✅FACTIONLESS Flashcards

1
Q

(⬜ dx?) is typically caused by ⬜

Pts with risk factors should undergo ⬜ and make Modifications to their ⬜-2 to prevent recurrence

A

Lung Abscess; [aspiration of anaerobic bacteria]

________________

[speech/swallow evaluation] ;

Diet (thickened liquids) and/or Positioning (chin tuck)

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2
Q

Describe the Chest CT

What’s the dx?

A

Lung [AIR FLUID LEVEL] amid pulmonary consolidation = LUNG ABSCESS

these pts also have sour tasting sputum

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3
Q

In addition to skin, Patients with Rosacea may also experience ⬜ symptoms

A

Ocular

________________

burning/foreign body sensation/blepharitis/keratitis/conjunctivitis/recurrent chalazion

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4
Q

[Actinic solar Keratosis] is a precursor to ⬜ and should be biopsied if concerning

________________

Tx -4

A

SQC

________________

isolated AK = [liquid nitrogen cryotherapy]

diffuse AK = [topical 5-fluorouracil] vs imiquimod vs tirbanibulin

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5
Q

Actinic solar Keratosis cp

A

chronic scaly papules or scaly plaques with sandpaper texture in sun damaged areas

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6
Q

Tx for Rosacea -5

A
  1. Avoid Triggers (hot/spicy foods/EtOH/cold/stress)

________________

[Erythema + Telangiectasia] only

  • 2.* Topical Brimonidine
  • ________________*
    • papules or pustules*
      3. Topical Metronidazole
      4. Azelaic acid
      5. oral abx (severe / refractory)
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7
Q

What’s the tx for Severely depressed patients who require URGENT treatment

A

Electroconvulsive Therapy

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8
Q

When should [Actinic Solar Keratosis] be biopsied? -5

A

≥ 1 cm

rapid growth

ulcerated

TTP

initial tx failure

________________

1-20% transforms to SQC

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9
Q

Electroconvulsive Therapy indications -6

A
  1. unipolar depression (with psychosis or suicidality)
  2. bipolar depression (with psychosis or suicidality)
  3. bipolar mania
  4. depression requiring rapid treatment
  5. depression during pregnancy when rx contraindicated
  6. catatonia

________________

ECT is safe for pregnancy!

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10
Q

Buproprion MOA

A

NorEpinephrine \ Dopamine reuptake inhibitor

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11
Q

⬜ side effects are common when 1st starting an SSRI, but should improve over a recommended drug trial of ⬜

________________

what should u do if side effects are intolerable or inadequate response?

A

GI ; 6 weeks

________________

change antidepressant

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12
Q

infant pt presenting with undescended testis = ⬜

________________

At what age should this infant be referred for Orchiopexy?

________________

When should Orchiopexy occur?

A

Cryptorchidism

________________

≥ 6 months old

________________

Orchiopexy before 1 yo

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13
Q

What kind of study should be used to investigate an

acute infectious disease OUTBREAK?

A

Case-Control Study

________________

allows quick localization of outbreak source

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14
Q

What is [Root Cause Analysis] ?

A

QA tool that identifies and addresses factors leading up to an adverse medical event

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15
Q

1st line tx for Heat Stroke is ⬜, which should be used to ⬇︎core body temperature by ⬜C/min .

Describe it

________________

List 3 adjunct Heat Stroke therapies

A

[augmentation of EVAPORATIVE COOLING] ; [0.2C/min]

(naked pt is sprayed with tepid (warm) water mist or pt is covered in wet sheet – while large fans circulate air ➜ ⇪ evaporative heat loss)

________________

ice water lavage / ice packs / cold IVF

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16
Q

[mild/mod Aortic Stenosis] differs in cp than [SEVERE Aortic Stenosis]

________________

How does [SEVERE Aortic Stenosis] affect heart sounds? -2

A
  1. [1 soft single second heart sound]
  2. [LATE peaking systolic murmur] (early = mid/mod Aortic Stenosis)

________________

(normally, inspiration ⇪ blood into right heart ➜ pulmonic valve closes after aortic valve – but in SEVERE Aortic Stenosis, the stenotic Aortic valve will have delayed closure also ➜ single second heart sound)

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17
Q

When are IV medications preferred over oral? (4)

A
  1. Hemodynamic INstability
  2. PO INtolerance
  3. PO meds failed
  4. < 2 yo
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18
Q

Reconstruction of cleft lip is generally performed at (⬜age)

A

10 weeks old

________________

(in accordance with rule of 10s = 10 lbs|10 weeks old|10 g hgb)

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19
Q

Breastfeeding contraindications -7

A
  1. active TB
  2. HIV (unless in poor country)
  3. Herpes breast lesion
  4. Active varicella
  5. Chemoradiation
  6. Active Substance Use Disorder (but methadone regimen for tx is OK)
  7. Galactosemia
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20
Q

At what HIV viral load count is Vaginal Delivery safe?

A

Vaginal Delivery ≤ 1000 HIV copies

________________

> 1000 copies = C Section

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21
Q

How do you manage HIV in a newly pregnant patient?

________________

How is the newborn managed once it’s born?

A

MOM = [TRIPLE ANTIRETROVIRAL THERAPY] THROUGHOUT PREGNANCY

________________

newborn = Zidovudine ≥ 6 wks

________________

viral load/CD4 count labs q 3 months

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22
Q

Tx for [Scleroderma renal crisis] -2

A

Captopril = HTN

+

Nitroprusside IV = (if CNS or papilledema)

________________

etx: abnormal deposition of collagen in multiple organ systems

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23
Q

4 clinical features of [Scleroderma renal crisis]

A

[HTN (Captopril tx)]

renal failure

Raynaud phenomenon (scleroderma)

GERD (scleroderma)

________________

etx: abnormal deposition of collagen in multiple organ systems

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24
Q

6 major causes of Syncope

A

MVC BSD

  1. ⬇︎ Cardiac Output (Valvular Dz/HOCM/Pulm HTN/PE/Tamponade/myxoma/aFib)
  2. Bradyarrhythmia (SA Node dysfunction/AV Block)
  3. [VANS - Vasovagal Autonomic Neurocardiogenic Syncope]
  4. Dehydration
  5. Stroke
  6. Metabolic (⬇︎Glucose vs ⬇︎Na+)

OBTAIN ECHOS ON ANY PT WITH SUSPICIOUS SYNCOPE!

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25
Q

clinical presentation for Disseminated Histoplasmosis - 4

A

“Histoplasma spreads to PBS L

  1. Pulmonary
  2. [Blood (pancytopenia 2/2 marrow infiltration)]

3 [Skin (Mucocutaneous papules/nodules)]

  1. [Lymphatic RES involvement]

________________

  • RES = ReticuloEndothelial System (Lymph node/Spleen/Liver)*
  • Dx = serum or urine Histoplasma antigen immunoassay*
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26
Q

Acute Leukemia will present with signs of _____

Which acute leukemia is associated with Auer rods (eosinophilic inclusions)?

A

PANcytopenia ; promyelocytic M3 (chromo 1517)

Dx = smear showing blast –> flow cytometry for confirmation

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27
Q

what is the major potential adverse effect of Ginkgo?

A

INC bleeding

(especially if combined with ASA/antiplatelet drugs)

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28
Q

Licorice is commonly found in ⬜

________________

how does iv z dlldfx affect BP?

A

herbal teas;

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29
Q

A pt has a single episode of major depression but responds well to antidepressant SSRI tx

What do you do when he ask to stop the SSRI since he’s now feeling “great”?

A

At Remission, Cont Antidepressant rx for an additional 4-9 months then d/c

________________

  • This is called continuation phase tx*
  • Pt with multiple episodes of MDD should cont SSRI for additional 1-3 years after reaching remission and indefinitely if their depression is SEVERE*
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30
Q

[LEMS - Lambert Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome] Clinical Presentation - 3

A
  1. Weakness of [Proximal limbs and trunk] mimicking myopathy, better with exercise
  2. Autonomic sx (Dry mouth /Orthostasis / Impotence)
  3. ⬇︎Deep Tendon Reflexes
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31
Q

A: Potters Sequence etx

B: Clinical Presentation - 6

A

A: [Fetal Renal Agenesis bilaterally / Dysfunction] –> Oligohydraminos (No Amniotic Fluid)

B: POTTER

Pulm hypOplasia

Oligohydraminos

Twisted Face

Twisted and shortened Limbs

Ears set low

Renal agenesis = cause

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32
Q

management of Acute Mastoiditis -2

A

[middle ear drainage (via mastoidectomy or {tympanostomy +/- ear tube placement})]

+

IV Abx

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33
Q

Between [Prerenal failure] and [Acute Tubular Necrosis -Intrinsic renal failure]

which responds to aggressive IVF?

A

[Prerenal failure]

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34
Q

Acute Tubular Necrosis (a type of ⬜ renal failure) is caused by what 3 things?

A

intrinsic

________________

ATN comes from SIN

Sepsis

Ischemia

Nephrotoxic meds

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35
Q

Patient s/p severe hypOtension subsequently develops oliguria

Dx?

________________

Management? -4

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

  • look for muddy brown cast & FENa>2%*
  • ________________*
    1. Maintain Euvolemia
    2. Maintain Electrolytes
    3. Maintain Nephrotoxin avoidance (ACE inhibitors/ARBS/NSAIDs)
    4. Hemodialysis if AEIOU (ph<7.1/hyperK/intoxication/overload-Fluid/uremia)
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36
Q

Adolescents have ⇪ risk for peripartum complications

What are the fetal complications?

________________

etx?

A
  1. PRETERM DELIVERY
  2. low birth wt
  3. perinatal Mortality
  4. [Maternal anemia]
  5. [Maternal Preeclampsia]

________________

Inadequate nutrition and physiologic immaturity

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37
Q

After receiving anesthesia, pt develops hypOtension, elevated peak pressures and DEC end tidal CO2. This is concerning for ⬜

how should you work this up? Tx?

A

ddx: Anaphylaxis (to rocuronium/abx/skin antisepsis products/blood);
dx: PHYSICAL EXAM (look for cutaneous rash/flushing!)
tx: Epinephrine

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38
Q

All women planning pregnancy should take

[⬜ mg (or ⬜ mg if HIGH RISK) of ⬜ for ⬜] prior to conception to ⬇︎risk of Neural Tube Defects

________________

A

[0.4 (or 4 IF HIGH RISK) mg daily] of folic acid B9 ; ≥1 month

________________

high risk = antiepileptics / prior NTD pregnancy

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39
Q

Anaphylaxis is difficult to diagnose in peds

describe the criteria

________________

Tx for peds Anaphylaxis

A

after allergen exposure, pt has acute allergic sx in ≥2 systems

  • [Skin/Neurologic/Respiratory/CV/GI]*
  • ________________*

[Epinephrine 0.1 mg/kg IM]

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40
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease

MOD

A

normocytic normochromic anemia that occurs in patients with chronic medical conditions

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41
Q

Describe the Approach to a patient who’s resistant to disclosing genetic test results with relatives also at risk? -2

A

[acknowledge their resistance] + [open ended questioning/motivational interviewing]

________________

“You have reasons for not wanting to contact your brother; what are some possible benefits of sharing the results?”

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42
Q

at what hgb should you consider blood transfusion?

A

hgb < 7

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43
Q

Metformin can dangerously cause ⬜

Name Metformin contraindications? -5

________________

how is iodine contrast related to Metformin?

A

lactic acidosis ;

  1. renal failure
  2. liver dysfxn
  3. EtOH abuse
  4. sepsis
  5. CHF (especially if GFR < 30)

________________

[large dose IV iodine contrast] ⇪ lactic acidosis risk … so Metformin IS HELD ON DAY contrast is given ➜ Metformin restarted 2 days later

________________

common SE = GI upset and VB12 malabsorption

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44
Q

BPPV (Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo) etx and CP-3

A

Ca+ otoliths accumulated within semicircular canals –> Dizzines, Nystagmus and Nausea only

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45
Q

By 18 years old, a fully immunized patient should have ⬜ total [TETANUS toxoid vaccines] .

Name the vaccines and what age they’re given

A

5

________________

[DTaP = (2 / 4 / 6 / 15 ) months old]

+

[TDaP at 11 years old]

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46
Q

Causes of Papillary Necrosis - 5

________________

MOD

A

NSAID

  1. NSAIDs
  2. Sickle Cell
  3. Analgesic/ASA/APAP abuse
  4. Infection from PYELO
  5. DM

________________

NSAID ➜ BL ATiN ➜ [vasa recta vasoconstriction] ➜ [chronic renal papilla necrosis] ➜ [papilla sloughing]

➜ gross hematuria/ proteinuria / [pyuria with WBC cast] / [neg urine cx] + renal colic

tx = correct underlying etx

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47
Q

[Cell-free fetal DNA test] is routinely offered at ⬜ weeks gestation prenatal screens to ⬜ patients due to ⬜

________________

What does [Cell-free fetal DNA test] screen for? -4

A

≥10WG ; [Advanced Maternal age > 35 yof] ; higher risk of chromosomal abnormalities in this group

________________

  1. [Pateau trisomy 13]
  2. [Edwards trisomy 18]
  3. [Down syndrome trisomy 21]
  4. Sex Chromosome aneuploidies
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48
Q

Cerebral Palsy is a group of clinical syndromes generally characterized as ______

What are the 3 types? What’s the greatest risk factor for Cerebral Palsy?

A

Nonprogressive motor dysfunction ;

Cerebral Palsy is just SAD

  1. Spastic
  2. Ataxic
  3. Dyskinetic

Greatest RF = prematurity ( < 32 wks gestation) but EtOH is second

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49
Q

Childhood Absence Epilepsy

cp

________________

Dx?

________________

Tx?

A

multiple brief (< 20 seconds) lapses in consciousness every day

________________

[EEG 3 Hz Spike] ; Ethosuximide

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50
Q

clinical course for Guillain Barre syndrome

A

[progressive ascending motor weakness +/- paralysis over 2 wks] ➜

[plateau x 2-4 wks] ➜

[spontaneous recovery over months]

________________

tx (plasma EXchange/ IVIG ) shortens course duration by 50%

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51
Q

describe clinical course for this infant

A

[superficicial infantile hemangioma] proliferate and grow the 1st year of life

BUT REGRESS EARLY CHILDHOOD

= observation only unless cosmetic/bleeding/functional impairment

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52
Q

clinical course for [Dengue Yellow Fever]

A

[4-7d incubation by Aedes mosquito] ➜ SEVERE [break bone MARF] + [hemorrhagic sx (tourniquet petechiae)]

—–(POSSIBLY)—->

[DENGUE SHOCK = LIFE THREATENING CAPILLARY LEAKAGE ➜ CIRCULATORY COLLAPSE, 3RD SPACING, END ORGAN DAMAGE]

________________

[break bone MARF =Myalgia/Arthralgia/Retroorbital Pain/FEVER]

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53
Q

Clinical presentation for Illness Anxiety disorder

A

Anxiety over the possibility of having a specific Illness even though there are little to no symptoms

In Somatic symptom disorder….Somatic symptoms ARE present!

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54
Q

PML Clinically Presents like Multiple Sclerosis

Describe PML-Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy

A

Opportunistic infection 2º to [John Cunningham PolyomaVirus]—-> [multiple white matter lesions] (Hyperintense Flair signal on radiology) –> Death vs. Severe Neuro injury

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55
Q

Conflict arises between multiple children of a terminally ill patient regarding his medical decisions

Management?

A

Hospital ETHICS Committee

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56
Q

Congenital Rubella

Sx -3

A
  1. eye❌
  2. hearing❌
  3. heart❌
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57
Q

Congenital Toxoplasmosis is given to baby via ⬜ but acquired by Mom via ⬜-3

________________

Sx-4

A

Transplacental

  • Raw undercooked meat
  • unwashed produce (contaminated soil)
  • cat feces

________________

Tox- HICH

Hydrocephalus

Intracranial Calcifications

Chorioretinitis

(also Hearing impairment)

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58
Q

Tx for Congenital Toxoplasmosis -3

A

Pyrimethamine

SulfaDiazine

Folinic acid

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59
Q

cp for Febrile Seizure -4

________________

⬜ is the primary management. When do you give [Abortive Antiepileptics]?

A
  1. [child [6 month - 5 year old] with [< 15m nonfocal seizure]]
  2. NO previous afebrile seizure within prior 24h
  3. NO signs of CNS infection (meningismus, bulging fontanelles)
  4. NO acute metabolic derangement (hypOglycemia)

________________

tx = AntiPyretics ➜ [AntiEpileptics if seizure ≥5 min]

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60
Q

cp for Meckel’s Diverticulum

________________

dx

A

PAINLESS hematochezia

________________

technetium 99 pertechnetate scan

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61
Q

cp for [Measles rubeOla] -2

A

[fever + conjunctivitis + coryza + Koplik spots + cough] prodrome –(2-4days)–> [maculopapular rash sspreading head to body]

________________

tx = supportive +/- [Vitamin A if hospitalized]

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62
Q

cp for [Suppurative Bacterial Otitis Media]

A

[fever + cranky] ➜ [purulent ear drainage + resolution of cranky]

and [NO pinna manipulation pain]

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63
Q

[Suppurative Bacterial Otitis Media] etx

A

GASP (from nasopharynx) infects middle ear ➜ TM pressure/bulging –(if untreated)–> TM perforation ➜ otorrhea purulent ear drainage with [NO pinna manipulation pain] = SBOM

________________

[fever + cranky] ➜ [purulent ear drainage with resolution of cranky] but with [NO pinna manipulation pain]

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64
Q

Asymptomatic Bacteriuria is self-limited to 2 weeks, and defined as ⬜ + ⬜

________________

Which 3 populations should actually be treated for Asymptomatic Bacteriuria?

A

[clean catch urine > 100,000 CFU/mL of ≥1 organism]

+

[No UTI sx(SUD)]

________________

Pregnant / [urologic procedures] / [within 3 mo kidney transplant]

_________________

SUD: Suprapubic TTP/Urinary Freq-Urgency/Dysuria

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65
Q

Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB) CP - 3

A

DLB at the DMV

  1. Dementia confusion periodically
  2. MichaelJFox Parkinsonism (PARK + hamp) tht does NOT respond to dopaminergic tx
  3. Visual Hallucinations

Lewy Body= [LABS (Lewy α-synuclein BodieS)] that are Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic accumulations

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66
Q

Describe insulin regimen for IDDM or Type 1

________________

A

Basal + [3 prn meal]

  • basal = [NPH BID] or [GluLargine QD]*
  • ________________*
  • ​ 3 prn meal = [3 reg insulin c meals]*
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67
Q

Describe what Transferrin measures?

A

The amount of iron being transferred in the blood

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68
Q

Describe what Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) measures?

A

The Capacity of Iron transferrin can actually carry

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69
Q

In peds > 1 yo ⬜ and/or ⬜ are primary contributors to the development of iron deficiency anemia

How does this present?

A

[excessive milk intake > 24 oz/day] ; [low intake of iron-rich food]

________________

microcytic anemia + elevated RDW

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70
Q

Frontotemporal Pick’s Dementia

Sx -2

A

Prounouced Frontal & Temporal lobe atrophy –>

[Socially inappropriate Behavior] + aphasia

OCCURS MORE IN FEMALES!!!

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71
Q

Demographic of Frontotemporal Pick’s Dementia?

________________

Mode Of Inheritance

A

50-60 yo Females

________________

AUTO DOM

________________

Alzheimers >60 yo

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72
Q

⬜ can be confirmed with ⬜. | (⬜3) are major risk factors

A

candida Intertrigo ; KOH exam

________________

obestiy / DM / immunosuppresion

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73
Q

Diagnosis? Tx?

A

candida Intertrigo

(occurs in inguinal/perineal/genital/intergluteal/inframammary)

________________

Topical Antifungals

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74
Q

diagnosis? | tx?-2

A

[Tinea capitis ring worm]

________________

[PO griseofulvin] or [PO terbinafine]

cp = scaly pruritic erythematous patches of hair loss

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75
Q

Diagnosis?

What other syndrome is this disease a/w?

A

Hirschsprung disease

________________

DOWN SYNDROME trisomy 21

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76
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Panic disorder - 2

A
  1. Panic attacks +
  2. Persistent concern about additional attacks and +/- attempts to avoid them

Be sure to r/u medical conditions that mimic them

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77
Q

Disulfiram MOA

________________

How do you decide if you should give a patient Disulfiram or Naltrexone?

A

[inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase ➜ SEVERE NV with EtOH] ;

Disulfiram for [Die-Hard ABSTINENTS who want to stay Abstinent]

________________

Naltrexone ( ⬇︎EtOH cravings) for [moderate/SEVERE Alcoholism in opioid-free patients that are Alcoholic]

________________

[acamprosate (glutamate modulator)] is also used in Alcoholism

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78
Q

During pregnancy, what’s Oxytocin indicated for?

A

labor protraction 2/2 inadequate uterine contractions < every 3-5 min

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79
Q

dx for Acute Cholecystitis -2

________________

What if this method is inconclusive?

A

Ultrasound showing

[cholelithiasis]

+

[gallbladder wall thickening] OR [sonographic Murphy sign]

________________

➜ HIDA (if above inconclusive)

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80
Q

Dx for Creutzfeldt Jakob disease - 6

A
  1. [PRNP prion protein] genetic testing
  2. EEG Biphasic vs Triphasic sharp wave complexes
  3. Postmortem brain biopsy
  4. ⬆︎CSF 14-3-3 proteins
  5. MRI Cortical Ribbons
  6. MRI basal ganglia hyperintensity
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81
Q

Dx?

A

Varicella Zoster shingles

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82
Q

Dx?

A

[Poison Ivy Type 4 Contact Dermatitis]

________________

pruritic linear papules and clear fluid-filled vesicles on exposed areas - after camping

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83
Q

Management? -3

A

[Poison Ivy Type 4 Contact Dermatitis]

________________

[Minimize spread (remove contaminated clothes + gently clean exposed areas)] ➜ [Symptomatic Tx (topical CTS+cool compress] ➜

[PO CTS if SEVERE/facial/genitalia dermatitis]

________________

pruritic linear papules and clear fluid-filled vesicles on exposed areas - after camping

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84
Q

Dx? | Management?-2

A

Vetebral Compression Fracture

pain control + resume normal activity ASAP (NO unnecessary bed rest)

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85
Q

Dx? Clinical Course?

A

[Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum] ; [benign asx erythematous papules/pustules in 1st 2 weeks of life ➜ resolve within 1 week]

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86
Q

dx? organism that causes it?

A

Tinea Cruris ; Trichophyton rubrum

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87
Q

Endometrial Polyps cause what type of vaginal bleeding?

A

intermenstrual vaginal bleeding

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88
Q

⬜ is a risk factor for developing Eosinophilic Esophagitis (which is triggered by ⬜)

cp? -3

________________

Tx?

A

ATOPY (asthma/food allergy/eczema) ; food antigens

  1. dysphagia
  2. reflux/regurgitation
  3. epigastric abd pain
  4. [eosinophilic esophageal linear furrows on endoscopy]

__________________

elimination diet | PPI | Topical CTS (fluticasone spray)

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89
Q

Erysipelas, most commonly caused by ⬜, presents as (⬜2) . The 1st line Tx is ⬜

A

GASP; fever + [acute rapidly spreading erythema with well demarcated and raised borders]

________________

PCN

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90
Q

Explain what an XR with a posterior fat pad indicates?

A

[nondisplaced OCCULT fracture (usually supracondylar)]

________________

fat pad = radiolucency posterior to humerus that represents displaced fat 2/2 traumatic elbow effusion

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91
Q

Genetic Consultation for recurrent miscarriage is required for women with ≥ ⬜ spontaneous abortions

A

≥3

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92
Q

When it’s indicated, Group B Strep prophylaxis abx must be given ≥4 hours before delivery to be adequate!

________________

How do you manage postpartum neonatal GBS prevention

A
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93
Q

When it’s indicated, Group B Strep prophylaxis abx (which consist of ⬜ ) must be given ⬜ hours before delivery to be adequate!

________________

How do you manage neonatal GBS prevention POSTpartum

A

[PCNor ampicillin or ceFAZolin] ; ≥4

________________

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94
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome in kids p/w ⬜ secondary to which 2 microbes?

________________

Name the 3 clinical features of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome

A

bloody diarrhea ; [EColi O157:H7] or [Shigella dysenteriae]

________________

[HUS HAT]

[Hemolytic Anemia (schistocytes)] / AKI / Thrombocytopenia

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95
Q

[Hidradenitis Suppurativa Acne Inversa] etx

________________

cp?

A

chronic recurring inflammatory occlusion of the FolliculoPiloSebaceous units –>

Painful intertriginous nodules that can –> abscess and scarring

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96
Q

[Hidradenitis Suppurativa Acne Inversa] management for:

mild

Moderate

SEVERE -2

A

[Topical Clindamycin]

________________

sinus tracts/scar formation

[PO Doxy]

________________

EXTENSIVE SINUS TRACT/DIFFUSE

[surgical incision + infliximab (TNFα-inhibitors)]

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97
Q

how do you diagnose Bronchogenic Carcinoma (or any endobronchial obstructing lesion) ?

Name an alternative

A

[CONFIRMATORY FLEXIBLE BRONCHOSCOPY]

________or_________

[alternative nonConfirmatory HRCT]

_______________

HRCT: High Res CT

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98
Q

Describe the Pre-operation management for aFib

A
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99
Q

How do you manage newly diagnosed [LCIS (Lobular carcinoma in situ)]

A

LCIS is nonmalignant, but still has ⇪ risk for development into [invasive breast CA or DCIS] = excisional biopsy + lifetime surveillance

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100
Q

how do you mitigate [DEC appetite] in kids taking Stimulants for ADHD? -3

A
  1. [monitor growth (if compromised ➜ drug holiday vs nonstimulant alternative)]
  2. adjust administration time (i.e. after breakfast)
  3. eat nutrient-dense meals around medication’s active period
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101
Q

how do you treat acute asthma exacerbation in pregnant patients? -3

A

same as non-pregnant asthma exacerbation = BOC

[BronchoDilator (albuterol+ipratropium ➜ terbutaline ➜ Magnesium IV)]

CTS PO

Oyxgen to SaO2 ≥95% (nonpregnant ≥90%)

________________

short term CTS benefit > minor risk in pregnant patients

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102
Q

How does [GnRH agonist] help treat Leiomyoma?

A

GnRH agonist ➜ temporary amenorrhea ➜ ⬇︎Leiomyoma size and ⬇︎vaginal bleeding

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103
Q

How is smoking related to surgery?

A

smoking cessation ≥4 weeks prior to surgery ⬇︎ pulmonary complication risk postop

PFT, ABG, etc. preop will not help

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104
Q

[FENa (Fractional Excretion of Na+] for Prerenal failure?

________________

FENa for Acute Tubular Necrosis?

________________

explain why

A

Prerenal failure FENa < 1%

________________

ATN Intrinsic renal failure FENa > 2%

________________

Prerenal failure ➜ Na+ conservation

ATN impairs Na+ reabsorption ➜ more Na+ in urine

105
Q

Huntington’s Dz Clinical Presentation (2)

A
  • “Hunting 4​ food is way too aggressive & dancey”*
    1st: Aggressive Dementia w/ strange behavior
    2nd: Dance-like Chorea mvmnts
  • AUTO DOM = Affects BOTH sexes equally!!*
106
Q

[Nausea/Vomiting in Pregnancy] ranges from mild to severe. Severe NVP is AKA ⬜

What’s sx discern [mild NVP] from [SEVERE NVP] -3

________________

How do you manage mild NVP? -3

A
  • SEVERE NVP = HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM*
  • ________________*
107
Q

[Nausea/Vomiting in Pregnancy] ranges from mild to severe. Severe NVP is AKA ⬜

What’s sx discern [mild NVP] from [SEVERE NVP] -3

________________

How do you manage [SEVERE NVP]? -3

A
  • SEVERE NVP = HYPEREMESIS GRAVIDARUM*
  • ________________*
108
Q

On a Central Tendency Graph below Identify

Mean, Median, Mode

A

cOIN

central tendency graph =

1: mOde
2: medIan
3. meaN

109
Q

In Infants, what is “Periodic Breathing” ?

A

BENIGN physiologic breathing pattern in young infants in which they demonstrate

(➜ [breath pause x 5-10 seconds] ➜ [rapid shallow breaths x 10-15 seconds] ➜)

x several cycles before returning to normal breathing

110
Q

In Infants, what is [Apnea of Prematurity]?

A

[TRUE apnea episodes ≥20 seconds] in premature infants, that resolves by [corrected gestational age 37 WG]

111
Q

Injury to the ⬜ causes ⬇︎ ability to Dorsiflex

A

[(DCP) Deep Common Peroneal nerve]

________________

Damaged DCP ➜ DEC Dorsiflex

112
Q

Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

A

Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis = Joint Inflammation by Autoantibodies

autoantibody-induced joint inflammation ➜ chronic pain/swelling of multiple joints (wrist/ankles)

113
Q

Large volume Hematochezia should make you suspicious for (⬜ upper|lower) GI bleed , which should be evaluated with ⬜ after IVF

________________

Hematochezia = Bright Red Blood Per Rectum

A

brisk UPPER ; EGD

________________

hematochezia (BRBPR) is usually a/w lower GI bleed but BRISK upper GI bleeds also cause hematochezia

114
Q

[DLB (Dementia with Lewy Bodies)] Tx

A

Rivastigmine AChinesterase inhibitor

115
Q

Select mode of Delivery (Vaginal | Cesarean) for [Dichorionic Diamniotic twins] positioned:

Vertex/Vertex

________________

Vertex/BREECH

________________

BREECH/Vertex

________________

BREECH/BREECH

A
116
Q

List the Sexual Side Effects of SSRI

________________

How do you manage this? -3

A

⬇︎Libido | ⬇︎Orgasm | ⬇︎(delayed) ejaculation

________________

  • SWITCH to non-SSRI (buproprion/mirtazapine)
  • AUGMENT with buproprion/sildenafil
  • DOSAGE reduce cautiously (for pts taking high-dose/long term SSRI)
117
Q

Malrotation and Volvulus are both diagnosed with ⬜

What would Volvulus look like on this diagnostic?

A

[Upper GI series barium swallow]

corkscrew image

Try not to use CT scans in kids

118
Q

Malrotation and Volvulus are both diagnosed with ⬜

What would Volvulus look like on this diagnostic?

A

[Upper GI series barium swallow]

corkscrew image

Try not to use CT scans in kids

119
Q

4 most common symptoms of Heat Stroke

________________

A
  1. Hyperthermia
  2. [Flushed but not sweaty Skin]
  3. [Neuro⬇︎ (Confusion/Dizziness/Agitation/Seizure/HA/LOC)]
  4. Tachycardia

________________

[⬇︎ core temp by 0.2C/minute] using [Augmentation of EVAPORATIVE COOLING]

120
Q

Most Cryptogenic Stroke are ⬜ in origin. What is Cryptogenic Stroke ⬜ ?

Describe thew workup? -2

A

embolic;

ischemic stroke w/o obvious source on initial eval

________________

advanced cardiac imaging + ambulatory cardiac monitoring

to detect paroxysmal arrhythmia (afib)

121
Q

Name 4 distinguishing features for differentiating NonAllergic rhinitis from Allergic Rhinitis

________________

Tx for NAR? -2

A
  1. > 20 yo
  2. Nasal sx mostly (little ocular sx) - blockage/rhinorrhea/postnasal drip
  3. No identifiable allergen
  4. sx throughout the year

________________

[Intranasal Fluticasone] or [Intranasal Azelastine (antihistamine)]

122
Q

Marfan Syndrome and Ehlers Danlos can present similarly

How do you discern the two?-2 ; What is the etx for Ehlers Danlos?

A

“Marfan BAATHES a lot! “

BUT Ehlers Danlos does NOT have

  1. Ectopia Lentis
  2. Arm-to-Height Ratio that’s INC

Ehlers Danlos etx = defective collagen production

123
Q

Name the 7 most common manifestations of Marfan Syndrome

etx = mutation of fibrillin 1 gene

A

“Marfan BAATHES a lot! “

  1. Ectopia Lentis
  2. Arm-to-Height Ratio ⬆︎
  3. Heart issues (MVP or [idiopathic Aortic cystic medial degeneration]–> Aortic Dissection and Aneurysm)
  4. Scoliosis vs. Kyphosis
  5. Breastbone structural abnormalities
  6. Arachnodactyly (Steinberg thumb & wrist)
  7. Tall / slender / flat feet

etx = mutation of fibrillin 1 gene

124
Q

Name the markers of onset Puberty for

Girls

________________

Boys

A

[girls wth NO Breast by 12 yo]

________________

[boys with NO (testicular enlargement ≥4 mL) by 14 yo]

________________

delayed secondary sexual characteristics + delayed XR bone age = [Constitutional Delay of Puberty]

125
Q

For teens, what’s the difference/define [Constitutional Delay of Puberty]-4

and [Familial Short Stature]-2 ?

A

[Constitutional DELAY of Puberty] = [DELAYED secondary sexcharacteristics] + [DELAYED XR wrist bone age] + [DELAYED“short” height] + [DELAYED sx also in fam hx]

________________

[Familial Short Stature] = Short Stature + [Normal XR wrist bone age]

________________

BOTH MUST HAVE NORMAL GROWTH VELOCITY

126
Q

Newborn failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of birth likely indicates ⬜

how is this diagnosed? -3

A

Hirschsprung Disease

________________

Abd XR ➜ [contrast enema showing transition zone] ➜ [RECTAL SUCTION BIOPSY (gold standard)]

127
Q

Newborn failure to pass meconium within 48 hours of birth likely indicates ⬜

MOD

A

Hirschsprung Disease

________________

[absence of ganglion cells in rectosigmoid (confirmed by rectal suction biopsy)] ➜ transition zone cutoff between

[narrow aganglionic rectosigmoid] and [markedly dilated innervated descending colon] EARLY AFTER BIRTH

128
Q

normal ALP level

________________

ALP = Alkaline Phosphatase

A

25 - 100

129
Q

normal blood glucose is ⬜

What is Whipple’s triad and what does it indicate?

A

60-100

(some people can go down to 45 with no sx)

________________

Whipples = [low BG] + [low BG sx] + [sx improve after glucose administration] = true hypOglycemia

________________

hypOglycemia sx = need PISH juice = Palpitations/Irritability/Sweating/HA

130
Q

Octreotide is a ⬜ used to treat ⬜

________________

explain how

A

[somatostatin 14 analogue] ; [Somatotrope - Functional Pituitary Adenoma]

________________

inhibits [pituitary somatotrope] from releasing Growth Hormone in a [functional pituitary adenoma]

131
Q

Oligohydramnios –> ⬜ sequence.

Name the 3 most common causes of Oligohydramnios

A

Oligohydraminos –> POTTER Sequence

POSTERIOR URETHRAL VALVES are the most common cause of obstruction in newborn boys (which causes renal damage –> oligohydramnios during utero)

132
Q

Oligohydramnios –> ⬜ sequence.

Name the 3 most common causes of Oligohydramnios

A

Oligohydraminos –> POTTER Sequence

POSTERIOR URETHRAL VALVES are the most common cause of obstruction in newborn boys (which causes renal damage –> oligohydramnios during utero)

133
Q

organisms most commonly associated with

dental abscess -2

A

Streptococcus

PeptoStreptococcus

134
Q

organisms most commonly associated with

Infective Endocarditis -3

A

Staph

Strep

Enterococci

135
Q

organisms most commonly associated with

intraAbdominal -2

A

E coli

Bacteroides fragilis

136
Q

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome etx

A

rare complication of ovulation induction.

etx: hCG injections which artifically matures follicles for IVF ➜BILATERAL OVARY ENLARGEMENT WITH TOO MANY FOLLICLES

PLUS ovaries overexpress [Vascular endothelial growth factor] =

[INC Ovarian VEGF] ➜ INC capillary permeability ➜ abd 3rd spacing ➜ [ascites/effusions/electrolyte imbalance] ➜ eventually

renal failure, hypOvolemic shock, hemoconcentration, hypercoagulability, DIC, death

137
Q

Patient is diagnosed with HOCM

what would an [Implantable Cardioverter-defibrillator] be used to prevent in HOCM pts?

________________

diagnostic criteria? -2

A

Sudden Cardiac Death

________________

HOCM + ≥1 risk factor

________________

risk factors: [SCD in close relative<50 yo]/suspected syncope from Vt Arrhythmia/LV<50%

138
Q

patient p/w ascities

How do you diagnose Spontanous Bacterial Peritonitis?

A

Cell Count ≥250

139
Q

Patient presents with Suicidal Ideation

What 2 factors determine if this patient should receive inpatient tx or outpatient tx?

A

+Ideation

[+PLAN and +INTENT] = Inpatient Tx

[No Plan and No Intent] = Outpatient tx

________________

140
Q

Patients with bicuspid aoritc valve are also at risk for developing what 3 aortic abnormalities?

A

aortic DISSECTION

aortic ANEURYSM

aortic DILATION

________________

screen aortic root and proximal aorta

141
Q

Pediatric patient comes in with c/f PNA

What are the 4 classic symptoms of PNA?

________________

How do you work up pediatric PNA ?

A

PNA? FACT

Fever / Adventitious lung sounds / Cough / Tachypnea

________________

142
Q

Which abx is used for [Community Acquired PNA]?

A

high-dose oral AMOXICILLIN

________________

PNA? FACT

143
Q

Pediatric patient p/w new diagnosis of Major Depressive Disorder

In addition to CBT, what’s 1st line pharmacotherapy for pediatric MDD?

________________

What’s the black box warning of this drug in pediatrics?

A

Fluoxetine

________________

increased risk of suicidal thinking in pediatric patients

144
Q

Pineal tumors p/w ⬜ syndrome and some are ⬜ that secrete ⬜

Describe cp for this syndrome -4

A

[Parinaud’s dorsal midbrain syndrome] ; Germinomas ; HCG

________________

Vertical Gaze paralysis

ataxia

pupil light rxn LOSS

nystagmus LOSS

145
Q

[Nevus Simplex] are ⬜ , classically located on ⬜-3

A

[blanchable pink patches ➜ fade with time]

________________

[eyelids / glabella (between eyebrows) / nape of neck]

146
Q

[Port-Wine Stain (Nevus Flammeus)] are [⬜ common | uncommon] and may be a/w with what syndrome? Explain

A

UNcommon ; sturge weber = possible leptomeningeal vascular malformations = obtain brain MRI for evaluation

147
Q

prior to medium/high risk procedures, interrupting ⬜ is necessary to DEC surgical bleeding

________________

which patients do require bridging prior to surgery?

A

[anticoagulation 1-3 days before surgery]

________________

pts on warfarin must be bridged to [Enoxaparin LMWH] if they are CHADS VASC ≥7, recent stroke, mechanical valve or moderate risk

148
Q

Prolactin level of ⬜ = Prolactinoma

________________

Tx? -2

A

> 200

________________

[Cabergoline (dopamine agonist)] < 1cm < [Surgery for MACROademona]

149
Q

Pt presents with Fever, Jaundice and RUQ pain

Management? -2

A

[ERCP biliary decompression/drainage - within 48h]

+

enteric abx

________________

dz = Acute Cholangitis

150
Q

Pt s/p penile circumcision develops postprocedural bleeding

management?

A

apply compressive elastic dressing (direct pressure) to bleeding surgical site, BUT ONLY FOR SHORT TIME (to prevent necrosis)

and then remove [compressive elastic dressing] after hemostasis … and prior to discharge

151
Q

postop

CXR shows [linear opacifications in the b/l lung bases]

dx?

A

Atelectasis

152
Q

Postoperative atelectasis is common ⬜ days after operation

________________

how is this managed? -2

A

2-5

________________

+respiratory secretions = [Chest Physiotherapy + suctioning]

NO respiratory secretions = CPAP

153
Q

Name the 6 major causes of Postoperative Hypoxemia

A
154
Q

pt with Eisenmenger syndrome wants to get pregnant

What should you tell her?

A

Pregnancy is a contraindication for pts with Eisenmenger syndrome (untreated VSD/HF) due to high maternal mortality rate and poor fetal pgn

Pregnancy should be avoided/terminated

155
Q

Pt (without previous DM) now with gestational DM delivers baby w/o complication

How do you manage her postpartum course? -2

A

d/c antiHyperglycemic therapy after delivery

➜ At [6-12 wk postpartum] = [2h oral glucose tolerance test] (due to ⇪ DM2 risk)

156
Q

⬜ is the leading cause of death in pts with Acromegaly. What other comorbidity are they at risk for?

________________

which comorbidity is reversible with treatment?

A

[Cardiovascular disease (REVERSIBLE)] ; Colon CA

________________

Cardiovascular Disease is reversible with tx

157
Q

Although RARE, Recurrent Pulmonary Embolism can (rarely) present as nonresolving ⬜ , but will have what distinguishing symptom?

A

[persistent Recurrent PNA] ; [pleuritic cp with hypoxia]

158
Q

Pts with Giardiasis should refrain from attending ⬜ to minimize disease transmission

________________

Tx for Giardiasis? -3

A

[Tinidazole or NiTazoxanide]

➜ [metronidazole (2nd line/kids)]

159
Q

Giardiasis is transmitted via ⬜-2

What are the Risk factors for Giardiasis -3

A

Fecal-Oral or ingestion

________________

Contaminated food/water

Fecal incontinence with crowding (day care/nursing home)

Immunodeficiency

⬇︎ with hand sanitizer

160
Q

s/s of Opioid Withdrawal -7

A

the MAILMAN went through opioid withdrawal!

MyDriasis

Abd cramps

Irritability

Lacrimation

Myalgia

Arthralgias

NV

161
Q

S3 on auscultation typically indicates ⬜, but why is S3 less useful in younger patients < 40 yo?

A

Ventricular Enlargement (HF) ;

S3 = NORMAL FINDING IN YOUNG PTS<40 y/o

162
Q

Seizures and Syncope are difficult to differentiate

Name features that help differentiate Seizures from Syncope - 3

A

Seizures has…

  1. Postictal confusion & lethargy
  2. Triggered by flashing lights
  3. Tongue laceration

beware: Clonic jerks can occur during syncope associated w/cerebral hypoxia!!

163
Q

SjoGren Syndrome sx -4

________________

Dx labs -2?

A
164
Q

St.John’s wort is an OTC herbal supplement used alternatively for ⬜.

Why should it be used with caution?

A

[mild/moderate depression]

________________

It upregulates [CYP P450] ➜ ⇪ metabolism

165
Q

Stimulant toxicity and Anticholinergic toxicity have a lot of sx overlap

What symptom helps to differentiate the two?

A

SKIN

________________

Sweating = Stimulant tox

ALL Dry = Anticholinergic tox

166
Q

Sydenham chorea is one of the Major features of ⬜

Describe Sydenham chorea clinical presentation

________________

tx for Sydenham chorea?

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever

________________

[DANCING: MIND(emotionally labile) / FACE / HANDS / FEET (rapid jerky movements)]

________________

[PCN until adulthood] (to prevent recurrent rheumatic fever)

167
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever requires (2M) or (1M/2m) for dx

List the

5 MAJOR clinical features

________________

4 minor clinical features

A

late sequelae = Mitral regurgitation/stenosis

168
Q

Tetrabenazine

  • MOA*
  • ________________*
  • Indication*
A

[dopamine R blocker] ; Huntington’s disease

169
Q

the presence of [HbA 60% : HbS 40%] on electrophoresis is c/w ⬜ . What are the subsequent sx of this?

A

Sickle Cell TRAIT = ASYMPTOMATIC (does not cause Anemia)

170
Q

the timing of neonatal jaundice differentiates [G6PD deficiency] from [Hemolytic Disease of Newborn] explain

A

neonatal jaudice presenting within first

HDN: 24 hours of life

(+ direct Coombs | A or B infant born to O mother)

________________

G6PD deficiency: 2-3 DAYS of life

171
Q

CP of VertebroBasilar TIA - 4

A

Brainstem: Diplopia, Dysarthria

Cerebellum: BL Clumsiness

Spinal Cord: BL Weakness

Labyrinths

172
Q

Transient Synovitis is a common cause of HIP pain in peds age ⬜.

Describe the clinical presentation -3

________________

Tx?

A

[3-8 yo]

  1. [Hip pain + Limp but able to bear weight still]
  2. often s/p postinfection
  3. small hip effusions on US

________________

NSAIDs (since self limited to 1-2 weeks)

173
Q

Treatment?

A

Icanthosis

topical Lactic Acid (keratolytic)

174
Q

How do you diagnose Catatonia?

A

Lorazepam challenge =

[Lorazepam 2 mg IV] ➜ observe patient ➜ if pt relieved within 5 min = catatonia.

________________

note: a negative response does NOT rule out catatonia

175
Q

Tx for Catatonia - 2

A

Lorazepam

and/or

ECT

________________

consider Lorazepam challenge = Lorazepam 2 mg IV ➜ observe result (if pt relieved within 5 min = catatonia)

176
Q

Tx for Croup-2

A
  1. Mild = Humidified air +/- CTS
  2. > Mild = CTS +/- Racemic Epi nebulized

Croup = paraflu that –> subglottic edema and narrowing

177
Q

Tx for Croup-2

A
  1. Mild = Humidified air +/- CTS
  2. > Mild = CTS +/- Racemic Epi nebulized

Croup = paraflu that –> subglottic edema and narrowing

178
Q

tx for Guillain Barre syndrome -2

________________

when is this tx indicated?

A

plasma EXCHANGE

or

IVIG

________________

nonambulatory pts should receive tx if their sx have been present < 4 wks

________________

ambulatory pts recover on their own

179
Q

Tx for Major Depression with psychotic features - 2

A
  1. ECT > antipsychotic ➕
  2. Antidepressant

Use ECT in elderly as it is more rapid acting

180
Q

tx for Malignant Necrotizing Otitis Externa (MOE) -4

A

mild = topical acetic acid

moderate = topical cipro

[SEVERE (canal 100% occluded) = wick placement adjunct]

________________

INVASIVE! = CIPRO IV

7 day treatment

181
Q

Tx for Panic Disorder - 6

A

CBT (can be used alone)(breathing technique, exposure therapy) +/-

  1. SSRI (1st line rx)
  2. SNRIs
  3. [Benzo or BBlocker for situational]
  4. TCA
  5. MAOi
    * Similar to Social Phobic Anxiety Disorder tx*
182
Q

Tx for outpatient acute pyelonephritis

A

cipro PO x 7d

________________

DW SLUFF: dysuria/WBC Pyuria/suprapubic pain/Leukocytosis/Urinary sx/Flank Pain/Fever

183
Q

Uterine Sarcoma is an aggressive CA originating from ⬜ or ⬜ tissue, and has 2 major risk factors

What are they?

A

endometrium or myometrium

________________

RF = tamoxifen vs pelvic radiation

184
Q

What are 5 ways to determine if a pt truly has Leakage of Amniotic Fluid?

A
  1. Amnisure immunoassay (detects placental ⍺-microglublin1)
  2. POOL test (there’s pool of fluid in vaginal vault)
  3. NITRAZINE test (fluid turns blue when placed on nitrazine paper since amniotic fluid is alkaline)
  4. FERN test (fern-like estrogen crystals under microscopy)
  5. US to determine fluid quantity (Normal = 6-23 cm AFI)
185
Q

What are the 2 most important clinical values to monitor for Guillain Barre syndrome?

________________

cross reacting abs against peripheral nerves

A

Negative Inspiratory Force

Tidal Volume vital capacity

________________

assess’ respiratory status

186
Q

What are the 4 main inquries pts should be asked when coming in for L&D checks?

A

Can Mom Feel Baby?

Contractions?

Movement from Fetus?

Fluid leak vaginally?

Blood leak vaginally?

187
Q

What are the clinical features of a Supracondylar Fracture -2

A
188
Q

Tx for Supracondylar Fracture that’s:

Nondisplaced ?

________________

Displaced?

A

long arm split/sling

________________

surgical reduction/pinning

189
Q

how do you prevent Tumor Lysis Syndrome? - 2

________________

how do you treat Tumor Lysis Syndrome (with AKI) -2?

________________

Why do these differ?

A

AFRF

px = AF: [Allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor)] +Fluids IV]

________________

TX (for AKI 2/2 TLS) = RF: [Rasburicase (urate oxidase analogue)] + Fluids IV]

________________

[Allopurinol prevents Additional serum uric acid formation] whilst [Rasburicase metabolizes Realtime (already existing) serum uric acid]

190
Q

What are the clinical features of Tumor Lysis Syndrome - 4

A

[cytotoxic chemotherapy] or [high grade lymphoma] ➜ tumor cell lysis ➜ release of [intracell (PUK)] ➜ makes you PUKE

  1. [⬆︎ Phosphate serum (binds and ⬇︎ serum Ca+ )] ➜ CaPO4 stones
  2. [⬆︎ Uric acid serum from pUrines (px = allopurinol and IVF) = DIAGNOSIS
  3. [⬆︎ K+ serum ( ➜ cardiac arrhythmias)]
  4. Electrolyte kidney stones ➜ AKI
191
Q

What are the renal complications of sickle cell TRAIT - 5

A
  1. Painless Hematuria 2/2 papillary necrosis
  2. Inability to concentrate urine (due to vasa recta damage)
  3. Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis
  4. UTI
  5. Renal Medullary CA

Sickle cell trait is a benign condition with Hgb AS that can cause fleeting papillary necrosis

192
Q

What are the risk factors for Uterine Rupture? -4

A

[PRIOR UTERINE SURGERY (CSection/myomectomy)]

Truama

Macrosomia

abnl placentation

193
Q

What are the toxicities for MTX?

A
194
Q

What are the major functions of [Vagus CN10] - 5

A

VAGUS

Vocal Cord Phonation

[Aortic baro/chemoreceptor Parasympathetics]

[Gag reflex - EFFerent (loss of Gag = CN9 problem)]

U‘ll COUGH reflex- when vagus receives signal afferently

[Swallowing & Palate Elevation]

Image: Left Ipsilateral CN10 palate dysfunction

195
Q

What are triggers of VAN (Vasovagal Autonomic Neurocardiogenic) Syncope? -8

A
  1. EMOTION
  2. PAIN
  3. Carotid Stimulation
  4. Prolonged Standing
  5. Coughing
  6. Meals
  7. Defecation
  8. Urination

VAN Syncope is preceded by nausea, sweating and dizziness

196
Q

Full term infant = 37 -42WG

How do you manage Preterm Labor 32 to 33+6 WG - 3

A

Pregnant Bitches Take

197
Q

Full term infant = 37 - 42WG

How do you manage Preterm Labor < 32WG - 4

A

Pregnant Bitches Take Money

198
Q

Full term infant = 37- 42WG

Most Tocolytics are not used in managing Preterm Labor 34 to 36+6 WG

Why specifically is Nifedipine not used?

A

Pregnant Bitches

Maternal hypOtension with reflex tachycardia​

199
Q

Full term infant = 37- 42WG

Most Tocolytics are not used in managing Preterm Labor 34 to 36+6 WG

Why specifically is Nifedipine not used?

A

Pregnant Bitches

Maternal hypOtension with reflex tachycardia​

200
Q

Full term infant = 37- 42WG

Most Tocolytics are not used in managing Preterm Labor 34 to 36+6 WG

Why specifically is Indomethicin not used? - 2

A

Pregnant Bitches

  1. Premature closure of ductus arteriosus
  2. Oligohydramnios
201
Q

Full term infant = 37- 42WG

Most Tocolytics are not used in managing Preterm Labor 34 to 36+6 WG

Why specifically is Mg not used?

A

Pregnant Bitches

It’s a weak tocolytic so it doesn’t actually help with slowing contractions down in preterm delivery

202
Q

What does APGAR stand for? ; How is it done? ; How is it used?

A

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace(reflex irritability), Activity(tone), Respiration

Performed at 1 and 5 min postpartum, All scaled from 0 to 2 and then added together

[< 3 = Critical] / [4-6 = fair: PPV] / [7-10 = normal: No intervention]

203
Q

What does APGAR stand for? ; How is it done? ; How is it used?

A

Appearance, Pulse, Grimace(reflex irritability), Activity(tone), Respiration

Performed at 1 and 5 min postpartum, All scaled from 0 to 2 and then added together

[< 3 = Critical] / [4-6 = fair: PPV] / [7-10 = normal: No intervention]

204
Q

What is a normal Ejection Fraction?

A

> 50%

205
Q

What is Bile Salt-Induced Diarrhea?

________________

tx?

A

5-10% of patients after [cholecystectomy vs short bowel syndrome] have ⇪ [secondary bile acids] into the large intestine ➜ INC diarrhea

________________

Cholestyramine

([bile salt-binding resin] that sequesters excess bile salts in the intestine)

206
Q

Charcot Triad consist of [⬜3] and indicates ⬜

________________

Describe this disease

A

[Fever + Jaundice + RUQ pain] = Acute Cholangitis = [bile duct gallstone obstruction] ➜ impaired biliary drainage ➜ ascension and infection of enteric bacteria in biliary duct

________________

207
Q

What is Factitious disorder?

________________

which 2 demographics does it occur most in?

A

faking/inducing illness solely to assume the sick role - WITHOUT OBVIOUS EXTERNAL BENEFIT

________________

Women | healthcare workers

208
Q

What is gallstone pancreatitis?

________________

Management for gallstone pancreatits? (mild vs severe)

A

pancreatitis (epigastric abd pain/NV/cholic/⇪ lipase) in the setting of [cholelithiasis with no EtOH or TAG]

________________

[mild (no organ dysfxn)] = cholecystectomy within 7 days of inflammation resolution

SEVERE = cholecystectomy AS SOON AS INFLAMMATION RESOLVES

209
Q

What is the diagnostic clinical criteria for Panic Disorder? - 4

________________

DSM5 no longer considers this its own DO but now as a Specifier for other conditions

A
  1. Recurrent Panic Attacks
  2. Unexpected Panic Attacks
  3. ≥1 attack is followed by ≥1 mo. of [Anticipatory Anxiety and/or behavior ∆] (details below)

  • AA = persistent worry of having another panic attack
  • behavior ∆ to try and avoid future panic attacks
    4. ≥ 4 Panic Attack Specifiers - image
  • And obvs can’t be 2/2 drugs or other condition*
210
Q

Why are abx NOT used in treating Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

________________

What is the management for Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome?

HUS HAT

A

killing bacteria could ➜ ⇪ release of Shiga toxin

________________

SUPPORTIVE CARE ONLY

(fluid/electrolyte mgmt | blood transfusions | dialysis)

211
Q

What is the mngmt for an ingested coin? - 3

A
  1. Obs for up to 1 day after ingestion UNLESS
  2. Pt is symptomatic = flexible endoscopy
  3. Pt has no recollection of ingestion time = flexible endoscopy
212
Q

What is the mngmt for an ingested coin? - 3

A
  1. Obs for up to 1 day after ingestion UNLESS
  2. Pt is symptomatic = flexible endoscopy
  3. Pt has no recollection of ingestion time = flexible endoscopy
213
Q

What is the most common cause of Fatal Sporadic Encephalitis in the U.S.? Should you use CT or MRI for dx?

A

Herpes Encephalitis ; MRI (and then CSF PCR=Gold Standard Dx)

214
Q

What is the purpose of Palliative Care? -2

A

★ [interdisciplinary ⬇︎of unnecessary medical interventions] while [⇪ quality of life for terminal/seriously ill patients (and their family)].

★ Can occur concurrently with life-prolonging tx

215
Q

What is the majority recommendation for Romantic or Sexual relationships between Physicians and current Patients?

________________

what about former patients?

A

current patient = UNETHICAL 100%

________________

former patient = Unethical if MD exploits knowledge or influence derived from previous professional relationship

216
Q

What is the strongest single risk factor for suicide

A

previous suicide attempt

217
Q

What is [Diamond Blackfan anemia]?

________________

cp? -4

A

congenital bone marrow failure in infancy

________________

  1. absent thumbs
  2. craniofacial abnormalities
  3. [SEVERE Macrocytic anemia (hgb < 9 at birth)]
  4. reticulocytopenia
218
Q

What is [Physiologic anemia of infancy]?

A

ASYMPTOMATIC and Expected DEC in newborn hgb during 1st month

2/2 INC oxygen to newborn (compared to utero) ➜ transient downregulation of erythropoietin ➜ DEC RBC

DEC RBC resultantly = [Hgb > 14 at birth] to [Hgb 9-11 by 3 months old]

After 3 months, erythropoietin drive returns to normal

________________

red flags: anemia 1st month / hgb < 9 / hemolysis (constant jaundice|reticulocytosis) / hypOchromic|microcytic RBC (iron deficiency/thalassemia)

219
Q

What new onset comorbidity should you anticipate following renal transplant?

A

DM

________________

INC insulin excretion and gluconeogenesis by healthy transplanted kidney

220
Q

What type of psychiatric side effects does CTS (CorTicoSteroids) have? - 4

A

Steroids Make People Depressed!

  1. Suicidality
  2. Mania
  3. Psychosis
  4. Depression
221
Q

What’s important to remember regarding BNP in Obese patients?

A

Obesity causes FALSELY LOW BNP levels

________________

Bigger people have Bigger BNP than they show

222
Q

pt s/p PE just started Heparin but develops HIT

What’s the first step for suspected [Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)]

________________

when is management with Warfarin typically ok to start after HIT ?

A

d/c ALLforms of Heparin ➜ alternate anticoagulants (i.e. direct thrombin inhibitors) [even if no thrombosis present]

________________

platelet > 150K

223
Q

What’s the general recommendation regarding

Exericse during Pregnancy?

A

Healthy uncomplicated pregnant women are recommended to do

[Moderate exercise 30 minutes daily - for most days of the week]

________________

yoga/walking/running/light strength training/swimming

224
Q

what’s the most effective way to improve patient sign out/handoff between providers?

A

systematic template checklist

225
Q

Which 2 organisms cause ABSCESS?

A

MsSA

MRSA

226
Q

Which 4 drugs can you give to treat HTN in pregnant patients?

A

Mothers Loathe Nefarious HTN

Methyldopa / Labetalol > Nifedipine / Hydralazine

227
Q

Which 4 Bite Wounds receive

[left open to heal by secondary intention + ⬜ prophylaxis]?

________________

Why?

A

TECH bites are left open to secondary healing with AMOX/CLAV px

  1. [Time of bite > 12 hours old]
  2. [Extremity (hand or foot) bite]
  3. [CAT bites (except if on face**)]
  4. [HUMAN bites (except if on face**)]
    * *1° < [CAT/HUMAN Face bite 24h old] < 2°*

________________

These bite wounds are high risk for subsequent infection

228
Q

Which areas of the brain are affected by [HSE-Herpes Simplex Encephalitis]? - 2

A
  1. Medial temporal
  2. Inferior frontal
229
Q

Which Second Generation Antipsychotics are most associated with

Prolonged QTc -5

A

ZIPRASIDONE >> CORQ

________________

CORQ = Clozapine/Olanzapine-Risperidone/Quetiapine

230
Q

Which Second Generation Antipsychotics are most associated with

Weight Gain -4

A

CORQ

[Clozapine | Olanzapine] > [Risperidone | Quetiapine]

231
Q

Which Skin Cancers are associated with Sun exposure?

________________

How is this prevented?

A

ALL 3!

(SQC / Basal Cell Carcinoma / Malignant Melanoma)

________________

Daily liberal application of [SPF ≥ 30 sunscreen] before/during outdoors

(Tight clothing and sun avoidance are also important but impractical)

232
Q

Which two renal pathologies is analgesic nephrophathy associated with?

A
  1. [ATiN (Acute Tubulointerstitial nephritis)]
  2. Papillary necrosis
233
Q

Why are patients undergoing [major surgery with extensive transfusions] at ⇪ risk of developing [Hyperactive Deep Tendon Reflexes]?

A

major surgery require massive blood transfusions, which has large amts of citrate (to anticoagulate blood) ➜ this [citrate chelates free serum calcium] ➜ hypOcalcemia ➜ [HYPERACTIVE Deep Tendon Reflexes]

234
Q

Why are pts who’ve experienced 1 shoulder dislocation, at even higher risk for experiencing recurrent shoulder dislocations? -2

A

[residual ligament instability/laxity]

+

[incomplete healing of prior labral tears]

235
Q

s/s of Anterior Shoulder Dislocation -5

A
  1. Flattened shoulder
  2. Acromion prominent
  3. Humeral head prominent
  4. ABduction of Arm
  5. External Rotation of Arm

________________

ANT shoulder dislocation of [glenohumeral shoulder joint]

236
Q

Why do pts with hypOthyroid require INC dose of levothyroxine if they start taking estrogen-containing OCP?

________________

how is this managed?

A

Estrogen stimulates liver to make ⇪ [thyroxine binding globulin] ➜ ⇪ binding sites to saturate➜ DEC free T3/T4

Normal thyroid ⇪ [free T3/T4] to saturate the additional TBG binding sites

BUT hypOthyroid patients are unable to INC thyroid hormone synthesis

________________

get TSH weeks after starting Estrogen-OCP and titrate to normal thyroid function

237
Q

Why is BNP an unreliable marker of volume status in patients taking [(ARNI) Angiotensin Receptor/Neprilysin Inhibitor] ?

________________

ARNI = [sacubitril-valsartan]

A

Neprilysin normally degrades BNP ➜ ARNI ➜ falsely higher BNP/overStates HF status

238
Q

You have a patient admitted to Hospice

Which 3 groups of drugs should be discontinued?

________________

Why?

A

[CV prevention] / anti-HTN / [PRN Insulin]

________________

meds taken at end of life should be comfort meds only

239
Q

You suspect a pt had an ischemic Stroke

After FIRST, ruling out Hemorrhagic stroke with ⬜ , what thrombolytic therapy should be given?

________________

When should you give it?

A

NonContrast Head CT; IV Alteplase

________________

WITHIN 4.5 HOURS OF SX ONSET!

240
Q

[T or F] Pt confidentiality shuld be maintained even when a pt is having Active suicidal ideation

A

FALLLSEE!!!!

Active (i.e. plans to hang themself) suicidal or homocideal ideation warrants breaking confidentiality and informing parents or whomever

241
Q

[1st trimester combined test] screens for ⬜ by measuring what 3 things?

________________

positive [1st trimester combined test] ➜ ⬜

A

aneuploidy; [(BNP - (βHCG/Nuchal translucency/[Pregnancy associated plasma protein A])

________________

confirmation by [chorionic villus sampling] or amniocentesis

to evaluate fetal karyotype

242
Q

[Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis] (Lou Gehrig’s) etx - 2

________________

clinical presentation? -4

A
  1. Rare = [Superoxide Dismutase gene mutation] –> copper-zinc dysfunction —>[Upper AND Lower Motor Neuron Disease!]
  2. Common = Idiopathic

________________

progressive weakness + [UMN deficits AND LMN deficits] + [cognition/ocular/bowel/bladder are preserved]

UMN Dz includes loss of neurons in motor nc. 5/9/10/12

243
Q

[Anabolic Androgen Steroids] ➜ symptomatic ⬜ from DEC ⬜

________________

how long after d/c does it take to naturally recover?

A

hypOgonadism ; endogenous testosterone

________________

recovers weeks/months after d/c but will be permanently suppressed if chronic abuse

244
Q

[Bacterial otitis externa] and [Necrotizing malignant otitis externa] both present with ⬜ and ⬜ from ⬜

________________

how do you differentiate the two?

A

[pain with ear manipulation] and [purulent ear drainage] ; pseudomonas

________________

NMOE = FEVER/ involves neighboring skull bone / only in elderly-DM-immunocompro

vs

BOE = no fever

245
Q

[Creutzfeldt Jakob Dz] etx

A

PrP (prion protein), normally in neurons as [α -helical structure] converts–> [INFECTIOUS Beta pleated sheets] –> Protease resistance –>

Vacuoles in [Gray Matter Neurons & Neutrophils] develop –> Cyst = [Spongiform Gray Matter]

246
Q

[Creutzfeldt Jakob Dz] CP - 2

A

[RAPIDLY Progressive Dementia] + [STARTLE Myoclonus] –> DEATH

Can be Acquired vs. Inherited

247
Q

[Functional Pituitary Adenomas] consist of what 3 adenomas?

________________

Describe etx for [NONFunctional Pituitary Adenoma]

________________

Tx?

A

Functional Pituitary Adenoma=

Lactotrope > Somatotrope > Corticotrope

________________

[NONfunctional pituitary adenomas] arise from [LH/FSH Gonatrope cells of the PITUITARY GLAND ➜ unique [isolated ⇪ α subunit (nonfunctional)] ➜ low LH/FSH gonadotropin levels (from negative feedback) ➜ hypOgonadism

+

mass effect if tumor large enough

Tx = Trans-Sphenoidal Surgery

248
Q

[PSPST (Pancoast SUP Pulmonary Sulcus Tumor)]

has 4 main clinical symptoms

________________

⬜ is the most common PSPST sx

> ⬜ and ⬜

which are > [⬜ (only present in 25% PSPST pts)]

A
  1. SHOULDER PAIN
  2. [Horner’s Syndrome (PAM)] (2/2 sympathetic chain/stellate ganglion invasion)
  3. [Hand atrophy/weakness] (2/2 C8-T2 invasion)

4-[Spinal Cord Compression ➜ asymmetric LE HYPERreflexia] = only 25% of PSPST pts

________________

Tx = CTS + Radiation + Surgery

249
Q

[Serous Otitis Media with effusion] etx

A

sOME = asymptomatic middle ear effusion in the absence of infection /inflammation

________________

SBOM (➜sOME)

250
Q

what adjustments should be made for exercise induced hypoglycemia in a IDDM/Type 1 DM? -3

A
  • [⬇︎basal insulin (NPH BID vs GluLargine QD)]
  • eat before exercise
  • avoid insulin injection into “exercise” limbs
251
Q

⬜ is a common cause of AKI in patients with Cirrhosis, but is a diagnosis of exclusion

what’s the maangement for this?

A

[HepatoRenal Syndrome (➜preRenal AKI)] = dx of exclusion]

________________

1st: [IVF bolus challenge] ➜

(if BP response = preRenal AKI from intravascular volume depletion)

(if no BP response) = HepatoRenal ➜ 2nd: ([Midodrine + Octreotide] + Albumin )

________________

Octreotide= somatostatin analog / Midodrine= Αlpha 1 agonist

252
Q

⬜ is the GREATEST risk factor for Male Breast Cancer.

⬜ is the second greatest risk factor for Male Breast Cancer.

And ⬜ is the third greatest risk factor for Male Breast Cancer

________________

Etx for Greatest risk factor? ; etx for 2nd greatest risk factor?

A

BRCA mutation > > > Klinefelter Syndrome

> [LAME (Liver failure/(Always Eating {Obese})/Marijuana/(Estrogen:androgen ratio ⇪ {gynecomastia})]

________________

BRCA = auto DOM mutations ➜ [⇪ Male Breast CA risk x 100]

[klinefelter syndrome XXY] = male having extra “X” chromo ➜ [Estrogen:androgen ratio ⇪] ➜ [⇪ Male Breast CA risk x 20]

253
Q

⬜ is the most common cause of [Dilated Cardiomyopathy HFrEF] and should be evaluated with what 2 test?

A

[Coronary Artery Diseasse] ;

stress test | coronary angiography

254
Q

⬜ is the most late (months/years after exposure) complication of Lyme Disease

What is the tx for this?

A

[DOXY (or Amoxicillin) PO x 28 days]

Lyme Disease (Arthritis)

________________

septic arthritis = synovial fluid WBC > 50K

255
Q

⬜ is the most late (months/years after exposure) complication of Lyme Disease

How is Lyme Disase diagnosed? -2

A

Lyme Arthritis [synovial fluid WBC 20-50K];

[serum ELISA + Western blot]

________________

septic arthritis = synovial fluid WBC > 50K

256
Q

⬜ is the preferred imaging for Pyloric Stenosis

How does this present?

A

Abdominal ultrasound

________________

[newborn 4-8 weeks old] ➜ Non-bilious emesis withOUT abdominal distension

257
Q

In Smokers, ⬜ may be first sign of Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Why is this?

A

[persistent Recurrent PNA]

________________

[Bronchogenic Carcinoma in older/Smokers or Carcinoid tumor in younger/nonsmoker] = endobronchial obstructing lesion ➜ ⬇︎clearance and eventually stasis of airway secretions

➜ [persistent Recurrent PNA (reoccuring despite previous tx successes)]

258
Q

⬜ treats ALS. What the MOA?

________________

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

A

Riluzole ; [Glutamate R Blocker]

________________

progressive weakness + UMN AND LMN deficits + [cognition/ocular/bowel/bladder preservation]