Exam review Flashcards
Describe the inputs and outputs of glycolysis during the energy investment phase
Inputs: 2 ATP used
Outputs: 2 ADP + 2 Phosphate
Describe the inputs and outputs of glycolysis during the energy payoff phase?
Inputs: 4 ADP +4 p Outputs to: 4 ATP
inputs: 2 NAD++4e-+4H+ outputs to 2 NADH +2 H+
The electrons from the electron transport chain come from either
NADH or FADH
____ had the lowest affinity for electrons, while ___ has the highest
NADH
O2
Where are phospholipids of the membrane made? How are they kept in place?(unit 7)
made at smooth ER
proteins come in vesicles and fuse with membrane
kept in place by weak hydrophobic interactions
Decreasing extracellular pH would have what effect on sucrose transport into the cell?
Sucrose movement into cell is depending on H+ ions moving down their concentration gradient
more H+ ions outside the cell? more sucrose transport in
decreasing extracelluar pH means MORE H+ ions outside the cell, so more sucrose would move in
If phosphate does not attach to the sodium potassium pump, what will happen?
the pump will not trigger and change shape, so the Na+ will not be released outside the cell and K+ in the ECM will not be able to bind to it
When acetyl CoA combines with oxaloacetate, the ___ group is lost and ___ is formed. This molecule then releases two carbons as ____ and produces ____
the CoA group is lost
six carbon citrate is formed
releases two carbons as CO2 and produces NADH each time
Due to its high H+ content, the intermembrane space has a ___pH
low
Under what cellular conditions is there a HIGH concentration of AMP?
when a cell is low on ATP, it will start squeezing more out of ADP molecules by converting them to ATP And AMP
high levels of AMP mean the cell is starved for energy
Which of the following statements about glycolysis is false?
A. Glycolysis may occur in the absence of sufficient oxygen for cellular
respiration to occur
B. Glycolysis will not occur in the absence of NAD+ regeneration
C. Several products of glycolysis can be synthesized in the absence of
glucose
D. ATP is the only regulator of glycolysis
E. None of the above
D. ATP is the only regulator of glycolysis
The pH level in the ______ is _____ than the pH levels in the ______.
A. Cytosol, lower, intermembrane space of the mitochondria
B. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria, lower, mitochondrial
matrix
C. Cytosol, higher, mitochondrial matrix
D. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria, higher, mitochondrial
matrix
E. The pH levels in the cytosol, mitochondrial matrix, and the
intermembrane space of the mitochondria are equal
B. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria, lower, mitochondrial
matrix
Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of oxygen
deficiency?
A. NADH would be oxidized rapidly by the components of the electron
transport chain, resulting in the subsequent production of ATP
B. FADH2 would not be oxidized by the electron transport chain.
C. NADH would not be oxidized because the structural integrity of the inner
mitochondrial membrane would be compromised.
D. More than one of the above
E. None of the above
B. FADH2 would not be oxidized by the electron transport chain.
Both citrate and ATP can inhibit the enzyme PFK. Why is this useful?
PFK regulates glycoylsis through allosteric inhibition, creating ADP and fuctose 1,6 biphosphate
if there is low energy, there is a high concentration of AMP which will ind to PFK, increasing its affinity for the substrates
If there is high energy, ATP will bind to a different allosteric site and decrease PFKs affinity for the substrates
While CDK is regenerated throughout the cell cycle, ____ is degraded and reaches its threshold at the end of the G2 phase, resulting in the activation of mitotic CDK
cyclin
Cyclin and CDK make ____, which promotes mitosis through phosphorolation during _____
MPF
promotes phosphorolation during metaphase
Synthesis of cyclin begins in the late ___ phase and continues through the ___ phase.
S
G2
During anaphase, what happens to cyclin?
cyclin component of MPF is degraded and terminated the M phase, the cell enters G1
During G1, ___ continues to degrade and ____ component of MPF is recycled
cyclin degrades
CDK is recycled
during anaphase, nonkinetochore microtubules ___ while kinetochores ___
lengthen to elongate cell
shorten to separate daughter chromosomes
what are homologous chromosomes
a pair of chromosomes that encode for the same genes, but may have different alleles
Sister chromatids appear at what phases of mitosis and meiosis?
both prophase, prophase II for meiosis
Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?
A) The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell.
B) The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
D) During the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes.
E) A gamete from this species has four chromosomes.
C) Each cell has eight homologous pairs
Which of the following statements about meiosis is true?
A. Homologous chromosomes are separated from each other during
meiosis I and the resulting cells are therefore haploid cells.
B. Homologous chromosomes are separated from each other only after
meiosis II and the resulting cells are therefore haploid cells.
C. Homologous chromosomes are not separated from each other
during meiosis and the resulting daughter cells are haploid cells.
D. Homologous chromosomes are not separated from each other
during meiosis and the resulting daughter cells are diploid cells.
E. None of the above are true.
A. Homologous chromosomes are separated from each other during
meiosis I and the resulting cells are therefore haploid cells.
In mitosis _____, while in meiosis II _____.
A. 2 identical daughter cells form; 4 identical daughter cells form
B. Sister chromatids are separated; homologous chromosomes are
separated
C. Sister chromatids line up at the metaphase plate; homologous
chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate
D. Sister chromatids are identical; sister chromatids are non-identical
E. More than one of the above is correct.
D. Sister chromatids are identical; sister chromatids are non-identical
You are told that while performing meiosis I, the cell is unable to divide its
genetic material evenly. Based off of this we can conclude that at the end
of meiosis II…
A. All four daughter cells will have incorrect amounts of DNA.
B. Only two daughter cells will have incorrect amounts of DNA.
C. The cell in question failed to separate its sister chromatids.
D. A&C are correct.
E. B&C are correct.
A. All four daughter cells will have incorrect amounts of DNA.
When do homologs separate during meiosis?
anaphase I
Homologs are not held together by a centromere, but by
a chiasma
6 sets of chromosomes will be 2n=
12
A cell that doesn’t copy itself is stuck in the ___ phase
G0
Why does complex 1 pump protons into mitochondrial matrix, but complex 2 does not?
complex 2 has coenzyme Q, which blocks redox electrons from entering mitochondrial matrix
How does complex 3 receive electrons?
via coenzyme Q from complex 2
Where does complex 4 receive electrons from?
cytochrome C, which received electrons from complex 3
Both coenzyme Q and cytochrome C reduce
oxidative stress
The electrons in complex 4 are received by __ to reduce oxidative stress
O2, which binds with protons to form water
Lipid anchored proteins are ___ bonded to the bilayer. They are a type of ___ protein
covalently
integral
Which of the following is true of integral membrane proteins?
a. They lack tertiary structure.
b. They are loosely bound to the surface of the bilayer.
c. They are usually transmembrane proteins.
d. They are not mobile within the bilayer.
e. They serve only a structural role in membranes.
c. They are usually transmembrane proteins.
- The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
a. pumps equal quantities of Na⁺ and K⁺ across the membrane.
b. pumps hydrogen ions out of the cell.
c. contributes to the membrane potential.
d. ionizes sodium and potassium atoms.
e. is used to drive the transport of other molecules against a concentration
gradient.
c. contributes to the membrane potential.
Which of the following molecules triggers the cell’s passage past the G2
checkpoint into mitosis?
a) PDGF
b) MPF
c) Cyclin
d) Cdk
MPF
Cyclin is at its lowest concentration during what point of the cell cycle
anaphase
When does cyclin accumulate in the cell cycle
late S phase through G2
What is endocytosis? Name some types of this process
the process by which cells take in material, type of bulk transport
phago, pino, receptor mediated
What is phagocytosis?
cells take in large food particles
What is pinocytosis?
cells takes in fluid that contains solutes/nutrients
what is receptor mediated endocytosis?
the cell has receptors that attach to specific molecules
What is exocytosis?
exporting material
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an exergonic reaction?
A. The splitting of glucose into pyruvate
B. The splitting of a protein into amino acids
C. The synthesis of a starch from several molecules of sugar
D. The breakdown of a toxin into two non-toxic components
C. The synthesis of a starch from several molecules of sugar
Which of the following might stop the production of ATP within a cell?
A. Flooding the cell with ATP, pushing the equilibrium toward the reactant side of the equation.
B. Drastically lowering the temperature so that chemical reactions proceed at a slower rate.
C. Removing the enzymes which lower the activation energy for the reactions that create ATP.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
anytime a dehydrogenase enzyme is used, what must be reduced?
NAD+ to NADH
FAD to FADH2
If oxolacetate disappears from the mitochondria, what might happen?
acetyl CoA still develops and turns into fatty acids, creating ketones–> ketogenensis
