renin synthesized ?
Kidneys
Which of the following represents the closest value to a normal ejection fraction?
54%
Give the location of the cardioinhibitory center?
medulla oblongata
For an EKG, a wave sometimes seen in a normal EKG which has unknown origins is the?
U wave
The process by which more CO2 can bind with hemoglobin under conditions of low oxygen levels is
known as?
haldane effect
Which of the blood vessels regulate a majority (2/3) of the peripheral resistance?
arterioles
Which of the following would occur in response to a drop in blood pressure?
Increase in endothelin release
What tissue type makes up type I alveolar cells?
simple squamous epithelium
What percent of the total blood volume is contained in the veins?
54%
This area regulates breathing rhythms during vocalization?
Pontine repiratory centers
At rest, what saturation level does venous blood typically drop to?
75%
Which of the following causes hemoglobin to bind to oxygen?
reduced levels of hydrogen ions
A term that describes the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is:
Diastole
How does ADH cause water retention?
turns on protein synthesis of water channels in kidneys
How does surfactant function?
Reduces the surface tension of water
Flutter is defined as a heart rates:
Between 250 - 300
What is the typical partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries?
100 mm Hg
The cavity between the lungs containing the pericardium and heart is known as the?
mediastinum
Blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart are generally known as?
arteries
A condition caused by poor blood perfusion to the tissues?
Shock
The volume of air that can be forcibly expired over and above the normal, quiet breathing volume?
Expiratory reserve volume
The sounds listened to when cutting off blood flow in an artery and listening to the sounds made
when flow are knowns as ?______? sounds?
Korotkoff?s
Which of the following would most likely result in the release of oxygen from hemoglobin
increase in temperature
What is a normal “end systolic volume”?
50 ml
What is the outermost layer of parietal pericardium?
Fibrous layer of the parietal pericardium
At the ARTERIAL end of a capillary, is the ?Interstitial colloid (osmotic) pressure? HIGH or LOW when
compared to the interstitium?
high
How many potassium ions are pumped into the urine to be excreted under the influence of Aldosterone?
- 2
- 5
- 15
- None of these responses
What percent of water (or sodium) is reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubules?
65%
Bile which surrounds lipids to facilitate their absorption by the small intestines
miscelles
Which of the following is a major function for cholecystokinin ?
causes the gall bladder to contract
Which of the following is a major method of transmission for hepatitis B?
sexual intercourse
What percent of kidney stones are made of magnesium-ammonium-phosphate?
15%
How many NADH molecules are produced by the glycolysis of one glucose molecule?
2
What is the primary defect in diabetes mellitus?
insufficient insulin or its receptors
With ANP, the sodium pump moves how many Potassium ions out of urine back to the blood?
2
Which cells of the stomach produce intrinsic factor ?
parietal
What is the diameter of the openings in the specialized cells that surround the filtering capillaries to
aid in the filtration process are known as?
30 nm
Normal BUN levels would be:
7-18 mg/dl
Which of the following would occur to increase urine output in order to regulate bp?
reduce antidiuretic hormone release
Where does the electron transport chain occur?
cristae
Which of the following would increase the glomerular filtration rate?
increase Bowman’s capsule colloid (oncotic) pressure
How many carbons make up lactic acid?
3
The process by which food (nutrients) are broken down in order to produce ATP?
cellular respiration
Which nerve stimulates most of the gastrointestinal system?
vagus
Does activation of the Renin-angiotensin system cause an increase or decrease in blood pressure?
increase
Which cells of the stomach produce Carbonic Anhydrase ?
parietal
An inflammation of the urinary bladder is known as?
cystitis
What is the fate of all the carbons in glucose due to glycolysis, the intermediate reaction, and the
Krebs’ Cycle?
expelled from the lungs as carbon dioxide
All the biochemical processes of an organism are known as?
metabolism
What is phosphorylated in oxidative phosphorylation?
adenosine diphosphate
Where does the Kreb’s cycle occur?
matrix
Which of the following is a common cause of constipation?
poor diet
What is the total number of ATP’s produced from the break down of one glucose molecule using
aerobic & anaerobic systems?
36 - 38
The most common cause of neurological damage in western world is known as?
diabetic neuropathy
Which compound from the kidneys and liver stimulates the production of red blood cells?
erythropoietin
How does atropine work?
antiparasympathetic
The name for the tube that makes up the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus is?
alimentary canal
The primary, toxic, nitrogenous waste product found in our blood is?
urea
The smallest of the papillae on dorsum of tongue which give it friction?
Filiform
The primary function of the Kreb’s cycle is?
supply electrons (and hydrogen ions) for NAD and FAD
Which cells of the pancrease produce glucagon?
alpha cells
Into which structure does the Ureter drain?
urinary bladder
Blocking WHICH TYPE of receptor will reduce the production of stomach acic?
Histamine Type 2 (H2) Receptors
The process of swallowing is known as ?
deglutition
Give a major function of pepsin ?
to digest proteins into smaller (although non-absorbable) polypeptides
Once absorbed by the small intestines, where do water-soluble compounds go next?
intestinal veins
What is the normal value for the colloid pressure of the blood?
30 mm Hg
Where does fertilization occur in the woman?
ampulla of fallopian tube
Which primary germ layer gives rise to the epidermis?
ectoderm
These cells from the trophoblast invade the uterus to establish the placenta?
syncytiotrophoblasts
An overwhelming majority of cervical carcinoma is directly attributable to which of the following?
the STD, human papilloma virus (HPV)
What is the location for the production of luteinizing hormone?
Anterior pituitary gland
The name of an embryo when it becomes a solid ball of cells?
morula
Which of the following hormones maintains the corpus luteum?
Progesterone
Which primary germ layer gives rise to the adrenal medulla?
ectoderm
A method of collecting fetal cells by sampling the amniotic fluid?DF
amniocentesis
What occurs during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle?
granulosa cells produce estrogen
A glycoprotein “shell” that surrounds the early human embryo?
zona pellucida
What does the inner cell mass become in a human embryo?
embryo proper
Days 6 - 14 of the uterine cycle are collectively known as?
Proliferative phase
At what stage of meiosis is the first meiotic arrest?
Prophase I
Which of the following gives rise to female reproductive structures?
Paramesonephric duct
Which of the following directly stimulate an increase in the numbers of progesterone receptors in
the myometrium ?
Estrogen
Approximately how old is the human embryo when it reaches the Morula stage?
3 days
The name given to the outer most layer of cells of an early human blastula?
trophoblasts
The process of the production of the primary germ layers is known as?
embryogenesis
What occurs if the corpus luteum regresses?
menses
What is a major function of the corpus luteum?
maintain the uterine lining for pregnancy
Approximately how old is the human embryo when it reaches the uterus?
3 ? 4 days
The name given to the human embryo once inner cell mass flattens and devlelops three layers?
embryonic disc or trilaminar embryo
How many developing oocytes does a female have at birth?
1.5 million
At what stage of meiosis are almost all the oocytes in all of the women of “reproductive” age?
Prophase I
A condition caused by production of excessive amounts of androgens (male sex hormones) ?
polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCO)
Which primary germ layer gives rise to the blood?
mesoderm
Which of the following causes prolonged and painful errection that accures without sexual arousal
is known as?
spinal cord trauma, sickle cell disease and tumors
A stage of cervical carcinoma in which almost all of the cervical epithelial cells demonstrate cellular
features of carcinoma, however, the underlying tissues remain unaffected?
cervical carcinoma in situ
What enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of estrogen?
Aromatase
How does the abortion pill (RU 486) function?
Blocks progesterone receptors
Why are the testes located in the scrotum rather than inside the abdominal cavity ?
to allow cooler temperatures necessary for normal spermatogenesis
What is the location for the production of gonadotroin releasing hormone?
Hypothalamus
After the 4th month of pregnancy, which endocrine processes maintain the pregnancy?
estrogen and progesterone are produced by the placenta
At what stage of meiosis does fertilization occur?
Metaphase II
Approximately how many women experience clinically painful menstruation ?
50%
The name given to the human embryo once the inner cell mass differentiates into two layers?
bilaminar blastula
Which primary germ layer gives rise to the adrenal cortex?
mesoderm
What is the major function of the granulosa cells?
Produce estradiol
Spaces that become filled with Maternal blood which will bath the chorionic villi of the embryo?
Lacunae
