exam 5: New material Flashcards

1
Q

various non-nutritive substances are
added to a ration to

A
  1. stimulate growth or other types of performance
  2. improvement of feed utilization or feed efficiency
  3. improving the health of the animal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

general info on types of feed additives

A

-some have demonstrated situation-specific responses while others are universal

-Factors other than bio-efficacy considered relative to the use of an additive: cost, toxicity, tissue residues.

-In general, most feed additives produce their response in young, rapidly growing animals. There is seldom any benefit in mature animals (buffers and thyroprotein compounds being two exceptions).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the two exceptions of feed additives that are beneficial to mature animals

A

buffers and thyroprotein compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Most common use of nonnutritive additives are as:

A

antibacterial agents
hormones and their derivatives
others (buffers, antioxidants, enzymes etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the two main examples of antibacterial agents

A

antibiotics
sulfa drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

examples of feed additive classifications

A

Medications
Antioxidant
Antifungal Agents
Enzymes
Herbs
Pellet Binders
Surfactants
Pigments
Direct‐Fed Microbials
Essential oils
Fermentation
Products
Flavors
Stool Conditioners
Buffers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

feed additive: general modes of action

A

Sub-therapeutic antibiotics:

Decrease sub-clinical infection

decrease growth depressing microbial metabolites

decrease gut maintenance (turnover and inflammation)

decrease competition for nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what do plant extracts do

A

–Varied physiological functions
–Antimicrobial
–Altered mucin production
–decrease intestinal “turnover”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do probiotics do

A

–specific pathogen(s) exclusion
–Immunological modulation
–Improved nutrient use
–Antimicrobial action (pH ↓ &
bacteriocins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

antimicrobial agents and anthelmintics are defined as ________ by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

A

drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FDA regulates the ______________ of antimicrobial agents and anthelmintics

A

usage levels
allowable combinations
periods of withdrawal prior to slaughter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a compound synthesized by a living organism that inhibits the growth of
another organism.

A

antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

It is well-recognized that antibiotics effective in
improving the performance of animals has one thing in common, ______________________________.

A

their ability to suppress or inhibit growth of certain microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how are antibiotics absorbed

A

readily absorbed into the vascular system of the host animal

others are hardly absorbed at all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Levels fed: general performance enhancement

A

low levels of 5-50 g/ton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Levels fed: disease prevention levels

A

50-200 g/ton feed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Levels fed: therapeutic levels

A

200-500 g/ton

Aimed at the control of respiratory diseases, and diarrhea

particularly useful for short-term treatment of the entire group of animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

effects of antibiotic feeding

A
  1. Animals responding to antibiotic feeding consume more feed than controls, gain weight faster, and thus less feed is needed per unit of gain
  2. Reduced morbidity (sickness)
  3. Reduced mortality (death)
  4. Reduced incidence of secondary infections,
    dehydration, pneumonia, etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

effects of antibiotic feeding specific to feedlot cattle

A

best benefit to young, stressed calves arriving to feedlot
also cattle that have been mismanaged

feeding antibiotics reduces the incidence of liver abscesses of high grain rations for feedlot cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

effects of antibiotic feeding specific to dairy cattle

A

does not increase milk production

high levels of antibiotics to lactating dairy cows are prohibited by law as there may be residue into the milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Antibiotics are drugs, not nutrients, and thus their
effects upon the nutrition of animals must be _______

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The mode of action of antibacterial drugs
appears complex and there are at least three plausible populations (assumptions):

what are the three assumptions

A
  1. Metabolic effect– drug affects various enzyme systems like phosphorylation
  2. Nutrient sparing effect– via altered microbial
    composition of the G.I. tract
  3. Disease control– benefits from suppression or control of subclinical or non-specific diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nutrient sparing effect- via altered microbial
composition of the G.I. tract wherein the antibiotic
may:

A

a. stimulate microorganisms in the G.I. tract which
favor nutrient synthesis of a critical nutrient(s)

b. suppression of organisms that compete with
the host for dietary needs

c. improved nutrient absorption resulting from
thinner, healthier intestinal walls for antibiotic fed
animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are some societal concerns regarding antibiotics

A

are they less effective?
does feeding them pose a public health threat?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In considering the possibility that feeding antibiotics
to animals might cause a threat to public health, the
reasoning is:

A
  1. antibiotic-resistant strains of nonpathogenic
    bacteria with transferable resistant (R) factors
    emerge in the intestines of the animals being fed
    the antibiotics
  2. These R factors may be transferred to the animals’ virulent (toxic)bacteria.
  3. These virulent, antibiotic-resistant bacteria are
    passed on to man. If this transfer of resistance is occurring, then the areas where people are working with animals should show the most resistance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Presently available growth promoting hormones or their derivatives include:

A

MGA
Synovex
Ralgro
DES or diethylstilbestrol
Bovine SomatoTrophin (BST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Injectable growth hormone approved for increased
milk production in dairy cattle. Altered nutrition and
management are required with this product.

A

Bovine SomatoTrophin (BST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A synthetic estrogen that was used for about 18 years in the cattle industry before its removal in 1972 from the market.

A

DES or diethylstilbestrol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A brand of zeranol (the active component is resorcyclicacid lactone - a product isolated from a type of corn mold)

Acts like an estrogen

response is best with high quality rations

A

Ralgro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

200 mg progesterone + 20 mg of estradiol benzoate

A

S Synovex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

200 mg testosterone + 20 mg of estradiol propionate

A

H Synovex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

This implant is sex specific.
Generally increases of 10-15% in average daily gain and similar savings in feed have been observed.

A

Synovex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

synthetic progestogen

This compound when fed orally to feedlot heifers
suppresses estrus and appears to promote growth.

A

MGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MGA appears to promote growth, a portion of
this weight increase may be due to ____________in a manner similar to the effects of ____________ on
certain women.

A

water retention
birth control pills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A re-partitioning agent fed for a period of time before slaughter

directs nutrients more toward protein deposition and away from fat deposition.

A

beta-agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

most common beta-agonists

A

ractopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The great amount of interest in this area is based on
the fact that about 10% of the total energy intake of the ruminant is lost as methane in the functioning rumen.

This represents a major loss for productive purposes.

A

methane inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The great amount of interest in the area of methane inhibitors is based on the fact that about 10% of the total _______ intake of the ruminant is lost as ________in the functioning rumen.

This represents a major loss for productive purposes.

A

energy
methane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The_______ must be matched to the substrate.

A

enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

with regards to enzymes, there may need to be some protection from certain ___________________

A

GI environmental factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Problems can be encountered in shifting ruminants
from a high roughage diet to a high concentrate diet can require________

A

buffers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

indicators of a need in increased buffering capacity following rapid intro of highly fermentable CHO source:

A

less chewing/cud= less saliva=less bicarbonates being returned to rumen

high acid production from VFA’s

the inability of microorganisms to shift rapidly with a build up of lactic acid causing pH to decline

faulty mineral rations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

indicators of a need in increased buffering capacity following rapid intro of highly fermentable CHO source:

A

less chewing/cud= less saliva=less bicarbonates being returned to rumen

high acid production from VFA’s

the inability of microorganisms to shift rapidly with a build up of lactic acid causing pH to decline

faulty mineral rations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Studies with the use of buffers in dairy cows indicate they may be beneficial in at least three instances:

A
  1. using ammonium chloride in prepartum cows for reducing milk fever
  2. low milkfat problems
  3. sudden ration shifts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Antibiotics may be effective at times as ______________________, their efficacy wears off with
continued usage.

A

bloat controlling agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Surface active agents have shown considerable promise for control of __________provided a relatively regular intake can be obtained

A

pasture bloat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

a relatively inert montmorillonite clay which is often used as a pellet binder

A

bentonite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Work with pigs has demonstrated clear benefits to the addition of 0.5%______________ to diets containing aflatoxin.

A

bentonite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Fed at the rate of 5% of the diet for the purpose of
reducing the recycling of such pesticides as dieldrin
and DDT in dairy cows.

A

activated carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Many pesticides are recycled via the________

A

bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

if_____________ is fed much of the excreted compounds may be adsorbed and passed out of the body.

A

activated carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

examples of other additives

A

activated carbon
bentonite
bloat control compounds
buffers
enzymes
methane inhibitors
beta-agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the most promise of the use of thyroid active hormones like thyroxine and thyroproteins/ simulated thyroproteins (iodinated casein) has been in

A

lactating cows and ewes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

simulated thyroprotein example

A

iodinated casein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

mold products

A

antibiotics
mycotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

molds protect their food by secreting

A

mycotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

toxic metabolites of filamentous fungi (molds)

A

mycotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

myco means

A

fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

toxin means

A

poison or toxicant of fungal orgin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

diseases produced by mycotoxins

A

mycotoxicoses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

disrupting cell membranes, protein/DNA synthesis

A

cytotoxicity

61
Q

more than ____ molds produce toxins, _____ mainly toxic for animals

A

100
13

62
Q

Mycotoxins are more common in _______________ than in animal products

A

cereals and oilseeds

63
Q

a diverse group of compounds that are toxic to animals and produced by actively growing filamentous fungi

A

mycotoxins

64
Q

molds are _________ organisms

A

aerobic multi-cellular

65
Q

mold growth requires _____ available water than bacterial growth

A

less

66
Q

do all molds produce mycotoxins

A

NO

67
Q

mycotoxins are __________ metabolites of mold growth

A

secondary

68
Q

general effects of mycotoxins: toxin-dependent, dose-dependent

A

feed refusal
digestive problems
nervous system problems (staggering)
reproduction (conception to abortion)
immune impression
organ damage
teratogenic (embryo malformation)
carcinogenic
death

69
Q

Important mycotoxins in the US: Aflatoxins

A

Aspergillus flavus
A. parasiticus

70
Q

Important mycotoxins in the US: Zearalenone

A

Zea maiz
Fusarium roseum
F. monliniforme

71
Q

Important mycotoxins in the US: Trichothecenes

A

T-2 toxin (Fusarium tricinctum)
Vomitoxin/DeOxyNivalenol (DON)

72
Q

Important mycotoxins in the US: Fumonsin

A

Fusarium moniliforme

73
Q

Important mycotoxins in the US: Ochratoxin

A

A. ochraceous
Penicillium viridiactum

74
Q

Factors Contributing to Aflatoxin Formation

A

Storage conditions (humidity)
Grain humidity (>13%)
Water stress (drought years, wet harvest)
Insect damage (in the field or storage)
High temperatures (90º F during a critical time of development)
Plant variety
Planting density
Soil fertility (soil Ca / peanuts / aflatoxin)
Late planting date: late harvest date

75
Q

Black sclerotia _________caused by Claviceps purpurea infection_________

A

ergots
barley

76
Q

One of the most potent carcinogens (liver, kidney, urinary system, intestine, lung)

Attacks vascular system: hemorrhages (Vit K may

teratogenic

A

aflatoxin

77
Q

Insects function as vehicles for _______________

A

transmission of fungi

78
Q

Mycotoxins & Moulds Occur in Most Feeds
including

A

grain
hay
silage

79
Q

types of aflatoxins include

A

B1
B2
G1
G2
M1

80
Q

aflatoxin: B1

A

most hepatotoxic, carcinogenic and
prevalent

81
Q

aflatoxin: M1

A

aflatoxin metabolite in milk (1-2% of dietary
level)

82
Q

Acute primary mycotoxicoses

A

High [toxins]
Hepatitis (inflamed liver)
nephritis (inflamed kidney)
necrosis of epithelium
death

83
Q

Chronic primary mycotoxicoses

A

Lower [toxins] over a longer period of time
Detriments growth performance

84
Q

Secondary mycotoxic diseases

A

Even lower [toxins] than chronic primary
Immunosuppression

85
Q

The more aflatoxins present in the guinea pigs liver caused what to happen

A

increasingly pale livers with increasing doses of aflatoxins

86
Q

An enlarged ________ was present in a mouse given an intraperitoneal injection of zearalenone.

A

uterus

87
Q

ways to prevent Mold Growth in stored grains

A

Ammoniation
organic acids
salts of organic acids

88
Q

most effect methods to prevent mold growth is

A

ammoniation

89
Q

examples of organic acids

A

propionic (1%)
acetic
sorbic
benzoic

90
Q

examples of salts of organic acids

A

calcium propionate
potassium sorbate

91
Q

ways to reduce Aflatoxin content

A

Mechanical screening (separating grains)

Chemical inactivation: Ammonia, methylamine,
sodium hydroxide, formaldehyde, HCl, H2O2, NH3

Propionic acid (1%)

Heating: not effective

Blending (not for sale: prohibited by FDA)

92
Q

Dietary Manipulations to Alter Response to
Mycotoxins

A

organic and inorganic binders

93
Q

examples of inorganic binders

A

***or mineral clays
bentonite
zeolites
Hydrated Sodium Calcium AluminoSilicates (HSCAS)

94
Q

examples of organic binders

A

dehydrated alfalfa meal

95
Q

Cell wall carbohydrates from
yeasts (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)

Increase Plane of nutrition (protein, energy and vitamin contents)

A

organic binders

96
Q

liver tumor from rat was present after given

A

aflatoxin

97
Q

oral lesions and decreased growth in turkeys

abomasal ulcers in calves are all due to

A

T-2 mycotoxin

98
Q

why do we add feed additives

A

to ensure our animals can better utilize/absorb their feed because naturally the process of absorbing is not 100%

99
Q

buffer and thyroprotein always make a positive or negative result?

A

positve

100
Q

thyroprotein is related to what kind of metabolism

A

energy

101
Q

importance of activated charcoal

A

helps prevent poisoning of DDT
less that 1% of the diet

102
Q

most effective enzyme

A

phytase

103
Q

direct feed microbials are known as what

A

probiotics and prebiotics

104
Q

probiotic vs. prebiotic

A

post:
-good bacteria (lactobacilli bact.)
-target small intestine
-exclude bad bacteria

pre:
-target large intestine
-resistant CHO/starch (not broken by stomach HCl)
-food for good bacteria

105
Q

major process in feed manufacturing

A

ingredients recieving
grinding
batching and mixing
conditioning and pelleting

106
Q

causes of weighing variation

A

hand-weighing ingredients
micro-ingredients and premix dose errors
discrepancies between call size and scale resolution

107
Q

mixer uniformity evaluation: <10%

A

excellent
no corrective action

108
Q

mixer uniformity evaluation: 10-15%

A

good
increase mixing by 25-30%

109
Q

mixer uniformity evaluation: 15-20%

A

fair
increasing mixing by 50%
look for worn equipment
overfilling
sequence of ingredient addition

110
Q

mixer uniformity evaluation: +20%

A

poor
possible combination of all corrective actions for fair rating
consult extension personnel or feed equipment manufacture

111
Q

what type of mixer takes the longest dry/wet

A

vertical

112
Q

what type of mixer takes the least time dry/wet

A

twin shaft paddle

113
Q

batching equipment

A

micro bin system
tote bag system
scales (micro/macro)
weigh buggy

114
Q

batching and mixing objective/goal

A

accurate weighing of ingredient
minimum batching time
production of feed with uniform distribution

115
Q

advantages of roller mills

A

low energy consumption
less noisy
less heat production
less moisture loss
uniformity of particle size

116
Q

disadvantages of roller mills

A

investment cost are high
complicated operation
high maintenance cost
grinding issues
strict cleaning requirement

117
Q

advantages of hammermills

A

produce wide ranges of particle sizes
handle friable material/fiber
cost of purchase is low compared to roller mills
low maintenance cost
easy to operate

118
Q

disadvantages of hammermills

A

less uniform particle size
high energy usage
generates lots of heat
noisy
high potential for dust pollution

119
Q

when will roller mill technology may not be feasible

A

when product is not friable, fragile or breakable
high fiber/moisture

no value from maintaining a uniform particle size with minimal fines

120
Q

grind size is controlled by

A

number of roll pairs
roll gap
roll speed
corrugations
corrugation number

121
Q

particle size is controlled by

A

screen size
hammer tip speed
air assist system
hammer setting
hammer pattern

122
Q

particle size is related to _______________ operations

A

hammermill

123
Q

grind size is related to _______________ operations

A

roller mill

124
Q

environment and safety factors regarding roller mill

A

less dust
lower noise level

125
Q

environment and safety factors regarding hammermill

A

requires dust control (bag house air permit)
high noise
rise of fire and explosion

126
Q

maintenance cost regarding roller mill

A

re-corrugation
freight cost (location of shop vs feed mill)
routine gap adjustment higher maintenance time (daily particle samples)

127
Q

maintenance cost regarding hammermill

A

screen replacement
hammer replacement
minimal maintenance time

128
Q

grinding equipment factors to consider (categories)

A

grinding capacity requirement
energy consumption
maintenance cost
environment and safety

129
Q

less than 400 microns

A

fine particle

130
Q

400-700 microns

A

medium particle size

131
Q

greater than 700 microns

A

coarse particle size

132
Q

info on warehouse

A

ingredients and totes are stored on racks
first in/first out ingredient rotation

133
Q

FIFO stands for

A

first in-first out

134
Q

the grinding operation does what

A

increase surface area
enhance energy and nutrient digestibility

135
Q

functions of grinding

A

achieve proper/uniform particle size

improve the efficiency of pelleting operation

improve feed quality

maintain the desired physical characteristics of feed like flowability and limiting dust

136
Q

receiving center equipment includes

A

scales
unloading mechanism
receiving hopper/conveyors
cleaning/screening devices
elevator legs

137
Q

what makes up the unloading mechanisms of receiving center equipment

A

truck dumper
hopper bottom trailers or RR cars
mechanical scoops
front end loader for barges

138
Q

what makes up the cleaning/screen devices of receiving center equipment

A

magnets
grain scalpers
grain cleaners

139
Q

receiving center ingredients terms

A

unprocessed grains
processes bulk ingredients
soft feed ingredients
heavy feed ingredients
liquids
micro-ingredients

140
Q

why is heating not effective to reduce aflatoxin

A

by the time you reach a temp to kill it you are causing your products proteins to denature

ruins product

141
Q

ammoniation

A

treatment/reaction with ammonia

142
Q

the most hepatotoxic aflatoxin

A

B1

143
Q

what are these structures

A

aspergillus toxins: aflatoxin

144
Q

teratogenic

A

Substances that cause congenital disorders in a developing embryo or fetus

145
Q

aflatoxin is prevelent in

A

southern section of US

146
Q

Zearalenone,DON (Vomitoxin) are prevelent in

A

northern US

147
Q

Ergotamine is prevelent in

A

northwest US

148
Q

Tremorgens are prevelent in

A

western US

149
Q

Ochratoxin are prevalent in

A

eastern US

150
Q

what do beta agonist do

A

A re-partitioning agent fed for a period of time before slaughter

directs nutrients more toward protein deposition and away from fat deposition.