✅F1 (ID/RENAL/ENT/ALLERGY) Flashcards

1
Q

Acute Cervicitis Tx? -2

________________

Acute Cervicitis dx?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the FeNa in

PreRenal AKI
_________________

Intrinsic Renal AKI

A

FeNa

preRenal < 1%
_________________

Intrinsic > 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Women who have sex with Women are INC risk of what 2 things?
_________________
Describe why for each

A

Cervical CA (2/2 lower HPV vaccination rates than hetero)

and

Bacterial Vaginosis (2/2 greater exchange of vaginal secretions than hetero)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe Serology for Hepatitis B -7

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAb - SAb

  • unvaccinated pts acutely exposed to Hep should STILL get vaccinated in addition to the immunoglobulin*
  • CSAB = RESOLVED HEP B INFECTION*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patient p/w isolated elevation of [total anti-HBc (Core Ab)]

What does this indicate? -3

A
  1. [window of acute HBV] = subclinical hepatitis (⇪ IgMCore and ⇪ LFT)
  2. Years after recovery from acute HBV once SAb has waned. (no IgMCore)
  3. Years after chronic HBV once (S antigen) has waned (no IgMCore)

____________________

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAb - SAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patient p/w isolated elevation of [total anti-HBc (Core Ab)]

How should you manage this?

A

[repeat HBV serologies] –> obtain [[IgMCore] and LFT] to determine acuity of [window acute HBV]
_________________

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAb - SAb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What 2 laboratory values are the best diagnostic test for Hepatitis B?

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

[SAg and CoreIgM]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for which groups - 3

A
  1. Travelers going to countries where HepA is present
  2. Gay Men
  3. Chronic Liver Disease

Hepatitis A can cause SIGNIFICANT but benign TRANSAMINITIS so do not be alarmed by this

self limited to 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for [osteomyelitis of the foot]?
_________________
Name the test used at bedside for [osteomyelitis of the foot], and why it is not the best test?

A

contrast MRI
_________________
[probe-to-bone testing] (usually done first and not sensitive…so if negative, still must use contrast MRI to r/o infxn)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diabetic foot infections with osteomyelitis require ⬜ to determine microbial involvement

A

BONE BIOPSY WITH CULTURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tx Conjunctivitis -8

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

⬜ is a rare complication of bacterial conjunctivitis and is managed with ⬜
_________________
How does this complication typically present? -3

A

Keratitis (inflammation of cornea) ; URGENT OPHTHALMOLOGY CONSULT FOR TX
_________________
[foreign body sensation] / photophobia / vision impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a [Hordeolum Stye]

A

bacterial infection of [eyelid sebaceous gland]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why do pts with suspected Keratitis must receive URGENT OPHTHALMOLOGY CONSULT?
_________________
How is Keratitis diagnosed?

A

Keratitis can cause corneal scarring which ➜ blindness if untreated by optho
_________________
slit-lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Health Care Personnel was recently exposed to Varicella Zoster Virus

management for special HCP (pregnant/immunocompro) who did NOT have VZV immunity prior to working?

A

[VZV IG (or antiviral tx if IG not available)]

________________

IG = ImmunoGlobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Health Care Personnel was recently exposed to Varicella Zoster Virus

________________

management for HCP who did NOT have VZV immunity prior to working?

________________

A

[Varicella Vaccine within 5d of exposure]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Health Care Personnel was recently exposed to Varicella Zoster Virus

List management for HCP immune to VZV prior to working?

________________

How do you prove their immunity? -2

A

NOTHING

________________

([hx of Varicella infection] or [hx of 2-dose Varicella Vaccine])

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe [postherpetic neuralgia]

________________

tx -4

A

persistent allodynia and pain > 4 months after resolution of acute [herpes Zoster shingles] rash

________________

[Gabapentin vs Pregablin vs TCA] –(if fail)–> Opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is VZV transmitted? -2

_________________
Name hospital isolation rules for pts with [acute Zoster Shingles] -2

A

DIRECT CONTACT >> [active lesion aerosolization]
_________________
[localized single Zoster = [lesion coverage + standard precautions]

[DISSEMINATED ZOSTER > 1 DERMATOME = CONTACT AND AIRBORNE + standard precautions]
_________________
apply this until lesions are crusted over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long are pts with acute [herpes Zoster Shingles] contagious?

________________

how is VZV transmitted? -2

A

from the onset of lesions UNTIL LESIONS HAVE COMPLETELY CRUSTED OVER

________________

DIRECT CONTACT >> [active lesion aerosolization]

In Hospital: Contact and Airborne precautions. Home: keep lesions covered until completely crusted over!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How is Viral Conjunctivitis spread? -2

A

EYE DISCHARGE directly

Contaminated Surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SIADH can range from mild, SEVERE or Euvolemia

What are the s/s of SEVERE SIADH?-2

Tx?

A

SEVERE SIADH = SEIZURES / COMA

________________

SEVERE SIADH (TX): [3% Hypertonic Saline]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SIADH can range from mild, SEVERE or Euvolemia

What are the s/s of mild SIADH?-2

Tx?

A

mild SIADH = nausea / forgetful

________________
mild SIADH: [Fluid restriction +/- salt tablets]

SEVERE SIADH: [3% Hypertonic Saline]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SIADH can range from mild, SEVERE or Euvolemia

What are the causes of SIADH -5

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What are the causes of Acute Cervicitis? -5
26
4 major signs of Acute Cervicitis?
27
[T or F] Crusted over eyes in the morning indicates patient is contagious with viral conjunctivitis
FALSE (only EYE DISCHARGE and contaminated surfaces transmit viral conjunctivitis)
28
Describe Desmoid tumors \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ how do you differentiate it from lipoma?
Desmoid tumor= slow but locally aggressive benign neoplasm with high recurrence rate (tx = radiation if asx // surgery if sx) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Lipoma will NOT reoccur
29
What are the 3 Pillars for reducing [Catheter Line Associated Bloodstream Infections]? -3
1. Clean insertion site with Chlorhexidine before insertion 2. Use Maximum barrier precautious (large sterile drape, mask) during insertion 3. Remove Catheter once no longer needed after insertion
30
features of Multiple Myeloma -4
**CUBP** 1. [**CRAB** - end organ damage] * hyper**C**alcemia* ***R**enal failure* ***A**nemia normocytic* [***B**ack pain 2/2 vertebral dark lytic lesions]* \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 2. [**U**rine IgG or Urine IgA] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 3. [**B**one marrow with ≥10% clonal plasmacytosis/plasmacytoma] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 4. [**P**rotein (M Protein) in serum]
31
[CRYOGLOBULINEMIA TYPE 2] MOD
[Chronic Viremia/Autoimmune disease] ➜ [B cell hyperactivation] ➜ forms IgM which bind to IgG = ⇪ mixed circulating immune complexes these [circulating immune complexes] desposit in small vessels ➜ INFLAMMATORY vasculitis (*glomerulonephritis*) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
32
[Cryoglobulinemia Type 1] MOD
[B Cell CA (Multiple Myeloma)] ➜ Monoclonal immunoglobulins that aggregate at low temp \< 37C = Cryoglobulins. Cryoglobulin precipitation ➜ noninflammatory microvascular occlusion and hyperviscosity sx when CG are high \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *hyperviscosity sx = blurred vision, vertigo, ataxia*
33
[T or F] Varenicline has many serious adverse effects when combined with Nicotine Replacement Therapy
FALSE \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *Varenicline + NRT = ✔︎*
34
How does Cyclosporine affect Gout?
Cyclosporine [⬇︎ uric acid excretion] ➜ INC GOUT
35
What is the 5 step approach to treating Acne Vulgaris
"**L**osers **T**reating **B**ad **A**cne **I**s *vulgar"* pre: [**L**ifestyle 3∆ = no vigorous scrubs / use water-based products / use pH neutral detergents] 1st: [**T**opical Retinoids with salicylic acid] = [Noninflammatory Comedonal Acne] 2nd: add **B**enzoyl peroxide = Inflammatory Acne 3rd: add **A**ntibiotics (Topical before Oral) - erythromycin, clindamycin = Inflammatory Acne 4th: add [**I**sotretinoin PO] = Nodulocystic Acne \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
36
How does Cyclosporine affect Gout?
Cyclosporine [⬇︎ uric acid excretion] ➜ INC GOUT
37
What is Spondylolysis? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Dx? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Tx? -2
[**FATIGUE FRACTURE of pars interarticularis**] 2/2 overuse injury ➜ [dull/achy lower back pain with radiation to butt and thigh, ⇪ with activity, ⬇︎ with rest.] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Dx = Lumbar Spine XR \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tx = [activity modification x 90 d] + [symptom control x 90 d]
38
Potassium Iodide Indication - 2
1. PreOp tx for Thyroidectomy in Graves 2. Thyroid Storm
39
In the context of thyroid disease, what is the indication for CTS - 3
1. Thyroid Storm 2. Type 2 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis 3. SEVERE DeQuervain Subactue Thyroiditis
40
How does looking at Thyroglobulin levels help determine etiology of thyroid disease?
Thyroglobulin is the base needed to make thyroid hormone. If thyroid hormone is elevated...and Thyroglobulin is also elevated then Thyroid is naturally producing a lot of thyroid hormone \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ If thyroid hormone is elevated ...but Thyroglobulin is low then that means thyroid hormone must had been exogenousouly given
41
tx for Thyroid Storm - 3
***HHH** needs **PPP*** **P**ropranolol --\> **P**TU ---(1 hr later)--\> [**P**otassium Iodine and CTS]
42
cp for Thyroid Storm - 3
***HHH** needs **PPP*** Hot, Head and Heart 1. **H**ot = Fever 2. **H**ead = CNS dysfunction with tremor 3. **H**eart = Tachycardia, palpitations, HTN, HF \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tx = **P**ropranolol --\> **P**TU ---(1 hr later)--\> [**P**otassium Iodine and CTS]
43
*Pregnancy requires 50% greater thyroid hormone requirements* \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ How does the body achieve this? -2
1. 1st trimester, fetal βhCG stimulate maternal TSH receptors ➜ [⇪ maternal T3/T4 **production**] (*but remember, this INC T3/T4 feed back on ANT Pit ➜ low TSH 1st trimester*) and 2. elevated maternal estrogen ➜ [⇪ thyroxine binding globulin] ➜ [⇪ binding sites for T4 to travel on] ➜ [⇪ TOTAL (not free) maternal T4 **available**] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *(hypOthyroid patients wont be able to INC maternal T3/T4 production ➜ requires INC exogenous dose/Levothyroxine )*
44
Potassium Iodide Indication - 2
1. PreOp tx for Thyroidectomy in Graves 2. Thyroid Storm
45
*Acne Treatment for females with [premenstrual acne flares] is different* What is it? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ MOA
[Combined OCP] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ [combined OCP] ⬇︎ sebum production and are antiandrogenic
46
What 3 physical exam findings indicate **widespread microvascular occlusion**?
1. Livedo reticularis 2. digital ischemia 3. retiform purpura (net like reflect of vasculature - *image*)
47
What are the two definitive treatments for thyroid disease
1. Radioactive Iodine 2. Thyroidectomy
48
how do you manage DKA -5
**FIPAR** control 1. **F**luid control: (NS) \< [Blood Sodium 135] \< (1/2 NS) 2. **I**nsulin control: [Continuous infusion but maintain BG \> 200] ➜ [BG \< 200 = ⬇︎ infusion and add dextrose] ➜ [on DKA Resolution = subQ insulin ➜ DC insulin infusion 2h later] 3. **P**otassium control: [maintain between 3.3-5.3] 4. **A**NION GAP CONTROL: [correct to 10-14] - (give HCO3 for pH\<6.9) 5. **R**ESOLUTION = ([ANION GAP CORRECTION] + [PO TOLERANCE])
49
Why is maternal thyroid hormone so important during pregnancy?
the fetus completely depends on maternal thyroid hormone for brain development up until 12WG when fetal thyroid gland forms
50
how do you manage a Newly pregnant patient who has preexisting hypOthyroidism? -2
[⇪ baseline Levothyroxine dose] at time of pregnancy detection then [get TSH q4 wks ➜ Levothyroxine dose adjusted per trimester]
51
[Febrile Nonhemolytic transfusion] rxn occurs ⬜ after transfusion starts. and Pts have what sx -3? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ How is this related to Leukoreduction? -3
1-6 hours ; [Fever / Chills / Malaise] (NO HEMOLYSIS) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Leukoreduction = prevents Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn ⬇︎HLA alloimmunization [⬇︎CMV transmission (resides in leukocytes)]
52
List Reversible causes of Urinary Incontinence in the elderly-8
53
Name the 12 Absolute **Contraindications** to Organ Donation
1. DONATOR NOT [OFFICIALLY DEAD **WITH APNEA**] *2-12 in pic* \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ DEATH = APNEA ([No cardiac activity] OR [No Brain and Brainstem activity] = )
54
Explain how a Physician should approach the discussion of [Brain Death Diagnosis] and [Organ Donation]
1st: [Brain Death Dx] = Physician \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ **Later: [Organ Donation] = [OPO (Organ Procurement Organization)]**
55
Postoperative pulmonary complications occur most in pts undergoing ⬜ or ⬜ surgery. What factors make this Risk Greatest? How do you mitigate these?
thoracic; upper abd \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ COPD / smoker / CHF / sleep apnea *SURGERY IS DELAYED until these pulm/cardiac conditions are treated and optimized*
56
BPPV p/w ⬜ and is treated with ⬜ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ How do you diagnose BPPV? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *BPPV= Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo*
[brief \< 1 min] episodes of dizziness triggered by head positional ∆ ; [canalith repositioning procedures (i.e. Epley)] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dx: Dix-Hallpike maneuver
57
[Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase] deficiency cp -3
JAUNDICE / FATIGUE / unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *X-linked RBC enzymatic defect in African/Middle Eastern/Southeast asian ➜ ⇪ RBC hemolysis from oxidative stress*
58
[Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase] deficiency etx \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dx -3
[X-linked RBC (G6PD) enzyme defect] in African/Middle E/SE asian ➜ **[RBC hemolysis** from oxidative stress (infection/sulfa/fava beans)] = JAUNDICE / FATIGUE / unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ measure G6PD activity | [peripheral smear: bite cells] | [p\smear: heinz bodies (accumulated denatured hgb)]
59
dx?
[Heinz bodies (accumulated denatured hgb)] in **G6PD** ## Footnote ***GLUCOSE 6 PHOSPHATE DEFICIENCY***
60
Diagnosis? | What's the best diagnostic test for this condition?
Spherocytes in **Hereditary Spherocytosis** \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Osmotic Fragility test
61
*Pts are recommended to employ ⬜ during the prodromal phase of VANS to abort the syncopal episode* What are they?
[physical counterpressure maneuvers] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ [crossing legs while tensing body muscles] or [clenching fist while tensing arm muscles] *these improve venous return and cardiac output*
62
Concussion is defined as ⬜ Management? (2)
neuro disturbances a/w mild TBI **without intracranial structural injury** \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ [REST ≥24H] ➜ [gradual return to activity with progression titrated to tolerance] *note: it is nml for concussion sx to wax/wane as pt returns to activity*
63
Both Meniere disease and [Middle ear effusion 2/2 nasopharyngeal mass] have aural fullness and hearing loss How do you differentiate them?
Meniere disease = 1. **Vertigo** + aural fullness + hearing loss 2. effusion is in the labrinyth and not observed on physical exam \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ MEE = persistent uL middle ear effusion may be 2/2 nasopharyngeal carcinoma mass obstructing eustachian tube orifice and fiberoptic nasal endoscopy
64
**ADPKD** - [**A**utosomal **D**ominant **P**olycystic **K**idney **D**z] Describe the Disease - 7
**ADPKD** **A**neurysm (Berry) **D**oomed [HTN and MVP] [**P**rOteinuria AND Hematuria] **K**idney Failure (Early vs. Late onset) - Hepatomegaly occurs if cystic involvement **D**ifferentation problem = Etx *Image: Renal Ultrasound which = Dx*
65
Basilar Artery occlusion CP
Locked In Syndrome!!! (preserved consciousness but with quadriplegia)
66
Basilar Artery occlusion CP
Locked In Syndrome!!! (preserved consciousness but with quadriplegia)
67
Explain how Chronic Kidney Disease is related to the 3 indicators for Parathyroidectomy
CKD ## Footnote [⬇︎ conversion of 25-hydroxyvitD to 1-25DihydroxyVitD] ➜ [⇪ Phosphate retention] ➜ [bind free Ca+ (also ⬇︎Ca+ absorption)] ➜ [**⬇︎free Ca+**] ➜ [compensatory 2º hyperparathyroidism ( ⇪ PTH)] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ EVENTUALLY.... [2º HPTH] may progress to [3° HyperParathyroidism AUTONOMOUS PTH SECRETION]➜ [HIGH PTH AND ULTIMATELY HIGH CA+] ➜ [high bone turnover = ⇪ *BONE* ALP] ➜ ***PTH* sx =** parathyroidectomy - **P**ersistently elevated [Ca+\> 10.5] , [(P )because of CKD] and [PTH\>800] - **T**issue calcification /[calciphylaxis (vascular calcification)] - **H**eavy intractable bone pain
68
cp for Thalassemia trait \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ How do you differentiate *α* from *β* Thalassemia?
1. anemia that is 2. ⼀microcytic (*low mean corpuscular volume*) 3. ⼀hypOchromic (*low mean corpuscular hgb*) 4. [⇪ ferriTin (*INC RBC turnover ➜ more iron to Tuck into storage*)] 5. [normal RDW (*all RBC uniformly made microcytic*)] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Hgb electrophoresis: [βT minor = ⇪ Hgb**A2**]
69
[Gp2B/3a R blockers] are anti-⬜ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Name all 3
anti-**platelet** **\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_** ***"****I **ATE** [Gp2B/3a] for breakfast"* [**A**bciximab / **T**irofiban / **E**pTiFibatide]
70
Between assigning team roles with redundancy vs specific team roles, which is preferred and why? \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
SPECIFIC; *task overlap between team members may ➜ duplication errors! [Ideal = clear specific roles with continuous refinement of clinical processes via quality improvement and by tracking outcomes]*
71
diagnostic crtieria for Cannabis Withdrawal
[≥1 physical sx (abd pain, sweating, shakiness, fever, chills, HA)] + [≥2 post cessation sx (Irritability,anxiety,insomnia, ⬇︎appetite, restlessness, depression)]
72
What is this a complication of?
Acute Sinusitis \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *dx: Orbital Cellulitis*
73
Which 2 organisms cause Cellulitis? *poorly demarcated confluent erythema and/or induration involving deep dermis, SQ fat +/- fever*
GASP \> MssA \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *cellulitis: poorly demarcated confluent erythema and/or induration involving deep dermis, SQ fat +/- fever*
74
Which abx are HIGH risk for causing C.Diff infection (6)
*C diff tx = Fidaxomicin PO* Reinfections are from persistent spores of the intiial strain
75
Name 2 indications for a [***Contrast*** Head CT]
abscess intracranial mass intracranial
76
Describe Management for Tetanus Prophylaxis
77
What is the greatest risk factor for PID?
Multiple Sexual Partners \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *other RF = [age 15-25], previous PID, inconsistent condom, partner with STI*
78
Pt presents with signs of Sarcoidosis but rapidly deteriorates after being given steroids Dx?
Histoplasmosis ## Footnote *Mississippi and Ohio River basins*
79
*Septic Arthritis may lack classic signs in infants* What clinical presentation should you expect? (4)
[*infant* **Pseudoparalysis** (won't move affected joint)] [*infant* ⇪ inflammatory markers] joint effusion [aversion to being held] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ *tx = debridement + IVA* *(IVA = IV antibiotics)*
80
Management for ischemic CVA/TIA (4) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ When are thrombolytics **not** allowed in CVA/TIA? (2) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ How long are ischemic Stroke patients eligible for Mechanical Thrombectomy?
[\> 4.5h since onset] or contraindication \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 24h *thrombolytics = alteplase tPA*
81
cp for Congenital Rubella Syndrome (6)
***[BL cataracts]*** ***[sensorineural hearing loss]*** ***[patent ductus arteriosus]*** [Bluberry muffin rash (purpuric lesions)] low birth weight microcephaly
82
At what point, should you consider Antibiotic prophylaxis (*continuous vs postcoital*) for young female patients with recurrent UTI? (2)
[≥ 2 UTI in 6 mo] OR [≥3 UTI in 1 year] *obtain further diagnostics if c/f nephrolithiasis or obstruction*
83
clinical presentation of [Complex Regional Pain Syndrome] (5)
patient S/P RECENT JOINT INJURY now p/w joint **POOP /** **burning** / **edema / skin** ∆ / ⬇︎ROM ## Footnote *etx: INC sensitivity of sympathetic nerves*
84
⬜ are flagellated motile protozoan that cause ⬜ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ How is this a/w HIV?
Trichomonas vaginalis ; Trichomoniasis \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Trichomonads ⇪ rates of HIV transmission
85
Describe [candida Balanitis] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tx?
[infection / inflammation of **glans penis** *(common in uncircumcised infants)*] ➜ THICK WHITE DISCHARGE + [concurrent Candida Diaper Dermatitis] \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ topical antifungal *Balanoposthitis = inflammation of glans penis AND foreskin*