Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which channel is most important for NM transmission?

A

Ligand channels

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2
Q

Which channel is most important for tactile sensation?

A

Mechanically gated channels

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3
Q

Which channel is most important for action potential transmission in the axon?

A

Voltage gated channels

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4
Q

What is the membrane’s potential determined by?

A

Differences in the concentrations of ions

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5
Q

What are the 2 types of gradients created by the different ion concentrations that determine membrane potential’?

A

Concentration gradients

Electrical gradients

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6
Q

What are the main ions that contribute to membrane potentials? Include their charge and their location of highest concentration

A
Na: + extracellular
K: +  intracellular
Ca: + extracellular
Cl: - extracellular
Anions: - intracellular
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7
Q

What are anions made of?

A

Protein

PO4

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8
Q

What pump is the sodium gradient maintained through?

A

Na/K ATPase

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9
Q

How does the Na/K ATPase pump work?

A

It removes 3 Na in exchange for 2 K and contribute -4 mV to the membrane potential

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10
Q

What would happen if the balance of Na significantly differed form inside to outside?

A

The cell would shrink or swell

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11
Q

Which ion is the most important to be able to diffuse across the membrane? What is its equilibrium potential?

A

Potassium

-96.81 mV

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12
Q

Which ion is so tightly regulated it cannot diffuse through the membrane? What is its equilibrium potential?

A

Calcium

+137.04 mV

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13
Q

What is the resting potential for the neuronal membrane?

A

-70 mV

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14
Q

What does the membrane potential allow the neuron, dendrites, and axons to have?

A

Excitable membranes so they can transmit signals

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15
Q

Where is the trigger zone (Dr. Beasley’s favorite area)located?

A

At the axon hillock

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16
Q

What must happen in order to transmit an action potential?

A

You must reach the threshold to stimulate the axon

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17
Q

What is the membrane potential of the trigger zone?

A

Between -40 mV and -55 mV

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18
Q

Does a depolarization make the membrane potential more positive or negative?

A

Positive

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19
Q

Does a hyper polarization make the membrane potential more positive or negative?

A

Negative

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20
Q

What are the steps of action potential?

A

Threshold is reached, making depolarization self-generating via graded potentials
This triggers opening of the activation gates of the voltage gated Na channels, which are open for a predetermined amount of time until the inactivation gates close
Sodium rushes into the cell down its potential making the membrane on the inside more positive
This triggers neighboring voltage gated sodium channels to open propagating the action potential, but only in the direction of axon flow because of the absolute refractory period
The voltage gated potassium channels open and the potassium rushes out down its concentration gradient
The membrane becomes extra negative as too much potassium leaves the cell, which creates a hyperpolarized membrane potential
To reach the threshold potential to create a new action potential, you have to get from hyperpolarized membrane to the threshold at -40 to -55 mV
The Na/K ATPase pumps kick into high gear to get the Na out of the cell and the K back in returning the membrane to its resting membrane potential

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21
Q

What is the hyperpolarized membrane potential?

A

-80 to -90 mV

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22
Q

More simply put, what does the action potential consist of?

A

Depolarization, repolarization, hyperpolarization

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23
Q

Where does myelin live?

A

On the axons

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24
Q

What creates myelin in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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25
Q

What is the ratio of oligodendrocytes to axons?

A

1:many

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26
Q

What creates myelin in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

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27
Q

What is the ratio of Schwann cells to axons?

A

1: 1 myelinated
1: many unmyelinated

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28
Q

What does myelin do?

A

Protection of the axon
Electrically insulating fibers from one another
Increasing the speed of nerve impulse transmission

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29
Q

Which axons are affected first with spinal cord compression?

A

Large, heavily myelinated fibers

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30
Q

What is the last function lost with severe spinal cord compression/disease?

A

Tactile sensation/deep pain

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31
Q

What does the loss deep pain mean for prognosis for return to function?

A

It is 50:50 or less than 20% depending on time

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32
Q

Where do synapses occur?

A

Axon terminals

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33
Q

What happens as the action potential reaches the axon terminal?

A

The change in membrane potential opens voltage gated Ca channels

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34
Q

What does the calcium from a change in membrane potential cause?

A

Synaptic vessels to fuse with axon membrane and exocytosis of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft

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35
Q

Which variety are the receptors on the post synaptic membrane?

A

Ligand

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36
Q

What ion do the ligand receptors on the post synaptic membrane allowing into the post synaptic cell?

A

Na

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37
Q

What happens if enough Na enters the post synaptic cell?

A

It triggers the opening of the voltage gated Na channels and get triggering of an action potential

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38
Q

What happens with signals at the synapses?

A

You are taking an electrical signal, turning it into a chemical signal and then back to an electrical signal

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39
Q

What are the 3ways to remove neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft?

A

Diffusion
Re-uptake
Degradation of enzymatic destruction

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40
Q

What is involved in re-uptake?

A

Active transport into presynaptic neuron

Active transport into astrocytes

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41
Q

What do excitatory post-synaptic potentials do?

A

Depolarizes membrane potential a little

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42
Q

What happens when the membrane potential depolarizes a little? Does this make the membrane more positive or negative?

A

Opens Na channels

Positive

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43
Q

What do inhibitory post-synaptic potentials do?

A

Hyperpolarizing the membrane potential a little

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44
Q

What happens when the the membrane potential hyperpolarizes a little? Does this make the membrane more positive or negative?

A

Opens Cl channels

Negative

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45
Q

What must a neurotransmitter do to be considered a neurotransmitter?

A

Substance must be present within presynaptic neuron
Substance must be released in response to presynaptic depolarization and must be Ca dependent
Specific receptors for the substance must be present on post-synaptic cell

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46
Q

Which would mimic the action of a neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor, agonist or antagonist?

A

Agonist

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47
Q

Who are the major excitatory neurotransmitters? What ion enters through their ligand gated channels?

A

Acetylcholine (Na)
Glutamate (Ca and Na)
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin, and histamine

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48
Q

Who are the major inhibitory neurotransmitters? What ion enters through their ligand gated channels?

A

Gamma-amino butyric acid (GABA) (Cl)

Glycine (Cl)

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49
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors found?

A

Neuromuscular junction in preganglionic ANS

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50
Q

Who binds to nicotinic receptors?

A

Acetylcholine

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51
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors found?

A

Postganglionic parasympathetic nervous system

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52
Q

Who binds to muscarinic receptors?

A

Acetylcholine

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53
Q

What degrades acetylcholine?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

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54
Q

What neurotransmitter do we believe is responsible for excitotoxicity following head trauma?

A

Glutamate

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55
Q

What neurotransmitters are affected in tetanus?

A

GABA and Glycine

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56
Q

What nuerotransmitters are affected with strychnine toxicity?

A

Glycine

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57
Q

What are the neurotransmitters and receptors of the post-gnaglion neurons of the SANS?

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

Alpha and beta receptors

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58
Q

What neurotransmitter has agonist created to be anti-seizure medications?

A

GABA

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59
Q

Which neurotransmitters are often manipulated for behavior modification?

A

Serotonin, dopamine, and histamine

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60
Q

What nerve is involved in the patella reflex? Where does it live in the spinal cord?

A

Femoral nerve

L4 and L5

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61
Q

What nerves are involved in withdrawal in the hindlimbs?

A

L4-S3

Stifle and hock: Sciatic nerve (L6, L7, S1)

62
Q

What nerves are involved in withdrawal in the forelimbs?

A
Musculocutaneous (C6-8)
Axillary (C7-8)
Radial (C7-T1)
Median (C8-T1)
Ulnar (C8-T1)
63
Q

Which diffuse LMN disease affects the cranial nerves as well as the peripheral nerves?

A

Botulism

64
Q

What is attacked and its location in coonhound paralysis? What is the grown up term for this disease?

A

Myelin fibers of the ventral nerve roots

Polyradiculoneuritis

65
Q

What animals are most prone to botulism? Which are least susceptible?

A

Horses and cows

Dogs, cats, and pigs

66
Q

Why does treating an animal with myasthenia gravis with an anticholinesterase inhibitor work?

A

Leaves Ach in synaptic cleft so it can find the Ach receptors not attacked by antibody and internalized

67
Q

What would happen in an overdose of anticholinesterase (similar to OP toxicity)?

A

SLUTD

68
Q

What ticks cause tick paralysis in the US?

A

Dermacenter ticks

69
Q

What nerve results in a dropped elbow when damaged?

A

Radial nerve

70
Q

What nerve results in a dropped jaw when damaged?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve

71
Q

What is an axon belonging to an UMN called?

A

Tract

72
Q

What is an axon belonging to a LMN called?

A

Nerve

73
Q

What does UMN usually synapse on, interneuron or LMN?

A

Interneuron

74
Q

What tracts are the exceptions to UMN synapsing on interneurons?

A

Corticospinal and vestibulospinal

75
Q

Which is better for a function recovery after neuronal cell loss, interneuron or LMN?

A

Interneuron

76
Q

Are any descending motor tracts in the dorsal funiculus?

A

No, they are only ascending

77
Q

What do tracts in the lateral funiculus do and what phase of the gait is this?

A

Flex

Swing phase

78
Q

What tracts are in the lateral funiculus?

A

Lateral corticospinal
Rubrospinal
medullary reticulospinal

79
Q

What do tracts in the ventral funiculus do and what phase of the gait is this?

A

Extensor

Support/stance/protraction

80
Q

What tracts are in the ventral funiculus?

A

Vestibulospinal
Pontine reticulospinal
Ventral corticospinal

81
Q

What is the exception to tracts in the ventral funiculus doing extensors?

A

Ventral corticospinal

82
Q

I have a dog who cannot move his back legs at all but still feels his feet, how would you tell me what this is?

A

Paraplegic, deep pain positive

83
Q

I have a dog that can walk but it is very ataxic in all four limbs and can feel his feet, how would you tell me what this is?

A

Ambulatory tetraparetic

84
Q

What are the 3 pyramidal tracts?

A

Corticopontine
Corticonuclear
Corticospinal

85
Q

Which of the pyramidal tracts allow cerebellar input?

A

Corticopontint

86
Q

What peduncles are involved in cerebellar input?

A

Middle afferent

Rostral efferent

87
Q

Which pyramidal tracts control LMN in the spinal cord?

A

Corticospinal

88
Q

What of the corticospinal tracts decussates at the pyramidal decussation?

A

Lateral

89
Q

Which pyramidal tract control LMN in the brainstem?

A

Corticonuclear

90
Q

Which pyramidal tract does not make it to the pyramids?

A

Corticopontine

91
Q

What mammals have the best developed pyramidal tracts?

A

Primates
Raccoon
Horse
Cat

92
Q

Where are extrapyramidal UMN located?

A

MIdbrain
Pons
Medulla

93
Q

Which extrapyramidal tracts decussates? Which do not?

A

Decussates: Rubrospinal

Does not: Pontine, medullar reticulospinal, and vestibulospinal

94
Q

What are the 4 basal nuclei?

A

Caudate
Putamen
Globus pallidus
Claustrum

95
Q

Which of the 4 basal nuclei is located medial to the internal capsule?

A

Caudate

96
Q

What nucleus influences the neostriatum? What does it release?

A

Substantia nigra

Dopamine

97
Q

What nucleus does the lateral globus pallidus influence?

A

Subthalamic

98
Q

Who talks to the thalamus?

A

Medial globus pallidus

99
Q

Who influences the medial globus pallidus?

A

Neostriatum (caudate and putamen, subthalamic nucleus and lateral globus pallidus)

100
Q

What are the 3 kinds of ataxia?

A

Spinal/proprioceptive
Vestibular
Cerebellar

101
Q

What ataxia is often found with weakness?

A

Spinal

102
Q

A lesion in the medulla on the right side would cause deficits on which side of the body?

A

Right

103
Q

A lesion in the cerebral cortex on the right side would cause deficits on which side of the body?

A

Left

104
Q

Which results in increased extensor tone or spasticity, LMN or UMN?

A

UMN

105
Q

Which would cause increase in the reflexes, LMN or UMN?

A

UMN

106
Q

Damage to what areas of thee spinal cord will result in UMN signs, only to the hindlimbs?

A

T3-L3

107
Q

Damage to what area of the spinal cord could create LMN signs in the forelimbs? Hindlombs?

A

C6-T2

L3-S3

108
Q

Damage to what area of the spinal cord would result in UMN signs to all 4 limbs?

A

C1-C5

109
Q

What are the 2 types of LMNs?

A

Alpha and gamma

110
Q

What are intrafusal muscles also known as?

A

Muscle spindles

111
Q

What is the afferent axon from golgi tendon organs? Where do these receptors live?

A

1b

Tendons

112
Q

If the body wants to contract a muscle spindle, which LMN is involved?

A

Gamma

113
Q

What is the afferent axon from muscle spindles?

A

1a

114
Q

What LMN do afferent axons from muscle spindles innervate?

A

Alpha

115
Q

What reflex is the simplest using just the afferent axon and LMN?

A

Femoral/patella

116
Q

An UMN creates muscle tone through innervating what LMN?

A

Gamma

117
Q

Eliciting a flexor reflex in an animal with UMN disease can produce what?

A

Hyper reflexia

Crossed extensor

118
Q

What reflex can help to localize the are of spinal cord injury to the vertebra and not just functional spinal cord divisions?

A

Cutaneous trunci

119
Q

What nerve is involved in the reflex that can help to localize the are of spinal cord injury to the vertebra and not just functional spinal cord divisions? Muscle?

A

Lateral thoracic

Cutaneous trunci

120
Q

Where do the LMN of the lateral thoracic nerve and cutaneous trunci live in the spinal cord?

A

C8-T1

121
Q

What nerve are involved in the perineal reflex?

A

Pudendal, caudal

122
Q

Would a dog with an injury to just the sacrum be able to walk?

A

Yes

123
Q

What allows a dog to with a functional or anatomic transection of the spinal cord to walk?

A

Central pattern generators

124
Q

Would a dog “walk” with a T3-L3 lesion?

A

Yes

125
Q

Would the dog “walk” with a L3-S3 lesion?

A

No

126
Q

I have a dog with paraplegia (UMN) but increased extensor tone in the forlimbs, where could the lesion be in the spinal cord? What disease is this?

A

T3-L3

Schiff Sherrington

127
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cerebellar gray matter?

A

Molecular
Purkinje
Granule

128
Q

What is the least cellular layer of cerebellar gray matter?

A

Molecular

129
Q

Describe the purkinje layer of the cerebellar gray matter

A

Contain purkinje cells
Release GABA neurotransmitter
Synapse on Deep Cerebellar nuclei

130
Q

Describe the granule layer of cerebellar gray matter?

A

Contain granule cells, which are excitatory, and golic cells, which release GABA and are inhibitory

131
Q

What are the 2 fibers that ascend into the cerebellum?

A

Mossy

Climbing

132
Q

Describe mossy fibers

A

Excitatory
Make up the MCP from the pontine nuclei from the corticopontine tract
Synapse on DCN
Granule cells and golgi cells

133
Q

Describe climbing fibers

A

Excitatory with aspartate
Synapse on DCN and molecular layer
From olivary nucleus

134
Q

What are the peduncles?

A

Rostral
Middle
Caudal

135
Q

Which peduncle is mainly output?

A

Rostral

136
Q

What are the signs of cerebellar disease?

A

No loss of strength/weakness
Hypermetria
Intention tremors
Ipsilateral menace deficits

137
Q

What is supposed to be the only source of output from the cerebellum?

A

Deep cerebellar nuclei

138
Q

What do purkinke cells of flocculonodular lobes synapse on?

A

Directly on the vestibular nuclei througn the CCP

139
Q

What makes up the deep cerebellar nuclei?

A

Fastigial
Interposed
Dentate

140
Q

Describe fastigial nucleus

A

Associated with vermis (spinocerebellum) and vestibulo cerebellum

141
Q

Describe interposed nucleus

A

Intermediate zone (spinocerebellum)

142
Q

Describe dentate nucleus

A

Hemisphers, cerebrocerebellum, RCP

143
Q

What are the nerve endings/types for proprioception?

A
Pacinian corpuscle
Ruffin's corpuscle
Muscle spindles
Golgi tendon organs
Joint receptors
144
Q

Where is a good dermatome for testing the radial nerve?

A

Front of radius/ulna

145
Q

What pathway transmits proprioceptive/non-painful sensation?

A

Medial meniscus

146
Q

Where does the medial meniscus travel in the spinal cord?

A

Dorsal funiculus

147
Q

What pathway transmits pain signals?

A

Spinothalamic

148
Q

Where does the spinothalamic pathway in the spinal cord?

A

Lateral funiculus

149
Q

What conditions result in extensor rigidity?

A

Decerebrate rigidity
Decerebellate rigidity
Schiff Sherrington

150
Q

Which condition that results in extensor rigidity affects the patient’s sensorium?

A

Decerebrate rigidity