Exam 2

Question 1

Which of the following terms is used to describe the tendency of children and adolescents to seek experiences that reinforce their genetic predispositions?

A. range of reaction

B. canalization

C. adaptation

D. niche-picking

Answer 1

Correct answer

D. niche-picking

Explanation
S. Scarr and K. McCartney described three types of genetic-environment interactions. One of these is niche-picking, which refers to the tendency of children and adolescents to seek experiences and environments that complement and reinforce their genetic predispositions (How people make their own environments: A theory of genotype-environment effects, Child Development, 54, 424-435, 1983).

Question 2

To assign the DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder, the individual must be at least _____ years of age or at an equivalent developmental level.

A. three

B. six

C. nine

D. twelve

Answer 2

The DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder cannot be assigned to individuals under the chronological age of six years or the equivalent developmental level.

Question 3

A meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that _______________ are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion.

A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence

B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence

C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence

D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

Answer 3

Correct answer

D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

Explanation
. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.

Question 4

An organizational psychologist familiar with goal-setting theory is likely to tell a supervisor that having supervisees participate in setting their own performance goals will produce goals that are:

A. less realistic than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

B. the same in terms of difficulty as the goals the supervisor would set alone.

C. less difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

D. more difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone

Answer 4

Research on goal-setting theory has found that, when supervisees participate in setting their own performance goals, the goals tend to be more difficult than the goals the supervisor would have set alone.

Question 5

The two most commonly used behavioral interventions for ____________ are the squeeze and start/stop techniques.

A. premature ejaculation

B. erectile dysfunction

C. delayed ejaculation

D. genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder

Answer 5

The squeeze and start/stop techniques are used to help delay ejaculation for men dealing with premature ejaculation.

Question 6

Berscheid’s (1991) emotion-in-relationships model identifies which of the following as a cause of strong emotions in close relationships?

A. unexpected behaviors that interrupt usual behavioral routines

B. coercive interactions that gradually escalate over time

C. behaviors that fulfill each partner’s most prepotent needs

D. internal working models of acceptable and unacceptable behaviors

Answer 6

According to Berscheid’s emotion-in-relationships model, strong emotions are elicited in close relationships when a partner engages in an unexpected behavior that interrupts the couple’s usual behavioral routines. When the interruption has a desirable outcome, it elicits a positive emotional reaction; when it has an undesirable outcome, it elicits a negative emotional reaction.

Question 7

A therapist instructs a woman who constantly starts arguments with her partner and hates cleaning the house to spend one hour cleaning the house every time she initiates an argument. The therapist is using which of the following techniques?

A. an ordeal

B. a ritual

C. positioning

D. prescribing the symptom

Answer 7

Ordeals are used by strategic family therapists to reduce or eliminate a client’s undesirable behavior by instructing the client to do an unpleasant task whenever he or she engages in that behavior. Ideally, the client will stop engaging in the undesirable behavior in order to avoid doing the unpleasant task.

Question 8

The DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria requires marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and one’s assigned gender for at least:

A. 12 months for children and six months for adolescents and adults.

B. 18 months for children and 12 months for adolescents and adults.

C. 12 months for children, adolescents, and adults.

D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.

Answer 8

Correct answer

D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.

Explanation
The symptoms of gender dysphoria differ somewhat for children and adolescents/adults, but the DSM-5 requires a minimum duration of symptoms of six months regardless of the individual’s age.

Question 10

You have been hired by a company to assist with its hiring process by administering, scoring, and interpreting a battery of tests to applicants for sales jobs. The director of human resources has asked you to include a personality test that you know has not been validated as a predictor of job performance for salespeople. As an ethical psychologist, you will tell the director that:

A. you cannot comply with this request.

B. you’ll administer the test but will not base your evaluation of applicants on its results.

C. you’ll have to get consent from applicants before administering the test to them.

D. the test has not been validated as a predictor of job performance but you’ll let her make the final decision about whether or not to include it in the evaluation process.

Answer 10

Standard 9.02(a) of the Ethics Code requires psychologists to “administer, adapt, score, interpret, or use assessment techniques, interviews, tests, or instruments in a manner and for the purposes that are appropriate in light of the research on or evidence of the usefulness and proper application of the techniques.” Since you know the personality test has not been validated as a predictor of job performance for salespeople, you would not want to use it to evaluate job applicants. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standards II.13, II.14, and II.18 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 11

You are preparing a brochure to advertise your professional services and would like to include testimonials from satisfied clients. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you can solicit testimonials from:

A. former (but not current) clients.

B. former (but not current) clients as long as they’re not vulnerable to undue influence.

C. current and former clients as long as they’re not compensated for providing them.

D. current and former clients as long as they do not include misleading or false information about your services.

Answer 11

Correct answer

B. former (but not current) clients as long as they’re not vulnerable to undue influence.

Explanation
This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 5.04 of the APA Ethics Code, which prohibits psychologists from soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients and others “who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” It is also consistent with the requirements of Standards II.18 and III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 12

To ensure she obtains a sufficient number of volunteers for her research, Dr. Turay offers volunteers a gift card to the local restaurant of their choice. With regard to ethical guidelines, this is:

A. unacceptable under any circumstances.

B. acceptable since the inducement is a gift card rather than cash.

C. acceptable only if volunteers can choose either cash or a gift card.

D. acceptable as long as a gift card is not likely to coerce participation.

Answer 12

Offering inducements to research participants is addressed in Standard 8.06 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.29 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.06 states that “psychologists make reasonable efforts to avoid offering excessive or inappropriate financial or other inducements for research participation when such inducements are likely to coerce participation.”

Question 14

In a(n) ____________ interaction, one partner adopts a dominant “one-up” position while the other partner adopts a submissive “one-down” position.

A. closed

B. open

C. complementary

D. symmetrical

Answer 14

Correct answer

C. complementary

Explanation
Some practitioners of family therapy distinguish between complementary and symmetrical interactions. Symmetrical interactions reflect equality, while complementary interactions reflect inequality. For example, when both partners in a relationship are domineering and neither backs down during interactions, their interactions are symmetrical. In contrast when one partner is domineering and the other partner is submissive, their interactions are complementary.

Question 15

When considering the optimal method of training, you would most likely choose vestibule training because:

A. it’s less costly than off-the-job training.

B. it’s useful for teaching higher-order cognitive skills.

C. it’s less dangerous than on-the-job training.

D. it allows training to be self-administered.

Answer 15

Correct answer

C. it’s less dangerous than on-the-job training.

Explanation
Vestibule training is a type of off-the-job training that allows trainees to acquire skills using the actual machinery or equipment they’ll use on-the-job. It’s useful when on-the-job training would be too dangerous.

Question 16

Dr. Liu, a licensed psychologist, is asked to provide emergency mental health services to members of a nearby rural community that has just been devastated by a flood. Dr. Liu has never worked with victims of natural disasters, but she completed a course in crisis intervention in graduate school and there’s no one else in or near the community who has relevant experience. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Liu should:

A. decline to provide the requested services because of her lack of experience.

B. provide the requested services because no one else is available to do so.

C. provide the services only if she is able to obtain appropriate consultation while doing so.

D. provide the services only until they’re no longer needed or alternative services become available.

Answer 16

This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.02 of the APA Ethics Code, which states that psychologists may provide services in emergency situations when they do not have the necessary training if alternative services are unavailable and they discontinue providing the services as soon as the emergency ends or appropriate services become available. This answer is also consistent with the “spirit” of the Canadian Code of Ethics (see, e.g., Standard II.8).

Question 17

A criticism of behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) is that:

A. they’re useful only for managerial-level jobs.

B. they’re time-consuming to develop.

C. they’re time-consuming to use when there are many employees to assess.

D. they focus on extreme (rather than typical) behaviors.

Answer 17

Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) are a type of graphic rating scale in which each point on a scale is “anchored” with a description of a specific job-related behavior. Disadvantages of BARS are that they’re time-consuming to develop and they’re job-specific, which means that different scales must be developed for different jobs.

Question 18

Marsha comes to her first therapy session 10 minutes late. She’s disheveled, seems very nervous, and says she doesn’t “really want to be here” but her roommate insisted it was a good idea. When you begin taking notes, Marsha says she doesn’t want you to keep a record of her sessions. As an ethical psychologist, you should:

A. find out the reason for her request and, if it seems valid, agree not to keep a record of her sessions.

B. tell her that you’ll comply with her request for now but will probably want to discuss it again in a subsequent session.

C. discuss her concerns and tell her that you need to keep a record of her sessions and explain your reasons for doing so.

D. tell her that you need to keep a record of her sessions and reassure her that anything you include in her record will be confidential.

Answer 18

Correct answer

C. discuss her concerns and tell her that you need to keep a record of her sessions and explain your reasons for doing so.

Explanation
Standard 6.01 of the APA Ethics Code, APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines, and Standard II.21 of the Canadian Code of Ethics require psychologists to create and maintain adequate records. Of the answers given, this is the best one because it includes discussing the client’s concerns and informing her of the reasons why record keeping is necessary.

Question 19

Glasser’s (1998) reality therapy is based on the premise that ____________ leads to the development of a failure identity.

A. a boundary disturbance

B. irresponsible behavior

C. an unresolved intrapsychic conflict

D. incongruence between self and experience

Answer 19

Correct answer

B. irresponsible behavior

Explanation
According to Glasser, when people satisfy their needs in a responsible way (in a way that does not interfere with the ability of other people to satisfy their needs), they have adopted a success identity. In contrast, when people are unable to fulfill their needs or do so in an irresponsible way, they have adopted a failure identity.

Question 20

According to classical test theory, variability in test scores is due to a combination of:

A. true score variability and random error.

B. true score variability and systematic error.

C. observed variability and divergent error.

D. observed variability and convergent error.

Answer 20

Correct answer

A. true score variability and random error.

Explanation
. Classical test theory describes observed variability in test scores as being the result of a combination of true score variability (variability in what the test is measuring) and measurement error (variability due to random error).

Question 21

Providing patients who have just completed substance abuse treatment with training in coping and relapse prevention skills is an example of:

A. primary prevention.

B. secondary prevention.

C. tertiary prevention.

D. quaternary prevention.

Answer 21

Correct answer

C. tertiary prevention.

Explanation
Prevention programs are often classified as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Tertiary preventions are aimed at reducing the severity or duration of a disorder and/or reducing the risk for relapse.

Question 22

A psychologist is engaged in consultee-centered case consultation when he:

A. helps a recently licensed psychotherapist derive a diagnosis and treatment plan for a new client who has symptoms of multiple disorders.

B. helps a recently licensed psychotherapist acquire the knowledge and skills she needs to work with clients from a cultural group she has not worked with before.

C. works collaboratively with a colleague to develop a relapse prevention program for patients receiving treatment at a community mental health clinic.

D. works collaboratively with a team of educational and mental health experts to determine if students qualify for special education.

Answer 22

Correct answer
B. helps a recently licensed psychotherapist acquire the knowledge and skills she needs to work with clients from a cultural group she has not worked with before.

Explanation
As its name suggests, the focus of consultee-centered case consultation is on the consultee (rather than on a client or program) and involves helping a therapist, teacher, or other consultee acquire the knowledge, skills, or objectivity needed to effectively perform his/her professional duties.

Question 24

When an occupational interest test provides ipsative scores, this means that an examinee’s scores indicate:

A. the degree of consistency of his/her interests.

B. his/her likelihood of success in different occupations.

C. the relative strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.

D. the absolute strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.

Answer 24

Correct answer

C. the relative strength of each occupational interest assessed by the test.

Explanation
Ipsative scores are also known as intraindividual scores and provide information on the examinee’s relative (rather than absolute) strengths with regard to the interests or other characteristic measured by the test.

Question 25

Which of the following is not a condition for a claim of malpractice against a psychologist?

A. The psychologist had a legal duty to provide professional services to the client.

B. The client was psychologically or physically harmed or injured.

C. The psychologist breached his/her legal duty by providing services that did not meet the professional standard of care.

D. The psychologist knew or should have known the professional services he/she provided would cause harm to the client.

Answer 25

Correct answer

D. The psychologist knew or should have known the professional services he/she provided would cause harm to the client.

Explanation
Four conditions must be met for a claim of malpractice: (1) The psychologist must have a legal duty to provide professional services to the client. (2) The psychologist must have breached that duty as the result of negligence or by providing services that did not meet the professional standard of care. (3) The client was psychologically or physically harmed or injured. (4) The psychologist’s breach of duty was the cause of the client’s harm or injury.

Question 26

Sleepwalking and sleep terror are categorized in the DSM-5 as non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep arousal disorders. In contrast to people with nightmare disorder, people with a NREM sleep arousal disorder:

A. experience incomplete awakening from sleep after an event and, when awakened, have little or no memory for the event.

B. experience incomplete awakening from sleep after an event and, when awakened, have a vivid memory for the event.

C. awaken easily and completely after an event and have little or no memory for the event.

D. awaken easily and completely after an event and have a vivid memory for the event.

Answer 26

Correct answer

A. experience incomplete awakening from sleep after an event and, when awakened, have little or no memory for the event.

Explanation
People with NREM sleep arousal disorder experience incomplete awakening from sleep after an episode of sleepwalking or sleep terror and, when awakened, have amnesia for the episode.

Question 27

You’re conducting a research study that will involve interviewing and observing 50 sixth grade students. To fulfill ethical requirements, you should obtain:

A. an informed consent from each student.

B. assent from each student and permission from the school principal.

C. assent from each student and permission from the parent(s) of each student.

D. informed consent from the parent(s) of each student.

Answer 27

Correct answer

C. assent from each student and permission from the parent(s) of each student.

Explanation
This answer is consistent with Standard 3.10(b) of the APA Ethics Code. It states that, for minors and others not capable of giving informed consent, “psychologists should provide them with an appropriate explanation, consider their best interests, seek their assent, and obtain permission from a legally authorized person when doing so is permitted or required by law.”

Question 29

The symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (e.g., restlessness, difficulty concentrating, irritability) are similar for individuals of all ages, but the content of an individual’s worries are often related to his/her age. For example children with generalized anxiety disorder are most likely to worry about:

A. abandonment by friends and family members.

B. academic and athletic performance.

C. safety and physical health.

D. everyday hassles.

Question 30

The ____________ is based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and provides scores on five factors derived from that model: knowledge, fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working memory.

A. SB5

B. WAIS-IV

C. KABC-II

D. WJ-IV

Answer 30

Correct answer
A. SB5

Explanation
The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive ability integrates Horn and Cattell’s distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence with Carroll’s three-stratum theory that includes general intelligence (g), several broad cognitive abilities, and multiple narrow cognitive abilities that each contribute to one of the broad abilities. The CHC model is a theoretical foundation for many cognitive ability tests including the SB5, WAIS-IV, KABC-II, and WJ-IV, but only the SB-5 provides scores on the five factors listed in the question.

Question 32

According to Donald Super, the primary determinant of a person’s occupational choice is which of the following?

A. self-concept

B. dominant interest(s)

C. life experience

D. prepotent needs

Answer 32

According to Super (Super, Savickas, & Super, 1996), a person’s self-concept develops throughout the lifespan. It influences and is influenced by the career development process and is the major determinant of a person’s career decisions.

Question 33

To evaluate the test-retest reliability of a newly developed measure of intelligence, a test developer administers the test to the same sample of examinees on two separate occasions. When he correlates the two sets of scores, he obtains a reliability coefficient of .60. To increase this reliability coefficient, the test developer should:

A. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

B. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is homogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

C. decrease the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

D. decrease the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is homogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

Answer 33

Correct answer

A. increase the number of test items and make sure the new sample of examinees is heterogeneous with regard to level of intelligence.

A test’s reliability coefficient is affected by several factors including the length of the test and the degree of similarity of examinees with regard to the attribute(s) measured by the test: In general, longer tests are more reliable than shorter tests and reliability coefficients are larger when they’re derived from a sample that has an unrestricted range of scores – i.e., when examinees in the sample are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute(s) measured by the test.

Question 34

The method of loci is most useful for:

A. memorizing a short speech.

B. remembering how to pronounce foreign-language words.

C. remembering a list of unrelated words.

D. linking a list of words to their definitions.

Answer 34

Answer C is correct.
The method of loci uses a visual image to help encode and recall a list of unrelated words. It involves choosing a familiar location and visually placing each word in a different place in that location. For example, to remember a shopping list, you might visualize your kitchen and place each item in the list in a different place – on the stove, on the counter next to the stove, next to the coffee maker on the counter, etc. Then, to recall the items, you visually “walk through” the kitchen.

Question 35

In the context of research design, external validity refers to:

A. consistency.

B. accuracy.

C. causality.

D. generalizability.

Answer 35

Answer D is correct.

A research study has good external validity when its results can be generalized to other people, settings, and conditions.

Question 36

Before using a newly developed 10-item screening test to identify people who are depressed, you administer the test to a sample of clinic patients along with an established (validated) 50-item measure of depression and correlate the two sets of scores. In this situation, you are evaluating the screening test’s:

A. content validity.

B. divergent validity.

C. differential validity.

D. concurrent validity.

Previous Question

Answer 36

Answer D is correct.

Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity that involves determining how well a new predictor (e.g., a screening test) estimates current scores on a criterion (e.g., a validated measure of depression).

Question 37

Tourette’s disorder is associated with a number of psychiatric disorders, with the most frequent comorbid diagnosis being:

A. disruptive behavior disorder.

B. social anxiety disorder.

C. ADHD.

D. specific learning disorder.

Answer 37

Answer C is correct.
Reported rates of comorbid psychiatric diagnoses for Tourette’s disorder vary somewhat from study to study. However, of the disorders listed in the answers, ADHD is most often identified as the most common comorbidity.

Question 38

When a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) has not responded adequately to an SSRI or SNRI, the most likely drug-of-choice is:

A. propranolol.

B. buspirone.

C. valproic acid.

D. risperidone.

Answer 38

Answer B is correct. The first-line drugs for GAD are SSRIs and SNRIs. When symptoms do not respond to these antidepressants, the drug-of-choice is often the anxiolytic buspirone (Buspar) or a benzodiazepine.

Question 40

During process consultation, an organizational development (OD) consultant will most likely focus on which of the following?

A. job satisfaction and motivation

B. theft, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors

C. perceptions related to organizational justice

D. communication, decision-making, and problem-solving

Answer 40

Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, process consultation focuses on communication, decision-making, problem-solving, and other organizational processes that are contributing to performance problems.

Question 43

Which of the following uses eye opening, verbal, and motor responses to stimuli to evaluate a patient’s level of consciousness?

A. Mini Mental State Exam

B. Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning

C. Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test

D. Glasgow Coma Scale

Answer 43

When using the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess level of consciousness, the patient is rated on his/her best eye opening, verbal, and motor responses. The total rating ranges from 3 (deep coma or brain death) to 15 (normal).

Question 44

Which of the following best describes sensory memory?

A. large capacity and brief duration

B. large capacity and long duration

C. small capacity and brief duration

D. small capacity and long duration

Previous QuestionPause

Answer 44

Sensory memory is also known as sensory register and receives information directly from the environment. It has a large capacity for information, but stores it for a very brief period of time (from about one-fourth second to four seconds).

Question 45

B. F. Skinner (1948) delivered food pellets to pigeons every 15 seconds regardless of their behavior. After a brief period of time, the pigeons began performing unusual behaviors such as bowing, turning, and hopping on one foot. Skinner referred to the pigeons’ unusual behaviors as:

A. experimental neurosis.

B. superstitious behaviors.

C. the result of one-trial learning.

D. the result of two-factor learning.

Answer 45

Answer B is correct. Skinner concluded that noncontingent reinforcement not only accounted for the unusual behaviors of the pigeons but might also explain superstitious behaviors in humans.

Question 47

Code-switching is used by:

A. supervisors and employers to exert their authority over supervisees and employees.

B. adults when talking to children to emphasize the importance of what they’re telling them.

C. politicians to ensure their ardent supporters understand what their actual intentions are.

D. bilingual and multilingual speakers to establish solidarity with listeners belonging to their own minority group.

Answer 47

Answer D is correct. Code-switching involves switching from one language to another during a conversation. It’s used by bilingual and multilingual speakers for several reasons, including to compensate for a lack of knowledge of one language, to express their attitudes toward listeners, and to foster rapport or solidarity.

Question 48

Research has found that, among lesbian, gay, and bisexual individuals, being open about their sexual orientation to friends and family members is associated with:

A. lower levels of anxiety, higher levels of self-esteem, and greater social support.

B. lower levels of anxiety and higher levels of self-esteem but lower levels of social support.

C. higher levels of anxiety but no effect on self-esteem and social support.

D. higher levels of anxiety and lower levels of self-esteem and no effect on social support.

Answer 48

Answer A is correct. Research investigating the effects of “coming out” has generally found that it’s associated with a number of positive outcomes including lower levels of anxiety, higher levels of self-esteem, and greater social support. See, e.g., K. M. Jordan and R. H. Deluty, Coming out for lesbian women: Its relation to anxiety, positive affectivity, self-esteem, and social support, Journal of Homosexuality, 35, 41-63, 1998.

Question 50

Excessive secretion of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid gland causes hyperthyroidism, which produces:

A. tremor, sweating, tachycardia, difficulty sleeping, anxiety, sensitivity to heat, and unexplained weight loss.

B. fatigue, muscle cramps, bradycardia, constipation, dry skin, depression, sensitivity to cold, and unexplained weight gain.

C. increased hunger and/or thirst, blurred vision, fatigue, weight loss, and recurrent infections.

D. extreme hunger, fatigue, pale skin, tingling lips, dizziness, tremors, irritability, and confusion.

Answer 50

Answer A is correct. The symptoms described in this answer are characteristic of hyperthyroidism, while those listed in answer B are characteristic of hypothyroidism. The symptoms listed in answer C are associated with hyperglycemia, and the symptoms listed in answer D are associated with hypoglycemia.

Question 51

Electrical stimulation of a person’s ascending reticular activating system will have which of the following effects?

A. A sleeping person will wake up and an awake person will become more alert.

B. A sleeping person will have lucid dreams.

C. An awake person will engage in unconscious repetitive motor tics.

D. An awake person will experience a sense of deja vu.

Answer 51

Answer A is correct. The ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) is involved in arousal and the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle. Direct electrical stimulation of the ARAS or stimulation by sensory input can awaken a sleeping person and cause an awake person to become more alert.

Question 52

As described by Erikson, the positive outcome (“virtue”) of the ego integrity versus despair stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?

A. wisdom

B. purpose

C. care

D. will

Answer 52

Answer A is correct. Erikson identified eight key virtues that correspond to his eight stages of psychosocial development. These are, in order, hope, will, purpose, competence, fidelity, love, care, and wisdom. Ego integrity versus despair is Erikson’s last stage and its virtue is wisdom.

Question 53

According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, __________ appraisal involves considering whether an external event is relevant or irrelevant and, if relevant, whether it’s positive/benign or stressful.

A. central

B. peripheral

C. primary

D. secondary

Answer 53

Answer C is correct. Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and reappraisal. It proposes that the immediate response to an external event is primary appraisal, which involves determining if the event is relevant and, if so, determining if it’s nonstressful (positive or benign) or stressful.

Question 54

“Collaborative empiricism” best describes the therapeutic relationship in:

A. Rogers’s person-centered therapy.

B. Hayes et al.’s acceptance and commitment therapy.

C. Glasser’s reality therapy.

D. Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy.

Answer 54

Answer D is correct. Aaron Beck describes the therapeutic relationship in cognitive behavior therapy as collaborative empiricism, in which the therapist and client work together to identify treatment goals, reality test the client’s beliefs, and derive a plan to resolve the client’s problems.

Question 55

One of the questions included in a survey asks employees to rate the fairness of the outcomes of a recent organizational decision regarding raises and bonuses. This question assesses employees’ perceptions of which of the following?

A. distributive justice

B. procedural justice

C. normative justice

D. interactional justice

Answer 55

Answer A is correct.

Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the distribution of resources and other outcomes.

Question 56

Patients with damage to which of the following can be expected to make multiple random errors and perseverative errors on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test?

A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. basal ganglia

D. cerebellum

Answer 56

Answer A is correct. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is sensitive to frontal lobe damage and is used to assess abstract thinking and perseveration and to help distinguish between frontal lobe and non-frontal lobe lesions.

Question 57

A child with dyslexia whose reading problems significantly interfere with his academic performance and have not substantially improved with appropriate intervention would receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of:

A. learning disability.

B. language disorder.

C. reading disorder.

D. specific learning disorder.

Answer 57

Answer D is correct.

Learning disorders involving impairments in reading, written expression, or mathematics are diagnosed as specific learning disorders, and dyslexia is identified in the DSM-5 as a type of reading impairment that involves “problems with accurate or fluent word recognition, poor decoding, and poor spelling abilities” (p. 67).

Question 58

The overjustification effect occurs when:

A. a person attributes the positive outcomes of his/her behavior to dispositional factors when they were actually due to situational factors.

B. a person attributes the negative outcomes of his/her behavior to situational factors when they were actually due to dispositional factors.

C. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior reduces intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.

D. obtaining external rewards for engaging in a behavior increases intrinsic motivation to perform that behavior.

Answer 58

Answer C is correct.
The overjustification effect predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, their intrinsic motivation declines (Lepper, Greene, & Nisbett, 1973).

Question 59

Which of the following is based on the assumption that interventions are most effective when they match a client’s stage of change?

A. transtheoretical model

B. health belief model

C. reality therapy

D. solution-focused therapy

Answer 59

Answer A is correct.

Knowing that the transtheoretical model (Prochaska, Norcross, & DiClemente, 1994) is also referred to as the stages of change model would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change (precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination) and proposes that interventions are most effective when they match the client’s stage of change.

Question 60

Violation of the psychological contract between employees and their employers has been identified as a contributor to:

A. work-family conflict.

B. job burnout.

C. low organization-based self-esteem.

D. downsizing survivor syndrome.

Answer 60

Answer D is correct.
Downsizing survivor syndrome has been attributed to a sense of unfairness and reduction in trust caused by the organization’s violation of the psychological contract – i.e., of the unwritten expectations that employees and employers have about their responsibilities and obligations to each other.