Exam 7 Tough Questions Flashcards

Question

When psychologists are faced with conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements, they: A. may comply with legal requirements when the conflict is unresolvable. B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights. C. must choose the course of action that allows fullest adherence to ethical guidelines. D. must choose the course of action that allows the greatest degree of compliance with both ethical guidelines and legal requirements.

Answer 1

Answer B is correct. Conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements are addressed in Standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Both require psychologists to make a reasonable effort to resolve a conflict in a way that is consistent with ethical responsibilities but do not require them to abide by ethical responsibilities in all situations (which is why answers C and D are not the best answers). As noted by Fisher, “when reasonable actions taken by psychologists do not resolve the conflict, they are permitted to make a conscientious decision to comply with the legal or regulatory authority under circumstances in which their actions cannot be used to justify or defend violating human rights” (2017, p. 59).

Answer 2

Answer D is correct. Systematic desensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate an undesirable anxiety or fear response by replacing the undesirable response with an incompatible and more desirable relaxation response. Exposure therapy (also known as exposure with response prevention) is based on the assumption that a neutral stimulus that does not ordinarily elicit anxiety becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits anxiety because, at some time in the past, it was paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicited anxiety. It uses classical extinction to eliminate the conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

Answer 3

Answer D is correct. Simultaneous (concurrent) submission of an article to multiple journals is not addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or Canadian Code of Ethics. However, as noted by Belcher (2019), it is unacceptable for the author(s) of a journal article to simultaneously submit the same journal article to more than one journal. Instead, the author(s) should submit the article to one journal at a time and wait for it to be rejected by one journal before submitting it to another journal.

Answer 4

Answer C is correct. An advantage of SEM is that it allows researchers to test models of the relationships among observed and latent variables. Observed variables are also known as manifest variables and indicators and can be directly measured. Latent variables are also known as factors and constructs and cannot be measured directly but are inferred from observed variables.

Answer 5

Answer A is correct. The APA Task Force found that exposure to violent videogames increases aggressive behavior, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy for the distress of others in children over 10, adolescents, and young adults. It concluded, however, that (a) this relationship has not been established for younger children because very few of the existing studies included children 10 years of age and younger and (b) there is also insufficient evidence to draw conclusions about gender and racial/ethnic differences.

Answer 6

Answer C is correct. There is evidence that, for patients with rheumatoid arthritis, CBT is useful not only for reducing comorbid depression and anxiety but also for reducing pain intensity and fatigue, especially when CBT is provided early in the course of the disease (e.g., Dixon et al., 2007).

Answer 7

Answer B is correct. DBS is a surgical treatment for Parkinson’s disease, essential tremor, and dystonia (especially primary dystonia) that involves implanting a device that sends electrical signals to areas in the brain that control movement. It is contraindicated for atypical parkinsonism, which shares some symptoms with Parkinson’s disease but is caused by other disorders, including progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, corticobasal degeneration, and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Unlike Parkinson’s disease, atypical parkinsonism does not respond well to treatment with levodopa or DBS.

Answer 8

Answer D is correct. The task described in the question is the change-of-location task, which is one of several false-belief tasks that are used to evaluate children’s theory of mind – i.e., children’s ability to understand that the beliefs, perceptions, and intentions of others can differ from their own. More specifically, the change-of-location task assesses children’s understanding that another person can have a mistaken belief about the location of something and will act in accord with that belief.

Answer 9

Answer A is correct. In this situation, the boy says “I love you” to his mother because, when he does so, she stops yelling at him. In other words, his behavior continues because it allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling. **Escape conditioning is essentially another name for negative reinforcement:** It occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because something is removed following the behavior.

Answer 10

Answer A is correct. In signal detection theory, d’ is an estimate of an observer’s sensitivity and is a standard score that indicates the difference between the standard (z) scores for the hit rate and false alarm rate: d’ = z(H) – z(FA). The hit rate indicates the number of times the observer correctly detected a signal when it was present, and the false alarm rate indicates the number of times the observer erroneously detected a signal when it was not present.

Answer 11

Answer C is correct. Like Holland’s theory of career choice, Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment emphasizes the importance of the **match between a** **person’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job**. More specifically, Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness: Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 12

Answer C is correct. When using the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after six responses, then after four responses, then after eight responses, and so on. Of the four intermittent schedules of reinforcement, it produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction.

Answer 13

Answer B is correct. Fairchild et al. found that male adolescents with conduct disorder showed hyporeactive (reduced) cortisol and cardiovascular responses to a stressful procedure when compared to adolescents without a psychiatric disorder even though adolescents in all three groups reported experiencing similar levels of negative feelings when exposed to the procedure.

Answer 14

Answer C is correct. Baddeley’s model describes the working memory aspect of short-term memory as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer. The phonological loop is responsible for the temporary storage of auditory (verbal) information. It consists of a phonological store that briefly stores words and other speech sounds and an articulatory process that silently repeats words and other speech sounds on a loop to prevent them from decaying.

Answer 15

Answer B is correct. Priming is a method for studying implicit memory, and there are several types of priming. One type is repetition priming, which occurs when presentation of a word or object facilitates later identification of that word or object in a different format or context. Word-stem completion and word-fragment completion are two of the repetition priming tasks that are used to investigate implicit memory.

Answer 16

Answer D is correct. With regard to marriage, high levels of neuroticism have been most consistently linked to a number of negative outcomes including marital dissatisfaction and an increased risk for separation and divorce. See, e.g., B. R. Karney and T. N. Bradbury, The longitudinal course of marital quality and stability: A review of theory, method, and research, Psychological Bulletin, 118(1), 3-34, 1995.

Answer 17

Answer B is correct. Overcorrection is considered an application of positive punishment because it involves applying a penalty (restitution and/or positive practice) after the target behavior occurs in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Answer 18

Answer B is correct. The DCT requires examinees to count grouped and ungrouped dots printed on separate cards as quickly as possible. Poor effort is suggested when the time taken to count grouped dots (which should be easier to count) is equal to or greater than the time taken to count ungrouped dots. It allows examiners to detect poor test-taking effort and whether it was intentional (e.g., due to malingering) or unintentional and represents normal effort for several diagnostic groups (e.g., depression, schizophrenia, head injury).

Answer 19

Answer A is correct. Research has consistently confirmed that life stress is associated with an increased risk for substance use. Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy extended this research by confirming that religiosity acts as a buffer (mediator) between life stress and substance use: They found that, for adolescents, high religious involvement reduced the impact of life stress on both the initial level of alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use and the rate of increase in their use over time.

Answer 20

Answer A is correct. M. J. Kim and colleagues used magnetic resonance imaging to identify structural brain abnormalities associated with uncertainty tolerance and found that high scores on the Intolerance of Uncertainty Scale were most associated with increased volume of the striatum [Intolerance of uncertainty predicts increased striatal volume, Emotion, 17(6), 895-899, 2017]. The exam is likely to include 2 or 3 questions like this one that ask about a topic that has been addressed by only a few studies and require you to be familiar with the results of one of those studies. If you are unfamiliar with the study being asked about in this question, knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that altered basal ganglia functioning has been linked to generalized anxiety disorder would have helped you identify the correct answer. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination if you are familiar with the functions of the three other areas of the brain listed in the answers.

Answer 21

Answer D is correct. Risk factors for SIDS include male gender, African American and Native American race, and age under 6 months. Consequently, of the infants listed in the answers, a 5-month-old African American boy is at greatest risk for SIDS.

Answer 22

Answer C is correct. This is an easy question as long as you know that the WAIS-IV includes four indexes that each assess a different factor: Verbal Comprehension, Working Memory, Perceptual Reasoning, and Processing Speed.

Answer 23

Answer B is correct. The woman’s feeling that she’s on a roller coaster accompanied by a sense of fear and automatisms (being fidgety and smacking her lips) are most characteristic of temporal lobe seizures.

Answer 24

Answer B is correct. Theta waves begin in stage 1 sleep and continue in stage 2, when they are interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes. Sleep spindles are brief bursts of high frequency activity, and K complexes are well-defined high-amplitude waves that occur spontaneously or in response to environmental stimuli.

Answer 25

Answer D is correct: The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia usually first appear between the late teens and early 30s, with the peak age of onset being in the early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females. See, e.g., G. M. Giordano, P. Bucci, A. Mucci, P. Pezzella, and S. Galderisi, Gender differences in clinical and psychosocial features among persons with schizophrenia: A mini review, Frontiers in Psychiatry, 12, 2021, https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fpsyt.2021.789179/full.

Answer 26

Answer C is correct. Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Chromosomal deletion syndromes are caused by the loss of a segment of a chromosome and include cri-du-chat, Prader-Willi, and Angelman syndromes.

Answer 27

Answer B is correct. The majority of men with transvestic disorder self-identify as heterosexual, although some may occasionally have sexual interactions with other men, especially when cross-dressed. See, e.g., N. O. Rosen, L. A. Brotto, and K. J. Zucker, Sexual dysfunctions and paraphilic disorders, in D. C. Beidel and B. C. Frueh (Eds.), Adult psychopathology and diagnosis (8th ed., pp. 571-632), Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2018.

Answer 28

Answer B is correct. The results of Project MATCH indicated that the three treatments produced similar reductions in drinking with only a small (nonsignificant) advantage for twelve-step facilitation. The results also provided some support for the hypothesis that matching type of treatment to certain patient characteristics improves treatment outcomes. For example, at the three-year follow-up, patients who had higher levels of anger had better outcomes with motivational enhancement therapy, while those low in psychiatric severity and those with a pre-treatment social network that supported drinking had better outcomes with twelve-step facilitation (Project MATCH Research Group, 1997, 1998).

Answer 29

Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Principles III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibit psychologists from making false or misleading statements about their credentials, institutional or associational affiliations, etc. Listing the University of Illinois on her business card violates this ethical responsibility because it might be interpreted as indicating that her clinical practice is sponsored or endorsed by the University of Illinois (see, e.g., G. G. Ford, Mental health reasoning for mental health professionals, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, Inc., 2006).

Answer 30

Answer C is correct. A test’s positive predictive value (PPV) is the probability that a person who tests positive for a disorder actually has the disorder, while the negative predictive value (NPV) is the probability that a person who tests negative for a disorder does not actually have the disorder. Both values are affected by the prevalence of the disorder, which can vary in different locations and at different times. When the prevalence of the disorder increases, the PPV increases and the NPV decreases, and vice versa.

Answer 31

Answer B is correct. This question requires you to be familiar with the four methods that people usually use to reduce cognitive dissonance: replace or subtract the dissonant cognition, add a consonant cognition, increase the importance of a consonant cognition, or decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. Of the answers given, only decreasing the importance of the dissonant cognition is one of these methods and, therefore, is the best answer.

Answer 32

Answer C is correct. The importance of imagery in cognitive behavior therapy has been acknowledged by A. T. Beck who has noted that “[m]any times, maladaptive ideation occurs in a pictorial form instead of, or in addition to, the verbal form” (1976, p. 242). Guided imagery (also known as guided visualization) and imaginal exposure (answers A, B, and D) have been incorporated into CBT, with guided imagery/guided visualization being used primarily to promote relaxation and reduce stress and pain and imaginal exposure being used to treat phobic reactions. Imagery rescripting is used to replace (rescript) involuntary negative images and memories with more realistic and adaptive content (Cognitive therapy and the emotional disorders, New York, New American Library, 1976).

Answer 33

Answer C is correct. When a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are affected by the central tendency, leniency, or strictness bias (answers A and D), the ratings of all employees are affected in the same way. The central tendency bias occurs, for instance, when a supervisor gives all employees average ratings regardless of their actual level of performance. In contrast, when a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect, ratings are likely to differ for different employees. For example, a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect when the supervisor highly values communication skills and, consequently, rates employees who have very good communication skills high on all other dimensions of performance but rates employees who have poor communication skills low on all other dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance on the other dimensions. The false consensus effect (answer B) is not a rater bias but is a cognitive bias that occurs when we overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.

Answer 34

Answer A is correct. The stepped care model developed by Broten and colleagues is similar to other models of stepped care for depression and includes four steps. Step 1 consists of assessment, monitoring, and watchful waiting. Step 2 consists of interventions that require minimal practitioner involvement and includes psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT. Step 3 consists of interventions that require more intensive care and specialized therapist training and includes group therapy, individual therapy, and/or medication. Step 4 consists of the most restrictive and intensive form of care and involves voluntary or involuntary inpatient care.

Answer 35

Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because the 7th edition of APA’s Publication Manual (APA, 2020) does not specify a specific number of years for retaining raw data. Instead, it states that “authors are expected to retain the data associated with a published article in accordance with institutional requirements; funder requirements; participant agreements; and, when publishing in an APA journal, the APA Ethics Code” (p. 13). Note, however, that the 6th edition of the Publication Manual and submission guidelines for APA journals state that authors of articles published in an APA journal must maintain raw data for at least five years after publication of the articles.

Answer 36

Answer A is correct. There are a number of models of disability, but the most frequently mentioned are the medical and social models. The medical model is also referred to as the biomedical model and views a disability as a medical problem intrinsic to the individual and as an abnormality or deficiency. In contrast, the social model views a disability as a difference rather than a deficiency and as due primarily to aspects of society that create barriers for people with disabilities (e.g., negative attitudes, discrimination, exclusion).

Answer 37

Answer D is correct. Psychologists licensed in a PSYPACT state can provide telepsychology services to clients in other PSYPACT states. In addition, some states have laws that allow psychologists licensed in another state to provide telepsychology in those states for a specified period of time.

Answer 38

Answer B is correct. Studies have linked helicopter parenting to a number of negative outcomes for children, and some studies have identified mediators that explain this link. For example, Perry and colleagues found that overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood was predictive of poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation (as measured by emotion regulation and inhibitory control) at age 5 which, in turn, was predictive of emotional, social, and academic problems at age 10.

Answer 39

Answer B is correct. During extinction trials, the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus until the conditioned stimulus no longer elicits the conditioned response. However, after a period of time, when the conditioned stimulus is again presented without the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response returns in a reduced or less intense form. Pavlov referred to the return of the conditioned response as spontaneous recovery. He proposed that it provides evidence that the extinction of a conditioned response is due to a physiological process that suppresses (rather than eliminates) the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response, and he referred to this physiological process as** internal inhibition.**

Answer 40

Answer B is correct. A mindguard is a group member who acts as a self-appointed censor and shields the group and group leader from dissenting views by, for example, actively discouraging members from sharing contradictory ideas. The presence of a mindguard is one of the symptoms of groupthink.

Answer 41

Answer C is correct. VBRT is a type of contingency management that involves giving patients vouchers that can be exchanged for goods and services in the community when they meet treatment goals. It has been found useful for promoting initial abstinence, but its positive effect on abstinence tends to fade once vouchers are no longer provided. In contrast, CBT has been found useful for helping patients maintain abstinence following treatment, apparently because it provides them with coping skills they can continue to use post-treatment.

Answer 42

Answer C is correct. Research investigating the impact of human support on the effectiveness of DMHIs has most often confirmed that it has beneficial effects. For example, **Werntz et al.’s (2023**) systematic meta-review of 31 meta-analyses of studies comparing human support versus no support for a variety of mental health conditions found that, of the 45 effect sizes reported in the meta-analyses, the majority confirmed that **support was better than no support.** Their review also found no consistent differences in outcomes when support was provided by a therapist or other mental health professional or by a peer, staff member, or other nonprofessional.

Answer 43

Answer B is correct. S. L. Bem distinguished between three “lenses” through which people perceive gender (The lenses of gender: Transforming the debate on sexual inequality, New Haven, Yale University Press, 2008): **(a) Biological essentialism** refers to the attribution of gender differences to unalterable biological factors. (b) **Gender polarization** (answer A) refers to the exaggeration of gender differences. (c) **Androcentrism** (answer B) refers to the tendency to view the behaviors and experiences of males as the norm and the behaviors and experiences of females as deviations from the norm, often to the disadvantage of females. **Gender stereotyping **(answer C) refers to overgeneralizing attributes that are considered normal or appropriate for males or females and is not one of the lenses identified by Bem. **Androgyny** (answer D) is the term Bem used to describe individuals who have both feminine and masculine traits and is also not one of the three lenses that she identified for perceiving gender.

Answer 44

Answer C is correct. Impairments in memory and other cognitive functions associated with Alzheimer’s disease have been linked to neurodegeneration in certain areas of the brain resulting from acetylcholine deficiency and glutamate excitotoxicity: Acetylcholine deficiency is caused by degeneration of neurons that release acetylcholine and increased activity of an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Glutamate excitotoxity is caused by excessive presynaptic release of glutamate and decreased glutamate reuptake in synaptic clefts.

Answer 45

Answer B is correct. Free morphemes are minimal units of meaning that stand alone as words, while bound morphemes must be combined with at least one other morpheme. Unsustainable has two bound morphemes (un and able) and one free morpheme (sustain)

Answer 46

Answer A is correct. Open access is most consistent with General Principle D, which is titled Justice. It calls for psychologists to “recognize that fairness and justice entitle all persons to access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology.” See, e.g., JEPS Bulletin, APA’s five General Principles of ethics: How do they matter to an aspiring scientist, 2021, https://blog.efpsa.org/2013/08/15/apas-five-general-principles-of-ethics/.

Answer 47

Answer B is correct. The Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were derived using an empirical criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of males and females employed in various occupations with the responses of males and females in a general representative sample and including items in a scale that were consistently answered in the same way only by males and females employed in that occupation. For example, items that were consistently answered in the same way by psychologists but not by people in the general representative sample were included in the psychologist scale.

Answer 48

Answer C is correct. This is a difficult question because the research has not provided consistent results. Although the studies have confirmed that MAOIs are effective and more effective than TCAs for treating atypical depression, they have provided mixed results for SSRIs: Some studies have found MAOIs to be somewhat more effective than SSRIs, while others have found the two drugs to be similar in effectiveness. See, e.g., V. Henkel, R. Mergi, A. K. Allgaier, R. Kohnen, H. J. Moller, and U. Hegerl, Treatment of depression with atypical features: A meta-analytic approach, Psychiatry Research, 141(1), 89-101, 2006.

Answer 49

Answer B is correct. Dittmar et al.’s meta-analysis confirmed that prioritization of materialist values has a negative effect on personal well-being. They found that higher levels of materialism were associated, for example, with lower levels of life satisfaction, mental health, and physical health.

Answer 50

Answer C is correct. Sellers and colleagues distinguish between four dimensions of racial identity: racial salience, racial centrality, racial regard, and racial ideology. Racial salience refers to the extent to which a person’s race is relevant to the person’s self-concept at a particular point in time or in a particular situation. In other words, the degree of racial salience for a person depends on the circumstances. For example, the salience of an African American person’s race is likely to be high when that person is the only African American in a social situation. In contrast, Sellers et al. describe the other three dimensions as being stable across different situations. Racial disparity (answer B) is not one of the dimensions identified by Sellers et al.

Answer 51

Answer B is correct. A job analysis is a systematic procedure for obtaining work- and/or worker-oriented information about a job – i.e., information about the content and context of a job and/or the human characteristics required to perform the job successfully. A job evaluation (answer A) is conducted to obtain information needed to make decisions about compensation. A needs assessment (answer C) is also known as a needs analysis and is used to make decisions about training. A job specification (answer D) provides a description of the worker characteristics required to perform a job successfully. These three procedures are not categorized as work-oriented, worker-oriented, or a combination of the two.

Answer 52

Answer D is correct. EMDR is based on Shapiro’s adaptive information processing model, which proposes (a) that PTSD results when traumatic experiences are inadequately processed and (b) that rapid eye movements facilitate information processing, resulting in an adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. Note that there is some evidence that rapid eye movements exert beneficial effects by providing repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories (answer B), but this is not Shapiro’s explanation for the effects of rapid eye movements, which is what this question is asking about.

Answer 53

Answer B is correct. Practitioners of motivational interviewing view discrepancy as a source of motivation, and the technique of developing discrepancy involves helping clients recognize discrepancies between their goals, values, and beliefs and their current behaviors in order to increase their motivation to change.

Answer 54

Answer A is correct. Family-based treatment for anorexia consists of the three phases listed in the question. It takes an agnostic approach to the etiology of the disorder, which means it doesn’t attempt to identify why it developed and does not blame the parents or adolescent. Family-focused therapy (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders (answer D) is an evidence-based treatment for bulimia and binge-eating disorder. There is some evidence that it may also be useful for anorexia, but it doesn’t involve the phases described in the question.

Answer 55

Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the conditions that lead to flow, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you have positive psychology associated with flow, which is a state of being totally immersed in an activity accompanied by joy and a sense of fulfillment. According to M. Csikszentmihalyi, a person is most likely to experience flow when there is a challenge-skill balance – i.e., when people perceive a task’s level of challenge (difficulty) and their level of skill with regard to accomplishing that task to be similar (Finding flow: The psychology of engagement with everyday life, New York, Basic Books, 1997). Individuation (answer A) is a goal of Jung’s analytical psychology and is the process by which a person develops an integrated, unique identity. Committed action (answer B) is associated with acceptance and commitment therapy. Arugamama (answer D) means acceptance of life as it is and is a goal of Morita therapy, which is NOT something you need to be familiar with for the exam.

Answer 56

Answer C is correct. Use of the Boston Process Approach is based on the assumption that qualitative analysis of a patient’s responses to test items provides more information than quantitative scores about the patient’s neuropsychological processes by identifying how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems presented by test items.

Answer 57

Answer B is correct. Correll and his colleagues compared the shoot/don’t shoot decisions of civilians and police officers using a videogame simulation designed to recreate the experience of a police officer who suddenly encounters a potentially dangerous suspect. They found that civilians demonstrated shooter bias in terms of both response time and accuracy, while police officers demonstrated shooter bias only in terms of response time: Police officers did not make as many shooting errors as the civilians did. However, like civilians, they decided to shoot armed Black suspects more quickly than armed White suspects and not to shoot unarmed White suspects more quickly than unarmed Black suspects.

Answer 58

Answer C is correct. A number of studies have confirmed that people from individualistic cultures are more likely than those from collectivistic cultures to engage in social loafing. There’s also evidence that, in some collectivistic cultures, individuals work harder in a group than they do when working alone, and this is referred to as social striving. With regard to gender (answer D), there’s some evidence that men engage in more social loafing than women do in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures [e.g., D. Tsaw, S. Murphy, and J. Detgen, Social loafing and culture: Does gender matter?, International Review of Business Research Papers, 7(3), 1-8].

Answer 59

Answer B is correct. Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic drugs and involves a feeling of inner restlessness with a compulsion to keep moving. The disorders listed in the other answers are also extrapyramidal side effects: Involuntary muscle contractions (answer A) are symptoms of dystonia. Involuntary, jerky movements of the tongue, lips, face, and jaw (answer C) are symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Tremor, muscle rigidity, and slowed movements (answer D) are symptoms of parkinsonism. Note that there is evidence that second-generation antipsychotics are less likely than first-generation antipsychotics to cause dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism but that this is not necessarily true for akathisia [B. Elhusein, O. Mahgoub, R. Kumar, and M. A. Abdullah, The possibility of the second-generation antipsychotic Olanzapine to cause akathisia in a drug naïve patient – A case report, International Journal of Psychiatry, 5(1), 1-4, 2020].

Answer 60

Answer A is correct. When subjective reports of people with insomnia disorder are compared to polysomnography or other objective measure of sleep, their subjective reports most often underestimate the total amount of sleep they have each night and overestimate their sleep onset latency (the time it takes them to fall asleep).

Answer 61

Answer D is correct. Studies evaluating the effectiveness of telepsychology as a means of providing therapy for bulimia nervosa have not produced entirely consistent results, and the best conclusion that can be drawn from the studies is that telepsychology has positive effects but may be less effective than in-person therapy for some treatment outcomes.

Answer 62

Answer C is correct. The waist-to-hip ratio is calculated by dividing waist circumference by hip circumference. Most cross-cultural studies have found that men prefer a low waist-to-hip ratio of .70, which means that waist circumference is about 70% of hip circumference.

Answer 63

Answer C is correct. According to McClelland, people with a high need for achievement have a strong desire for assuming personal responsibility for completing a task and, therefore, have trouble delegating work to others (answer A). They also desire regular, concrete feedback about their performance (answer B) and are motivated most by moderately difficult goals – i.e., goals that have about a 50/50 chance of being successfully accomplished (answer D). However, being motivated by opportunities to gain status and recognition (answer C) is more characteristic of individuals with a high need for power than of those with a high need for achievement: Individuals with a high need for achievement are motivated most by opportunities for achieving a sense of personal accomplishment.

Answer 64

Answer D is correct. Cui and Sheng’s meta-analysis found that, for individuals with mild to moderate depression, St. John’s wort extract was comparable to SSRIs in terms of clinical response and remission and had a lower rate of adverse events.

Answer 65

Answer D is correct. Cannon-Bard theory describes all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal and proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to a stimulus occur simultaneously and independently. Hering’s opponent process theory (answer A) is a theory of color vision. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory (answer B) proposes that physiological arousal occurs first and then the person looks for external cues that provide a reason for that arousal. According to the James-Lange theory (answer C), emotions are the result of physiological arousal, with different types of arousal producing different emotions.

Answer 66

Answer D is correct. Cultural tightness-looseness refers to the strength of a culture’s social norms and tolerance for deviant behaviors. Knowing that tight cultures have strong social norms and low tolerance for deviant behaviors and that loose cultures have weak social norms and high tolerance for deviant behaviors might have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As noted by Harrington and Gelfand, tightness has a positive correlation with conscientiousness because this personality dimension “reflects greater impulse control and overall self-constraint and is associated with cautiousness, self-discipline, ability to delay gratification, desire for orderliness, and conformity to norms.” In contrast, looseness has a positive correlation with openness because this dimension “is associated with nontraditional values and beliefs, breadth of experience, interest and curiosity toward new ideas, tolerance for other cultures, and a preference for originality” (2014, p. 7993).

Answer 67

Answer B is correct. Hall, Hall, and Caselli conclude that the research confirms that exposing DHH children to sign language from birth does not have detrimental effects on the acquisition of spoken language and that, instead, “there is evidence that exposure to a sign language can confer a host of benefits, and that excluding a sign language leaves the child at great risk of language deprivation” (2019, p. 383). Answer C can be eliminated because the benefits of sign language occur without previous spoken language interventions. In addition, there is evidence that waiting to introduce sign language as a “last resort” after spoken language interventions have failed can have a negative irreversible effect on the language areas of the brain.

Answer 68

Answer D is correct. Standard trisomy 21 is the most common type of Down syndrome and is caused by an extra chromosome 21, which means that people with this disorder have an extra gene for the amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene. Because of the extra APP gene, amyloid begins to accumulate in the brains of people with this disorder in their late teens to early 20s and increases their risk for early-onset Alzheimer’s disease. The APOE4 gene (answer A) is located on chromosome 19 and is the strongest genetic risk factor for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. The APOE2 gene (answer B) is also located on chromosome 19 but has been linked to a decreased risk for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. Mutations on the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome (answer C) have been identified as a cause of Rett syndrome. Knowing that APP is the acronym for amyloid protein precursor and that amyloid plaques are a key characteristic of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 69

Answer A is correct. If you’re not familiar with research linking GAD to weak connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and anterior cingulate cortex, you might have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the anterior cingulate cortex plays a role in mood and anxiety disorders. Alternatively, you might have been able to use the process of elimination to make an “educated guess”: Knowing that the entorhinal cortex and mammillary bodies play important roles in memory would have helped you eliminate answers B and C, and knowing that the suprachiasmatic nucleus is responsible for controlling the body’s circadian rhythms would have helped you eliminate answer D.

Answer 70

Answer B is correct. Eysenck is known for several controversial views, but only answer B refers to one of them: According to Eysenck, intelligence is highly heritable and, consequently, race differences in IQ are due primarily to genetic differences.

Answer 71

Answer D is correct. According to TMT, awareness (salience) of mortality creates a sense of terror which, in turn, can have a variety of adverse effects. For example, research has found that increasing awareness of mortality contributes to prejudice and discrimination by increasing negative evaluations of and reactions to out-group members and increasing positive evaluations of and reactions to in-group members.

Answer 72

Answer D is correct. Statistical power is affected by several factors including the variability of the population with regard to status on the dependent variable: The more homogeneous the population is (i.e., the lower its variability), the more homogeneous the groups drawn from that population will be and, consequently, the easier it will be to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. In other words, greater population homogeneity (not heterogeneity) is associated with greater statistical power. Other factors that increase statistical power are listed in answers A, B, and C.

Answer 73

Answer B is correct. Family-focused therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. It is based on recognition that high levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement (i.e., high expressed emotion) by family members can trigger relapse in a family member with this disorder. Multidimensional family therapy (answer A) is a treatment for families that include a member who is 11 to 21 years old and has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency. Multisystemic therapy (answer C) is an intensive family and community-based intervention for adolescents 12 to 18 years old who are at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems. Transference-focused psychotherapy (answer D) is used to treat borderline and other personality disorders.

Answer 74

Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that the task described in the question is known as the Deese, Roediger and McDermott (DRM) procedure, that it is a false memory task, and that illusory memory is a synonym for false memory. The DRM procedure requires subjects to read a list of semantically related words and then to recall as many words from the list as they can. Research using this procedure has found that it often creates a false memory for words.

Answer 75

Answer A is correct. When using BARS, a supervisor rates each employee on several dimensions of job performance using a graphic rating scale, with points on the scale being “anchored” by specific behaviors (critical incidents) that each describe a different level of performance.

Answer 76

Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, the reliable change index is used to determine if a difference in pre- and post-treatment scores on an outcome measure is reliable – i.e., if it is due to real improvement or deterioration in a person’s clinical condition or to measurement error. The RCI is also used in conjunction with the outcome measure’s cutoff score to determine if a change in scores is clinically significant.

Answer 77

Answer A is correct. The medial temporal lobe is the inner surface of the temporal lobe and includes the hippocampus and several other structures that are vital for long-term declarative memories. Following a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy, H. M.’s short-term memory and procedural memory were intact, but he had deficits in remote long-term episodic memory and was unable to transfer any new declarative information from short- to long-term memory. (Declarative memory consists of semantic and episodic memories, while nondeclarative memory consists of procedural memories, memories created by classical conditioning, and memories affected by priming.)

Answer 78

Answer B is correct. Practitioners of the various forms of BPT differ with regard to their use of transference. However, they do not view it as an impediment to therapy but may focus more on positive transference than on negative transference, with some practitioners considering positive transference to be a contributor to a good therapeutic alliance and essential to positive treatment outcomes [e.g., M. P. Koss & J. Shiang, Research on brief psychotherapy, In A. E. Bergin and S. L. Garfield (Eds.), Handbook of psychotherapy and behavior change (4th ed., pp. 664-700), 1994, New York, Wiley]. Answers A, C, and D accurately describe characteristics of BPT.

Answer 79

Answer B is correct. Scores on measures of verbal IQ (crystallized intelligence) remain relatively stable in adulthood until the 70s or 80s when they begin to decline, while scores on measures of performance IQ (fluid intelligence) begin to decline in the 20s. This is referred to as the classic aging pattern and is best described by answer B.

Answer 80

Answer D is correct. Chaining is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of separate responses (links in the behavior chain). It begins with a task analysis to identify the individual responses that make up the behavior chain and involves teaching the individual how to perform each response in the behavior chain sequentially, starting with the first or the last response.

Answer 81

Answer A is correct. The behavioral variant of frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder involves behavioral and personality changes that include prominent declines in social cognition (e.g., socially inappropriate behaviors) and/or executive abilities plus three or more of the following: behavioral disinhibition; apathy and inertia; loss of sympathy or empathy; perseverative, stereotyped, or compulsive/ritualistic behaviors; hyperorality and dietary changes (e.g., overeating and preference for sweet foods). The symptoms listed in answer B are characteristic of neurocognitive disorder due to Huntington’s disease. The symptoms listed in answer C are characteristic of neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. The symptoms listed in answer D are characteristic of neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection.

Answer 82

Answer D is correct. The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can inhibit a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of a less familiar response and provides information about several cognitive processes including selective attention and response inhibition. It is often used to assess children with ADHD but is not useful for assessing the functions listed in answers A, B, and C.

Answer 83

Answer A is correct. Prior to Asch’s research, Sherif (1935) used an ambiguous stimulus (the autokinetic effect) to study conformity to group norms, and found that subjects conformed to the group norm. Asch then used an unambiguous stimulus (comparisons of the lengths of three lines) and found that subjects conformed to the group norm even when it was obvious that the line-length estimates made by other group members (confederates) were clearly wrong.

Answer 84

Answer A is correct. Adorno’s F (Fascism) Scale is a self-report measure of traits and tendencies associated with authoritarianism (e.g., conventionalism, destructiveness and cynicism, authoritarian aggression, authoritarian submission, and superstition and stereotypy). Alexithymia (answer D) is an inability to recognize or describe one’s own emotions.

Answer 85

Answer C is correct. The information in the question accurately describes the predictions of the ultimate attribution bias which, of the biases listed in the answers, is the only one that applies to attributions that members of an in-group make about the behaviors of members of their in-group and members of an out-group. The group attribution error (answer A) occurs when people believe that their group’s decision is consistent with the decision of each individual group member, even in the presence of information suggesting that the group decision was not unanimous. The actor-observer effect (answer B) is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors. While this is consistent with the prediction made by the ultimate attribution bias for the undesirable behaviors of in-group and out-group members, it is not consistent with its prediction for desirable behaviors. The confirmation bias (answer D) is not an attribution bias but is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that refutes them.

Answer 86

Answer D is correct. MRI and CT are structural neuroimaging techniques that are used to assess the effects of traumatic brain injury. CT is normally the preferred method for acute injury for the reasons listed in the question [B. Lee and A. Newberg, Neuroimaging in traumatic brain imaging, NeuroRx, 2(2), 372-383, 2005]. Other advantages of CT are that, unlike MRI, it does not require the individual to remain motionless for an extended period of time and is less noisy and, therefore, does not require the use of earplugs or headphones.

Answer 87

Answer A is correct. Studies have found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between 2 and 3 years of age, with girls showing this preference by age 2 and boys showing this preference by age 3.

Answer 88

Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the MLQ, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that transactional leaders rely on contingent rewards to motivate their employees and that individualized consideration and idealized influence are characteristic of transformational (not transactional) leaders. Management-by-exception is characteristic of transactional leaders and can be either active or passive: Active management-by-exception occurs when leaders closely monitor the behaviors of followers and take corrective action when necessary. Passive management-by-exception occurs when leaders do not closely monitor the behavior of followers and take corrective action only when serious errors have already occurred. (For the exam, you do not need to be familiar with the MLQ but should be familiar with the characteristics of transformational and transactional leadership.)

Answer 89

Answer B is correct. Compared to younger adults, older adults wake up more frequently during the night. However, older adults do not require less sleep than younger adults do (answer A) and, consequently, often take daytime naps to compensate for shorter sleep time during the night. In addition, older adults have a longer sleep latency and spend less time in slow-wave (deep) sleep (answers C and D).

Answer 90

Answer A is correct. Ataxia is the most common consequence of damage to the cerebellum and involves a lack of coordination and clumsiness of movement that is not due to muscular weakness. In addition to problems with gait and posture, cerebellar ataxia can cause abnormal eye movements, dysarthria (difficulty moving the muscles involved in speech), and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Apraxia (answer B) is an inability to carry out purposeful movements despite normal muscle power and control. It is most often due to damage to the parietal lobes but may also be caused by damage to the corpus callosum and certain areas of the frontal lobes. There is also evidence that damage to the cerebellum may be involved in several specific types of apraxia including oculomotor apraxia and agraphic apraxia. However, apraxia is not the correct answer because it is not the most common outcome of damage to the cerebellum, which is what this question is asking about. Dyskinesia (answer C) involves abnormal, involuntary muscle movements (e.g., twitching, fidgeting) that are caused by abnormal activity in the basal ganglia. Paresthesia (answer D) involves numbness, tingling, or other abnormal sensation in the skin. It is caused by sustained pressure or damage to a nerve in the brain or spinal cord due, for example, to a stroke or tumor.

Answer 91

Answer C is correct. One important advantage of computer adaptive tests is that they reduce testing time by requiring examinees to answer only items that are appropriate for their ability level rather than requiring all examinees to answer all of the items in the item pool. Another advantage is that they can be designed so that they provide the same amount of measurement precision (accuracy) for all examinees. Answers A and B do not describe advantages of computerized adaptive testing but, instead, refer to disadvantages: Computerized adaptive tests can be time- and resource-intensive to create, and they do not usually allow examinees to make changes to items they have already answered. Answer D is not correct because scores on a computerized adaptive test are not necessarily easier or more difficult to interpret than scores on a paper-and-pencil test or other type of test.

Answer 92

Answer A is correct. A primary goal of Milan systemic family therapy is to disrupt destructive family games (“dirty games”) that involve deceit and power struggles and lead to and maintain symptoms.

Answer 93

Answer B is correct. Children use gender schemas to perceive, encode, and interpret information about themselves and others. For example, by 3 years of age, boys and girls usually have well-established gender schemas for toys, clothing, and activities (e.g., they consider trucks to be toys for boys and dolls to be toys for girls). The acquisition of gender stability and gender constancy (answers A and D) are the second and third stages, respectively, of Kohlberg’s gender identity development model. They can be eliminated as correct answers because they emerge after 4 years of age. Gender typing (answer C) can be eliminated because it refers to expectations about the behaviors of others based on their biological sex.

Answer 94

Answer B is correct. Helms’s model distinguishes between six stages which are, in order, contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, White individuals in the contact stage are oblivious to race and racism and how they benefit from institutional and cultural racism and White privilege.

Answer 95

Answer D is correct. An essential characteristic of the gender affirmative model is that it advocates considering social gender transitioning as long as certain conditions are met: (a) gender concerns are not due to some other problem; (b) the central issue for the child is gender identity (how children internally experience their gender) rather than gender expression (how children publicly present their gender); (c) the child expresses a need or desire to transition; and (d) the child’s parents can offer support for transitioning (D. Ehrensaft, The gender creative child: Pathways for nurturing and supporting children who live outside gender boxes, New York, The Experiment Publishing, 2016). Note that the gender affirmative model’s guidelines for social transitioning distinguish it from the watchful waiting (Dutch) model, which recommends adopting a neutral position about children’s gender concerns until they reach puberty when social transitioning should be considered.

Answer 96

Answer A is correct. For psychologists licensed in a compact jurisdiction to provide telepsychology services to clients in other compact jurisdictions under the authority of PSYPACT, they must obtain an E.Passport from the ASPPB and an Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology (APIT) from the PSYPACT Commission. When these have been obtained, psychologists may practice telepsychology in any compact jurisdiction without obtaining additional licenses. To provide temporary in-person therapy across jurisdictional boundaries under the authority of PSYPACT, psychologists licensed in a compact jurisdiction must obtain an **Interjurisdictional Practice Certificate and a Temporary Authorization to Practice.**

Answer 97

Answer A is correct. **Cost-utility analysis** is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when outcomes are expressed as quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY). **Cost-benefit analysis** (answer B) is used when the costs and benefits of the interventions being evaluated can be expressed in monetary terms. **Cost-effectiveness analysis** (answer C) is used to compare two or more interventions that have outcomes that are measured in **nonmonetary terms** other than QALYs or DALYs (e.g., as reduction in symptom severity or probability of relapse). Cost-consequences analysis (answer D) is used to **compare the consequences (outcomes)** of two or more interventions when there are multiple consequences that are simply listed and not aggregated into a QALY, DALY, cost-effectiveness ratio, or other single metric.

Answer 98

Answer A is correct. The Generations Study was a five-year study that examined the health and well-being of lesbian, gay, and bisexual (LGB) individuals who represented three age cohorts: 18-25, 34-41, and 52-59. Included in this study were questions about participants’ ages when they first experienced five sexual identity milestones: awareness of same-sex attraction; self-identification as lesbian, gay, or bisexual; same-sex sexual behavior; disclosure as a sexual minority to a straight friend; and disclosure as a sexual minority to a family member. Consistent with previous research, Bishop, Fish, Hammack, and Russell found that members of the younger cohort reported first experiencing all milestones at the youngest ages, while members of the older cohort reported first experiencing all milestones at the oldest ages.

Answer 99

Answer C is correct. The 4D model of appreciative inquiry describes organizational change as involving a cycle that consists of four stages. These stages are, in order, discover (or discovery), dream, design, and delivery (or destiny).

Answer 100

Answer B is correct. TQM is an organizational intervention that focuses on improving the quality of an organization’s activities and products. Its essential characteristics are continuous improvement, full employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.

Answer 101

Answer B is correct. Studies have found that women who are 30 years of age or older at the time of conception are more likely than younger women to have a baby with standard trisomy 21, with the risk increasing with increasing age. Maternal race/ethnicity has not been linked to the risk for standard trisomy 21, so an African American woman (answer A) is not at increased risk for having a child with this disorder because of her race. Having a sister who has a child with standard trisomy 21 (answer C) does not increase a woman’s risk for having a child with this type of trisomy 21 because it is not genetically inherited. (Translocation trisomy 21 can be due to an error during cell division or can be inherited from a parent carrier.) A folic acid deficiency during pregnancy (answer D) can cause neural tube defects but has not been linked to an increased risk for having a baby with trisomy 21.

Answer 102

Answer D is correct. Kohlberg’s model of moral development consists of three levels, with each level including two stages. The third level is the post-conventional level and consists of stages 5 and 6: Stage 5 is the social contract and individual rights stage (answer B), and stage 6 is the universal ethical principles stage (answer D). Transcendental morality (answer A) was a seventh stage that Kohlberg proposed later in his life. However, due to a lack of evidence for its existence, he considered it to be speculative. Interpersonal concordance (answer C) is another name for stage 3 of Kohlberg’s model, which is better known as the “good-boy/good girl” stage.

Answer 103

Answer C is correct. Anna’s symptoms are characteristic of emetophobia, which is a fear of vomiting. In addition to a fear of vomiting, its symptoms include a fear of seeing someone else vomit as well as the other symptoms listed in the question. It is categorized in the DSM as an “other type” of specific phobia. Answer A (obsessive-compulsive disorder) is not the best answer because the question does not indicate that Anna is experiencing recurrent intrusive or unwanted thoughts or repetitive behaviors that she feels driven to perform. Answer B (social anxiety disorder) is not the best answer because Anna’s symptoms are not limited to marked fear or anxiety about social situations in which she might be exposed to the scrutiny of others. Answer D (unspecified eating disorder) is not the best answer because Anna’s symptoms more closely fit an anxiety disorder than an eating disorder.

Answer 104

Answer A is correct. Of the treatments listed in the answers, parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) is the only one that is appropriate for young children (ages 2 to 7) who have ODD or other disruptive behavior problems and is also an evidence-based intervention for children who have experienced or are at risk for experiencing maltreatment. Assertive community treatment (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for schizophrenia. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Multidimensional family therapy (answer D) is for families that include a member 11 to 21 years old who has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency.

Answer 105

Answer D is correct. Clozapine and, to a lesser extent, other SGAs can cause neutropenia and agranulocytosis, which is a severe form of neutropenia. Both conditions are potentially life-threatening and involve dangerously low levels of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell that is an essential part of the body’s immune system.

Answer 106

Answer C is correct. The concepts of equifinality and multifinality are derived from general systems theory and have been applied to several disciplines including biology, developmental psychopathology, family therapy, and organizational theory. Equifinality refers to the ability of open systems to reach the same final state from different initial conditions, while multifinality refers to the ability of open systems to reach different final states from the same initial condition. This question applies equifinality to developmental psychopathology.

Answer 107

Answer B is correct. PKU results when a child inherits a recessive allele from both parents – i.e., when the child is homozygous for the recessive allele. (An allele is an alternative form of a gene.) The recessive allele responsible for PKU causes a failure to produce the enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, which is an amino acid found in a number of foods including milk, cheese, beans, meat, bread, and eggs. If a newborn with PKU is not started on diet low in phenylalanine soon after birth, PKU can cause severe intellectual disability.

Answer 108

Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question because the studies have not produced entirely consistent results. However, most studies have found transdiagnostic psychological treatments to be as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific psychological treatments for depression and anxiety. For example, based on the results of their meta-analysis, Newby and colleagues (2015) concluded that transdiagnostic treatments are as effective as diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and may be more effective for depression.

Answer 109

Answer D is correct. THC is the main psychoactive chemical in marijuana. Like cocaine, opiates, and other drugs of abuse, it produces reinforcing effects by increasing dopamine concentrations in the nucleus accumbens, which is a component of the brain’s mesolimbic dopaminergic reward pathway. Note, however, that there’s some evidence that **chronic heavy use of marijuana may decrease (rather than increase) the release of dopamine** in this pathway. See, e.g., E. van de Giessne et al., Deficits in striatal dopamine release in cannabis dependence, Molecular Psychiatry, 22(1), 68-75, 2017.

Answer 110

Answer D is correct. Inadequate language skills and lack of a coherent sense of self have been identified as possible causes of childhood amnesia, which is also known as infantile amnesia and is the inability of adults to recall events they experienced before they were three or four years of age. The synchrony effect (answer A) refers to age-related differences in the optimal time of day for successful performance on various tasks and is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms. The reminiscence bump (answer B) is the tendency for older adults to have increased recall for events that occurred when they were between 15 and 25 years old when they are asked to recall events from their past. It has been attributed to identity formation (which is related to a sense of self) during this period but not to language skills. Involuntary memory (answer C) occurs when an intentionally recalled memory automatically elicits another memory. It has not been linked to a sense of self or language skills.

Answer 111

Answer D is correct. Most studies comparing the use of computer videoconferencing to face-to-face therapy for delivering prolonged-exposure therapy to individuals with PTSD have found that they are comparable in terms of both reducing the symptoms of PTSD and maintaining treatment fidelity, which is the degree to which an intervention is delivered as intended. See, e.g., L. A. Morland, S. Y. Wells, L. H. Glassman, C. J. Greene, J. E. Hoffman, and C. S. Rosen, Advances in PTSD treatment delivery: Review of findings and clinical considerations for the use of telehealth interventions for PTSD, Current Treatment Options in Psychiatry, 7, 221-241, 2020.

Answer 112

Answer B is correct. If you are unfamiliar with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, knowing that Korsakoff syndrome is also known as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and is caused by a thiamine deficiency would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is the acute disorder that is caused by a thiamine deficiency and involves confusion, abnormal eye movements, and ataxia. When it is not adequately treated, it leads to Korsakoff syndrome, which is a chronic disorder that is due to permanent damage to the brain and involves anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation.

Answer 113

Answer B is correct. When using the Premack principle, a high probability (frequency) behavior is used as reinforcement for a low probability behavior to increase the low probability behavior.

Answer 114

Answer A is correct. Parental alienation syndrome refers to a parent’s behaviors that cause a child to express hatred and resistance toward the other parent. Research by J. C. Siegel and J. S. Langford and others has found that parents exhibiting PAS often obtain high L and K scale scores on the MMPI-2 and low scores on the F scale, which indicates that they tend to rely on the primitive defenses of denial, projection, splitting, and devaluation [MMPI-2 validity scales and suspected parental alienation syndrome, American Journal of Forensic Psychology, 16(4), 5-14, 1998].

Answer 115

Answer B is correct. **Meyer’s minority stress theory** distinguishes between distal and proximal factors that increase the risk for mental health problems for sexual-minority individuals: **Distal factors** are external stressors and include prejudice, discrimination, harassment, and violence, while **proximal factors **are internal stressors and include concealment of sexual identity, perceived stigma, and internalized heterosexism.

Answer 116

Answer A is correct. Baltes et al.’s (1999) meta-analysis found that the strongest beneficial effect of flextime was the reduction of absenteeism followed by, in order, objective measures of productivity, employee satisfaction with flextime, job satisfaction, and self-rated performance.

Answer 117

Answer C is correct. Voulgaridou and Kokkinos conclude that the research has consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression than adolescent girls do but has provided mixed results about relational aggression: Some studies have found that adolescent girls engage in more relational aggression, while others have found that adolescent boys engage in more relational aggression or that there is no significant gender difference in relational aggression.

Answer 118

Answer C is correct. Sexual fluidity refers to changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors at different times and in different situations that are inconsistent with the person’s self-described sexual orientation. The studies have found that sexual fluidity occurs in both heterosexual and homosexual men and women but that it is somewhat more common in women.

Answer 119

Answer D is correct. The own-race bias (ORB) is also known as the other-race effect. It refers to the tendency of people to more accurately perceive and identify the faces of people of their own race than the faces of people of other races. The research has found that, because of this bias, cross-race identifications by eyewitnesses produce more misidentifications (“false alarms”) than own-race identifications do.

Answer 120

Answer C is correct. LSD has agonist and partial agonist effects, respectively, at serotoninergic and dopaminergic receptors.

Answer 121

Answer B is correct. Research on the impact of parenting style on bullying behavior and victimization by a bully has not produced entirely consistent results. However, the best conclusion that can be drawn from the studies is that authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying behavior and victimization by a bully but that authoritarian parenting is more strongly associated with bullying behavior while permissive parenting is more strongly associated with victimization by a bully.

Answer 122

Answer C is correct. The symptoms described in this answer are mild to moderate symptoms of hypoglycemia. The symptoms listed in answer A are characteristic of hyperthyroidism, those listed in answer B are characteristic of hypothyroidism, and those listed in answer D are characteristic of diabetes insipidus.

Answer 123

Answer D is correct. A number of psychoactive drugs can cause agranulocytosis, which is a potentially fatal blood disorder that involves a low level of white blood cells and requires white blood cell monitoring. Of these drugs, clozapine (a second-generation antipsychotic) and carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant drug used to treat bipolar disorder) are the most common causes of this disorder. The drugs listed in answers A, B, and C do not cause agranulocytosis but may produce other blood dyscrasias that you do NOT need to be familiar with for the exam. See, e.g., R. J. Flanagan and L. Dunk, Haematological toxicity of drugs used in psychiatry, Human Psychopharmacology: Clinical & Experimental, 23, 27-41, 2008.

Answer 124

Answer B is correct. Faragher et al. found that level of job satisfaction had a positive correlation with measures of both mental/psychological health and physical health. However, the correlation coefficient was higher for mental/psychological health than for physical health (.318 for mental health versus .235 for physical health).

Answer 125

Answer A is correct. The median correlation coefficients for IQ scores reported by Bouchard and McGue are .22 for biological parent and child living apart, .31 for adopted siblings living together, .24 for biological siblings living apart, and .35 for half-siblings living together. Note that an implication of this data is that nature (genetics) contributes somewhat less than nurture (environment) to IQ scores: For example, the correlation coefficient is higher for adopted siblings living together than for biological siblings living apart.

Answer 126

Answer C is correct. Rowe and Kahn’s model identifies three factors that are essential for successful aging: reducing the risk for disease and disease-related disability, maintaining high cognitive and physical functioning, and staying actively engaged in life by being connected to others and involved in productive activities.

Answer 127

Answer D is correct. The research is not entirely consistent with regard to the association between the use of stimulant drugs by children with ADHD and risk for developing an SUD later in life. For example, the Humphreys, Eng, and Lee meta-analysis cited in the question found that the use of stimulant medications to treat children with ADHD neither increased nor decreased the risk for later development of an SUD. However, a study conducted since that meta-analysis found that children with ADHD who began treatment with a stimulant drug at a young age and at a high dose were less likely to develop an SUD than were those who began treatment at an older age and at a lower dose (A. G. Groenman et al., Stimulant treatment profiles predicting co-occurring substance use disorders in individuals with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, European Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 28, 1213-1222, 2019.)

Answer 128

Answer C is correct. The effectiveness of olanzapine for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine for improving weight maintenance for individuals with anorexia has been evaluated by a number of studies. While some studies have provided evidence of the effectiveness of both drugs, others have not. Consequently, the best conclusion is that the studies have produced mixed results about the effects of both of these drugs.

Answer 129

Answer A is correct. The NESARC-III collected data from more than 36,000 adults on the occurrence of major depressive disorder (MDD) and other psychiatric disorders during the last 12 months and over their lifetimes. Among respondents with MDD, 40.8% reported that they also had an alcohol use disorder during their lifetimes, 26.6% reported they also had borderline personality disorder, 20.5% reported they also had generalized anxiety disorder, and 15.6% reported they also had PTSD.

Answer 130

Answer C is correct. Tolman derived his theory of **latent learning **from research with rats in mazes. This research found that rats formed **cognitive maps** of the maze without exhibiting that learning until they were reinforced for doing so. In other words, his studies showed that learning can occur without being apparent in behavior.

Answer 131

Answer B is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in answers A, B, and C, the ABAB design would be least desirable in the situation described in the question. Although the AB and multiple baseline designs (answers A and C) have disadvantages, those disadvantages are not unique to the situation described in this question. However, a disadvantage of the ABAB design applies to studies investigating the effects of a treatment to eliminate a self-injurious behavior: Removing a successful treatment during the second baseline (A) phase just to see if the treatment caused the elimination of the self-injurious behavior during the initial treatment (B) phase would be unethical. [Counterbalanced (answer D) can be eliminated because it is a type of group design.]

Answer 132

Answer D is correct. Caplan described theme interference as a loss of objectivity that occurs when a therapist’s reactions to a particular type of client are affected by his/her previous experiences with that type of client.

Answer 133

Answer B is correct.The nonpharmacological treatment-of-choice for insomnia disorder is a multi-component cognitive-behavioral intervention that incorporates stimulus control or sleep restriction with sleep-hygiene education, relaxation training, and/or cognitive therapy.

Answer 134

Answer B is correct. Dreams occur during REM and non-REM sleep, but they occur more often during REM sleep. In addition, dreams that occur during REM sleep are longer, more bizarre and emotional, and more likely to be recalled [E. F. Pace-Schott, Neuropsychology of sleep, in G. Koob, M. Le Moal, and R. Thompson (Eds.), Encyclopedia of behavioral neuroscience (pp. 448-455), San Diego, Academic Press, 2010].

Answer 135

Answer D is correct. Moffitt distinguishes between two types of antisocial behavior. The life-course persistent type is more serious and is the result of a combination of inherited or acquired neurological deficits and environmental risks, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a maturity gap, which is a gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity. See, e.g., T. E. Moffitt, Life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior: A 10-year research review and research agenda, in B. B. Lahey, T. E. Moffitt, and A. Caspi (Eds.), Causes of conduct disorder and juvenile delinquency (pp. 49-75), New York, Guilford Press, 2003.

Answer 136

answer B is correct. Knowing that antipsychotic drugs are used to treat tic disorders and that they exert their therapeutic effects by blocking dopamine receptors would have helped you identify dopamine as the correct answer to this question.

Answer 137

Answer C is correct. Of the techniques listed in the answers, only fixed-role therapy is not associated with Milan systemic therapy. It’s used by practitioners of Kelly’s personal construct therapy and involves having clients adopt roles that will let them “try out” personal constructs that differ from their own.

Answer 138

Answer B is correct. Technostructural interventions focus on an organization’s technology or structure and include business process reengineering, downsizing, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

Answer 139

Answer D is correct. Tannenbaum et al.’s (2015) meta-analysis found that persuasive messages that arouse a relatively high level of fear are most effective when certain conditions are met – e.g., when they describe the negative consequences of the behavior and recommend actions that will help reduce or eliminate those consequences.

Answer 140

Answer A is correct. Babbling emerges between 3 and 6 months of age and initially involves the repetition of single vowel-consonant combinations (e.g., “ba” and “ga”) and includes sounds from different languages, even sounds that do not occur in the language of the baby’s caregivers.

Answer 141

Answer B is correct. Efficacy research is conducted in highly controlled conditions and, as a result, has good internal validity; however, the results have limited external validity because they can’t be generalized to less well-controlled conditions. In contrast, effectiveness research is conducted in conditions that are similar to situations in which therapy actually occurs and has limited internal validity due to limited experimental control but tends to have better external validity.

Answer 142

Answer B is correct. The WAIS-IV full-scale and index scores have a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, and the individual subtests have a mean of 10 and standard deviation of 3.

Answer 143

Answer B is correct. According to the prototype/willingness model, a person’s willingness to engage in a behavior depends on the person’s perceived acceptability of the behavior that, in turn, is determined by the person’s prototype (social image) of people who engage in that behavior.

Answer 144

Answer D is correct. Lovaas (1987) developed an intensive program for young children with autism that incorporated a variety of behavioral techniques. Discrimination training and shaping were two of the techniques he used to teach the children to communicate verbally.

Answer 145

Answer B is correct. Damon’s three stages of friendship are handy playmate (ages 4 to 7 years), mutual trust and assistance (8 to 10 years), and intimacy and loyalty (11+ years). Intimate and mutually shared relationships and mature friendships are the last two friendship stages identified by Selman (1981).

Answer 146

Answer B is correct. The optimal difficulty level for test questions depends on several factors including the chance that examinees can choose the correct answers just by guessing. With regard to this factor, the optimal difficulty level falls halfway between 100% and the probability of choosing the correct answer by guessing: For true/false questions, the probability of guessing correctly is 50%, so the optimal difficulty level is halfway between 1.0 and .50, which is .75.

Answer 147

Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 notes that antisocial and histrionic personality disorders share several characteristics including impulsivity, superficiality, and manipulativeness; however, people with histrionic personality disorder “tend to be more exaggerated in their emotions and do not characteristically engage in antisocial behaviors” (p. 669). In addition, people with histrionic personality disorder are manipulative in order to gain nurturance, while those with antisocial personality disorder are manipulative in order to gain power or material rewards.

Answer 148

Answer B is correct. Greenson describes the process of analysis in psychoanalysis as involving confrontation, clarification, interpretation, and working through.

Answer 149

Answer B is correct. The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa requires a restriction in energy intake that leads to a significantly low body weight, but the restriction can involve dieting or fasting or binge-eating and purging. In other words, the diagnosis can be assigned even when the person is not engaging in dieting or fasting.

Answer 150

Answer A is correct. Critical incidents are job-related behaviors that are associated with exceptionally good or exceptionally poor performance.

Answer 151

Answer B is correct. The dichotic listening task involves **simultaneously presenting a person with two different auditory stimuli by delivering one stimulus to each ear.** It’s used to obtain information on selective auditory attention and hemispheric specialization for auditory stimuli.