final Flashcards
Which of the following is NOT found in Dermis?
a.Sebaceous glands
b.Pressure receptors
c.Keratin. Melanocytes
d.Hair follicle
e.sweat glands
c. keratin melanocytes
Cells normally need to divide for these purposes, except
a.to maintain the organism
b.for the organism to grow larger
c.to replace damaged cells
d.to form masses of cells
d. to form masses of cells
Which of the following is incorrect about Chromosome anatomy?
a.the central part of the chromosome is called the centriole
b.the chromosome stays unreplicated in the middle until the Mitosis
c.the end tips are called Telomeres
d.a replicated chromosome looks like an “X”
a. the central part of the chromosome is called the centriole
A common sunburn, where skin turns red is classified as
a.first degree burn
b.second degree burn
c.third degree burn
d.not a burn
a. first degree burn
Which of the following is the function of Arrector Pili?
a.squeeze oil from sebaceous glands
b.squeeze sweat from the sweat glands
c.raise the hair
d.produce heat by contractions
e.regulate water losses
c. raise the hair
Decubitus ulcer, where bone tissue can be seen at the bottom of the sore is considered:
a.Stage I
b.Stage II
c.Stage III
d.Stage IV
e.unstageable
d. stage lV
Which of the following is NOT true about Telomeres?
a.they are the end-tips of the chromosomes that gradually shorten with each cell division
b.they do not get replicated 100% during DNA replication
c.They are not important, just “junk material”
d.telomerase is the enzyme that can replicate telomeres
e.immortal cells can keep their telomeres at the original length
c. they are not important just “junk material”
Which one of the following is NOT correct about DNA organization in the cell nucleus?
a.the entire DNA library is broken up into sections called chromosomes
b.DNA strands are wrapped around Histone proteins
c.DNA strands are double-stranded helixes
d.DNA contains only one helix
d. DNA contains only one helix
Which of the following is true about cytokinesis?
a.it is one of the phases of mitosis
b.it is when daughter chromosomes separate from each other
c.it is the separation of two daughter nuclei into two separate cells
d.it’s when nuclear membrane disappears
e.none of the above
c. it is the separation of two daughter nuclei into two separate cells
When a chromosome gets replicated before cell division, it is replicated except at the:
a.Telomeres
b.Centromere
c.Chromatid
d.Centriole
a. telomere
n which part of the fallopian tube does fertilization occur?
a.Ampulla
b.Itshmus
c.Infundibulum
d.Fimbria
e.Intramural
a. ampulla
Testes are located outside of the body cavity in the:
a.Vas Deferens
b.Scrotum
c.Cowper’s gland
d.Seminal vesicle
b. scrotum
Sperm cells are produced in
a.Epididymis
b.Seminal Vesicle
c.Seminiferous tubules
d.Vas Deferens
e.Prostate gland
c. seminiferous tubules
Cells with one set of chromosomes are called
a.Zygote
b.Homologous
c.Haploid
d.Diploid
e.Homozygous
c. haploid
The process of combining two haploid cells into one diploid cell is called
a.Gametogenesis
b.Meiosis
c.Fertilization
d.Differentiation
e.Mitosis
c. fertilization
When exiting the testes, the sperm goes through the male reproductive tract in this order:
a.
Seminiferous tubules, Vas Deferens, Epididymis, Prostate, Urethra
b.
Seminiferous tubules, Epididymis, Vas Deferens, Urethra
c.
Epididymis, Seminal vesicle, Prostate, Vas Deferens, Urethra
d.
Vas Deferens, Epididymis, Seminiferous tubules, Urethra
b. Seminiferous tubules, Epididymis, Vas Deferens, Urethra
The immediate product of Fertilization is a:
a.Zygote
b.Gamete
c.Gonads
d.Sex chromosomes
e.Fetus
a. zygote
The inner-most layer of the uterus is called:
a.Endometrium
b.Myometrium
c.Perimetrium
d.Fundus
e.Body
a. endometrium
Production of haploid cells happens in
a.All the tissues of the body
b.Gonads
c.Haploid tissues
d.Undifferentiated tissues
b. gonads
A Normal Meiosis may lead to the following:
a.Monosonomy
b.Trisonomy
c.Aneuploidy
d.Euploidy
d. euploidy
Red-Green Colorblindness is an X-linked genetic disorder.If mom is a carrier, but has normal vision, but dad is colorblind, what is percent chance for them to have a normal-vision child?
a.100%
b.75%
c.50%
d.25%
e.0%
c. 50%
When can you tell the genotype from a phenotype?
a.When you have homozygous dominant genotype
b.When you have homozygous recessive genotype
c.When you have heterozygous genotype
b. When you have homozygous recessive genotype
Sometimes, 2 different alleles (two alternate versions of a gene) can both be equally loud; such a situation is called Codominance.
True
False
true
Which of the following is Incorrect about the photoreceptors of the eye?
a.Rods are more numerous than cones
b.Cones produce colored images, while rods produce images in shades of gray
c.Cones produce clear, sharp images, while rods produce blurred images
d.Cones are used during the night time, while rods are used during the day
e.Rods require Retinol (Vitamin A) to function and produce impulses in response to light
d. Cones are used during the night time, while rods are used during the day
What is a locus?
a.
specific location of a gene on a specific chromosome
b.
specific location of two chromosome in the nucleus
c.
specific location of the nucleus in the cell
d.
specific location of a gene in genotype
a. specific location of a gene on a specific chromosome
If a mom is homozygous with blood type A, and a dad has blood type O, what is the % chance that their child will have blood type O?
a.
100%
b.
50%
c.
25%
d.
75%
e.
0%
e. 0%
Which of the following is Incorrect about the structures of the Eye?
a.
Retina is the innermost layer of the eye that is black in color and contains photoreceptors
b.
Cornea is the cartilagenous layer in front of the eye
c.
Choroid is a vascularized layer of the eye ball that is located behind the retina
d.
Aqueous humor is filled with fluid to maintain the spherical shape of the eye ball
e.
Iris muscle controls the amount of light that enters the eye ball to reach the retina
d. Aqueous humor is filled with fluid to maintain the spherical shape of the eye ball
A blue-eyed mom and a brown-eyed, heterozygous dad have a baby. What is the percent chance of them having a blue-eyed baby?
a.
100%
b.
50%
c.
25%
d.
75%
e.
0%
b. 50%
A homozygous recessive mom and homozygous dominant dad are having a baby. What is the percent chance of them having a blue-eyed baby?
a.
100%
b.
50%
c.
25%
d.
75%
e.
0%
e. 0%
Which of the following eye muscles can move the entire eye ball?
a.
Iris muscle
b.
Ciliary muscle
c.
Macula
d.
Fovea
e.
Extrinsic eye muscle
e. extrinsic eye muscle
The ossicle closest to the Inner ear is…
a.
Incus
b.
Malleus
c.
Stapes
d.
Vestibule
e.
Auricle
c. stapes
Which of the following is NOT true about normal gut flora?
a.
They produce vitamin K
b.
They are found in human blood
c.
They feed on the food we can not digest
d.
They have a symbiotic relationship with their host
b. They are found in human blood
Bacteria normally living in the human colon
a.
Have a symbiotic relationship with the human
b.
Produce all the vitamins and minerals for the human
c.
Have a parasitic relationship with the human
a. have a symbiotic relationship with the human
Which one of the following is studied in microbiology, but is not considered to be a living thing?
a.
Bacteria
b.
Protista
c.
Mycotae
d.
Virus
d. virus
Is E. coli the most common bacteria causing urinary tract infections?
True
False
true
The outer ear includes:
a.
Malleus
b.
Vestibule
c.
Pinna
d.
Tympanic membrane
b. vestibule
The tube that connects ear structures to the throat is called…
a.
External auditory canal
b.
Auricle
c.
Eustachian tube
d.
Vestibule
e.
Auricle
c. eustachian tube
After Gram staining, in what color are Gram-positive bacteria typically colored?
a.
Green
b.
Purple/Blue
c.
Red/Pink
d.
Yellow
b. purple/blue
If you are looking under a microscope and seeing dark-blue spherically-shaped bacteria in clusters, then you describe them as
a.
Gram-positive staphylococcus
b.
Gram-positive streptococcus
c.
Gram-negative staphylococcus
d.
Gram-negative streptococcus
a. Gram-positive staphylococcus
mandible
lower jaw
sternum
breast bone
tibia
large leg bone in the leg
fibula
thin leg bone in the leg
femur
thigh bone
humerus
arm bone
scapula
shoulder blade
Acne is most commonly caused by:
a.
E. coli
b.
Staphylococcus aureus
c.
Hemophilus influenza
d.
Clostridium perfringens
Staphylococcus aureus
How many floating rib pairs are there?
a.
7
b.
5
c.
2
d.
3
c. 2
Bacteria that causes food poisoning makes you sick by
a.
Infection
b.
Intoxication
b. intoxification
Which of the following is NOT true about food safety?
a.
Food leftovers must be refrigerated immediately, and reheated only once
b.
When reheating beef stew, it must be heated to a temperature above 140 oF
c.
Freezing kills microbes, so freezing foods is a good way to reduce the number of bacteria in meat
reezing kills microbes, so freezing foods is a good way to reduce the number of bacteria in meat
d.
When your chicken and rice soup is served, it should be discarded after 3 hours of sitting at room temperature.
c. Freezing kills microbes, so freezing foods is a good way to reduce the number of bacteria in meat
Which of the following is NOT true about Viruses?
a.
They are not consider as a living organisms
b.
They are classified as DNA viruses and RNA viruses
c.
they can reproduce without the help of a host cell
d.
they can not reproduce on their own
c. they can reproduce without the help of a host cell
Clostridium difficile
diarrhea
E. Coli
uti
Clostridium tetani
Spastic paralysis
Helicobacter pylori
stomach ulcer
Clostridium botulinum
flaccid paralysis
Which of the following is true about temperature danger zone?
a.
Clam chowder leftovers should not be reheated more than twice
b.
Reheated beef stew should be hotter between 40-140 degrees Fahrenheit to be safe
c.
If chicken-and-rice soup is kept at room temperature for more than 3 hours, it may become unsafe to eat
c. If chicken-and-rice soup is kept at room temperature for more than 3 hours, it may become unsafe to eat
Which of the following belongs with False ribs?
a.
Rib pair #7
b.
Rib pair # 9
c.
Rib pair #11
d.
Rib pair # 2
b. Rib pair # 9
How many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine?
a.
7
b.
10
c.
12
d.
5
e.
6
a. 7
