Exam 7 Tough Questions Flashcards
Instrumental aggression usually first appears in children by the time they are ____ of age and then peaks at _____ of age.
A. 1 year; 2 years
B. 3 years; 4 years
C. 5 years; 7 years
D. 7 years; 9 years
Answer A is correct. The purpose of instrumental aggression is to achieve a goal, most often to gain attention or obtain an object (e.g., to get a toy from another child). For most children, it first appears by the time they are one year of age and peaks at about two years of age when they begin to be better able to negotiate verbally.
An achievement test has been given to 1,000 middle-school students. The scores obtained by the students are normally distributed and have a mean of 150 and standard deviation of 15. Given this information, you can conclude that ____% of students obtained scores above 165.
A. 32
B. 16
C. 5
D. 2.5
Answer B is correct. In a normal distribution, 68% of scores fall between the scores that are one standard deviation below and above the mean, and the remaining 32% of scores are divided between the positive and negative tails of the distribution: 16% of scores are below the score that is one standard deviation below the mean and 16% are above the score that is one standard deviation above the mean. In the distribution described in the question, the score of 165 is one standard deviation above the mean, which means that 16% of scores fall above this score.
Research has linked ADHD to which of the following?
A. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus and putamen and larger-than-normal amygdala
B. smaller-than-normal amygdala and larger-than-normal caudate nucleus and putamen
C. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala
D. larger-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala
Answer C is correct. Individuals with ADHD tend to have a smaller volume in five brain structures: caudate nucleus, putamen, nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and hippocampus (Radboud University Nijmegen Medical Centre, 2017).
Use of utility analysis to evaluate the usefulness of a newly developed test for selecting job applicants provides an estimate of which of the following?
A. the percentage of newly hired applicants who will be successful on the job when the test is used to make hiring decisions
B. the probability that a particular applicant will be successful on the job when the test is used to make hiring decisions
C. the monetary gain that can be expected when the test is used to make hiring decisions
D. the incremental validity that can be expected when the test is added to the current hiring procedure
Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to estimate the economic benefit that would be achieved by using a selection test or other procedure to assist with hiring and other personnel decisions.
The Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula is commonly used to assess the utility of a selection technique, and it transforms the validity coefficient of the selection technique into an estimate of the technique’s monetary value. Note that utility analysis and cost-utility analysis are not the same thing:
Utility analysis (which is described in the organizational psychology content summary) is used in organizations to determine the economic gain that a procedure produces in terms of worker productivity (e.g., the dollar value of performance gains obtained by using a new selection test to hire job applicants).
Cost-utility analysis (which is described in the clinical psychology content summary) is used to compare the effects of two or more healthcare interventions on quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY).
Cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) has been found to be effective for reducing suicidal ideation, repeat suicide attempts, and depression in adolescents and adults who recently attempted suicide. As described by Bryan (2019), the primary targets of the three stages of CT-SP are, in order:
A. risk assessment, skills training, and safety planning.
B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention.
C. crisis management, cognitive flexibility, and safety planning.
D. cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and relapse prevention.
Answer B is correct. As described by Bryan, emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility are essential mechanisms for reducing suicidal behaviors and, consequently, are the primary targets of the first and second phases of CT-SP, respectively. Then, when a client has acquired emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility skills, the third phase begins and focuses on relapse prevention. Although risk assessment, skills training, cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and safety planning are often included as elements of cognitive therapy for suicide prevention and cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention, they are not the primary targets of the three stages identified by Bryan.
Scarr and McCartney (1983) distinguish between three gene-environment correlations. Niche-picking is another name for which of these correlations?
A. passive genotype-environment
B. evocative genotype-environment
C. reactive genotype-environment
D. active genotype-environment
Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and D are the three gene-environment correlations identified by Scarr and McCartney. [Reactive genotype-environment correlation (answer C) is another name for evocative genotype-environment correlation.] As described by these investigators, the active genotype-environment correlation is the association between an individual’s genetic predisposition and the niches (environments) the individual chooses. Consequently, this correlation is also referred to as niche-picking and niche-building.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for using obsolete tests and test results?
A. Psychologists may use obsolete tests and test results in certain circumstances.
B. Psychologists may use obsolete tests in certain situations but must never use obsolete test results.
C. Psychologists may use obsolete test results in certain situations but must never use obsolete tests.
D. Psychologists must never use obsolete tests or test results.
Answer A is correct. Standard 9.08 of the APA Ethics Code and Principle II.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to the use of obsolete tests and outdated test results. These requirements imply that using obsolete tests or outdated test results may be acceptable when doing so is appropriate for the purposes of the current evaluation. For example, it would be acceptable to use a previous version of a test when it has norms for a client’s racial/ethnic group, but the newest version does not yet have norms for that group.
Functional family therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based intervention for:
A. families with a history of domestic violence.
B. families that include a member with schizophrenia.
C. children and adolescents with anorexia or bulimia and their families.
D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families.
Answer D is correct. FFT is an evidence-based intervention for families that include adolescents who present with or are at risk for delinquency, substance use, conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, or other serious behavioral problems.
Use of the ________ heuristic tends to intensify a person’s emotional reaction to a negative event that has already occurred.
A. simulation
B. availability
C. representativeness
D. anchoring and adjustment
Answer A is correct. When using the simulation heuristic, a person imagines alternatives to a negative event that has already occurred, and the imagined alternatives can cause the person to have a stronger negative emotional reaction to the actual event.
we judge the likelihood of an event based on how easy it is to imagine (mentally simulate) the event happening to us or others: Events that are more easily imagined are judged to be more likely to occur. The simulation heuristic differs from other heuristics because, in addition to affecting our judgment about the probability that an event will occur, it affects how we feel or think others feel about the event.
Research on which of the following has found that retrieval memory is optimal when conditions are the same at the time of learning and the time of retrieval.
A. levels of processing
B. encoding specificity
C. elaborative rehearsal
D. practice testing
Answer B is correct. According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of learning (encoding) new information are the same as the conditions when the information must be recalled. The conditions can be external circumstances (e.g., the same room) or internal states (the same mood).
The most likely side effects of buspirone (BuSpar) include which of the following?
A. lethargy, ataxia, tremor, visual disturbances, and impaired concentration
B. weakness, unsteadiness, impaired memory, anticholinergic effects, and sexual dysfunction
C. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, nausea, nervousness, blurred vision, and trouble sleeping
D. hypertension, tremors, headaches, confusion, and cardiac arrhythmia
Answer C is correct. The symptoms listed in this answer are side effects of buspirone, which is an anxiolytic drug used to treat anxiety disorders. Answer A lists side effects of anticonvulsant drugs,
answer B lists side effects of benzodiazepines, and
answer D describes rebound effects that may occur when the beta-blocker propranolol is abruptly discontinued.
Requiring psychology students enrolled in undergraduate or graduate programs to participate in individual or group therapy may be acceptable if:
A. students are allowed to select their own providers.
B. students are allowed to select providers from mental health professionals not affiliated with the program.
C. students are provided with a list of providers who have been screened and approved by the program.
D. students have the choice of participating in therapy or an alternative activity.
Answer B is correct. Standards 3.05 and 7.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle III and Principles III.30 and III.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this issue. Answer B is the best answer because it is most similar to the requirements of Standard 7.05(a), which states that, “when individual or group therapy is a program or course requirement, psychologists responsible for that program allow students in undergraduate and graduate programs the option of selecting such therapy from practitioners unaffiliated with the program.” Answer D can be eliminated because the Ethics Code does not require that students be provided with an alternative to participation in therapy.
Which of the following best describes classical test theory (CTT) and item response theory (IRT)?
A. CTT and IRT are both test based.
B. CTT and IRT are both item based.
C. CTT is test based and IRT is item based.
D. CTT is item based and IRT is test based.
Answer C is correct. One difference between CTT and IRT is that CTT is best described as “test based” while IRT is best described as “item based.” CTT focuses on total test scores, and tests based on CTT do not provide a basis for predicting how an examinee or group of examinees will respond to a particular test item. In contrast, IRT focuses on responses to individual test items and provides the information needed to determine the probability that a particular examinee or group of examinees will correctly answer any specific item.
In a normal distribution, a T-score of ___ is equivalent to a percentile rank of: 84.
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 and a T-score of 60 are both one standard deviation above the mean.
Research on which of the following has found that people tend to hate losses about twice as much as they enjoy gains?
A. scarcity trap
B. loss aversion
C. gain/loss theory
D. gambler’s fallacy
Answer B is correct. Loss aversion is the tendency of people to weigh losses more heavily than gains. For example, Kahneman and Tversky (1979) found that the aggravation caused by losing a specific amount of money is about twice as intense as the satisfaction caused by gaining the same amount of money.
A client says he feels unhappy about not having any close relationships. However, additional questioning of the client reveals that he’s often suspicious of the motives of other people, is anxious when he’s around other people, and prefers to keep to himself because he doesn’t feel like he “fits in” with other people. These symptoms are most characteristic of which personality disorder?
A. avoidant
B. schizotypal
C. schizoid
D. borderline
Answer B is correct. The personality disorders listed in the answers all involve problems with social relationships. However, schizotypal personality disorder is the best answer because people with this disorder may say that they’re unhappy about their lack of relationships, but they have few close friends beyond first-degree relatives, are anxious around other people (usually because they’re suspicious of their motives), and prefer being alone. People with avoidant personality disorder (answer A) say they’d like to have close relationships but avoid them because of their fear of being criticized, embarrassed, or rejected. People with schizoid personality disorder (answer C) have limited desire for close relationships and do not derive pleasure from them. People with borderline personality disorder (answer D) have unstable, intense relationships that fluctuate between overidealizing and devaluing other people.
When a predictor has a criterion-related validity coefficient of _____, this means that 64% of variability in scores on the criterion is explained by variability in scores on the predictor.
A. .80
B. .64
C. .40
D. .36
Answer A is correct. A criterion-related validity coefficient, like other correlation coefficients for two different variables, can be interpreted by squaring it to obtain a measure of shared variability. This question gives you the squared number, so you have to take its square root to get the validity coefficient: The square root of .64 is .80. (Note: If there are any questions on the exam that require you to calculate a square root, the numbers will be easy ones like the one in this question – e.g., .81, .49, .36.)
Glick and Fiske’s (2001) theory of ambivalent sexism distinguishes between __________ components of sexism.
A. reactive and proactive
B. cognitive, affective, and behavioral
C. interpersonal and intrapersonal
D. hostile and benevolent
Answer D is correct. According to Glick and Fiske, ambivalent sexism consists of two distinct but co-existing and complementary components: Hostile sexism is characterized by a negative attitude toward women who have not accepted traditional female roles (e.g., women who challenge male dominance), while benevolent sexism is characterized by a positive attitude toward women who adhere to traditional roles (e.g., women who accept the belief that they need to be protected by men).
During her first therapy session, Renee, age 21, tells you she’s “depressed a lot” but that she also sometimes feels “really good.” After questioning Renee about her depression, you determine she has experienced several episodes that meet the diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode. You are considering a diagnosis of bipolar II disorder for Renee and, to confirm this diagnosis, you will want to determine if her periods of feeling good meet the diagnostic criteria for:
A. one or more manic episodes.
B. two or more manic episodes.
C. one or more hypomanic episodes.
D. two or more hypomanic episodes.
Answer C is correct. For a DSM diagnosis of bipolar II disorder, a person must have had at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has been linked to which of the following?
A. low brain and blood levels of serotonin
B. high brain and blood levels of serotonin
C. high brain level and low blood level of serotonin
D. low brain level and high blood level of serotonin
Answer D is correct. Studies have found that individuals with ASD typically have lower-than-normal levels of serotonin in several areas of the brain, while some also have higher-than-normal blood levels of serotonin. One explanation for this difference is that blood serotonin enters the fetal brain during the early stages of development before the blood-brain barrier is fully mature, which causes reduced development of or damage to serotonergic neurons in the brain (Whitaker-Azmitia, 2005).
All of the following are “red flags” that suggest a young child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation except:
A. no canonical babbling (e.g., bababa) by 5 months of age.
B. no first words by 19 months of age.
C. no meaningful two-word combinations (e.g., juice gone) by 28 months of age.
D. no appropriate pronoun use by 42 months of age.
Answer A is correct. The reported ages for language milestones vary somewhat from source to source, but most sources list canonical babbling as occurring by 6 to 8 months of age, first words by 15 months, meaningful two-word combinations by 24 months of age, and appropriate pronoun use by 36 months of age. Therefore, answer A is the best answer because no canonical babbling at 5 months is not unusual and, therefore, does not suggest a child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation. See, e.g., H. M. Feldman and C. Messick, Assessment of language and speech, in M. L. Wolrich, D. D. Drotar, P. H. Dworkin, and E. C. Perrin (Eds.), Behavioral pediatrics: Evidence and practice (pp. 177-190), Philadelphia, Mosby-Elsevier, 2008.
The goal of APA accreditation is best described as:
A. providing status to graduates of accredited schools.
B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students.
C. establishing minimum standards of competence.
D. protecting the profession of psychology and its practitioners.
Answer B is correct. The APA provides several descriptions of the goal of APA accreditation, but all identify benefiting or protecting the public and some also identify protecting students as the goal: For example, the APA accreditation website states that “the ultimate goal of APA accreditation is to graduate psychologists who are uniquely qualified to protect the wellbeing of the public by providing quality psychological service” (https://www.accreditation.apa.org/why-accreditation-matters). In addition, the APA’s Standards for Accreditation for Health Service Psychology and Accreditation Operating Procedures states that “accreditation is intended to protect the interests of students, benefit the public, and improve the quality of teaching, learning, research, and practice in health service psychology” (2018, p. 3).
In most people, Broca’s area is located in the __________ and Wernicke’s area is located in the __________.
A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus
B. right inferior frontal gyrus; right superior temporal gyrus
C. left anterior cingulate gyrus; left posterior cingulate gyrus
D. right anterior cingulate gyrus; right posterior cingulate gyrus
Answer A is correct. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are the major language areas of the brain. Knowing that the left hemisphere is dominant for language in most people and that Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe and Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal lobe would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Also, knowing that the cingulate gyrus is part of the cingulate cortex and that the cingulate cortex is one of the structures of the limbic system would have helped you eliminate answers C and D. (A gyrus is a ridge on the surface of the cerebral cortex.)
John Watson used which of the following procedures to establish Little Albert’s fear response to white rats?
A. backwards conditioning
B. trace conditioning
C. delay conditioning
D. simultaneous conditioning
Answer C is correct. Watson first presented the white rat (CS) to Albert and then, while the white rat was still present, presented an unexpected loud noise (the US) that naturally elicited a startle response in Albert. After doing this numerous times, presentation of the white rat alone elicited a startle response. Presentation of the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US is referred to as delay conditioning.
When psychologists are faced with conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements, they:
A. may comply with legal requirements when the conflict is unresolvable.
B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights.
C. must choose the course of action that allows fullest adherence to ethical guidelines.
D. must choose the course of action that allows the greatest degree of compliance with both ethical guidelines and legal requirements.
Answer B is correct. Conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements are addressed in Standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Both require psychologists to make a reasonable effort to resolve a conflict in a way that is consistent with ethical responsibilities but do not require them to abide by ethical responsibilities in all situations (which is why answers C and D are not the best answers). As noted by Fisher, “when reasonable actions taken by psychologists do not resolve the conflict, they are permitted to make a conscientious decision to comply with the legal or regulatory authority under circumstances in which their actions cannot be used to justify or defend violating human rights” (2017, p. 59).
Systematic desensitization is to ________ as exposure therapy is to ________.
A. stimulus generalization; response generalization
B. response generalization; stimulus generalization
C. extinction; counterconditioning
D. counterconditioning; extinction
Answer D is correct. Systematic desensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate an undesirable anxiety or fear response by replacing the undesirable response with an incompatible and more desirable relaxation response. Exposure therapy (also known as exposure with response prevention) is based on the assumption that a neutral stimulus that does not ordinarily elicit anxiety becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits anxiety because, at some time in the past, it was paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicited anxiety.
It uses classical extinction to eliminate the conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.
A graduate student recently completed a research study and simultaneously submitted the article he wrote about the study to three APA journals. This is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable only if he informed each journal that he had submitted the article to two other journals.
C. acceptable only if, after finding out that one journal intends to publish the article, he immediately notifies the other journals and withdraws his submission to those journals.
D. unacceptable.
Answer D is correct. Simultaneous (concurrent) submission of an article to multiple journals is not addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or Canadian Code of Ethics. However, as noted by Belcher (2019), it is unacceptable for the author(s) of a journal article to simultaneously submit the same journal article to more than one journal. Instead, the author(s) should submit the article to one journal at a time and wait for it to be rejected by one journal before submitting it to another journal.
Structural equation modeling (SEM) is used to test models of the relationships among:
A. observed variables only.
B. latent variables only.
C. observed and latent variables.
D. observed and manifest variables.
Answer C is correct. An advantage of SEM is that it allows researchers to test models of the relationships among observed and latent variables. Observed variables are also known as manifest variables and indicators and can be directly measured. Latent variables are also known as factors and constructs and cannot be measured directly but are inferred from observed variables.
A meta-analysis of the research by the APA Task Force on Violent Media (2015) found that exposure to violent videogames:
A. increases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy.
B. increases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect but has no effect on empathy.
C. increases aggressive cognitions and affect but has no effect on aggressive behaviors or empathy.
D. decreases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect and increases empathy.
Answer A is correct. The APA Task Force found that exposure to violent videogames increases aggressive behavior, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy for the distress of others in children over 10, adolescents, and young adults. It concluded, however, that (a) this relationship has not been established for younger children because very few of the existing studies included children 10 years of age and younger and (b) there is also insufficient evidence to draw conclusions about gender and racial/ethnic differences.
Research suggests that using cognitive behavioral therapy as an adjunct treatment for patients with rheumatoid arthritis (RA):
A. has little or no beneficial effect on pain intensity and fatigue.
B. has some beneficial effect on pain intensity and fatigue but only for patients who have not benefited from treatment as usual.
C. reduces pain intensity and fatigue, especially when it is provided early in the course of the disease.
D. slows the progression of the disease but has no beneficial effects on pain intensity and fatigue.
Answer C is correct. There is evidence that, for patients with rheumatoid arthritis, CBT is useful not only for reducing comorbid depression and anxiety but also for reducing pain intensity and fatigue, especially when CBT is provided early in the course of the disease (e.g., Dixon et al., 2007).
Current indications for deep brain stimulation (DBS) include all of the following except:
A. Parkinson’s disease.
B. atypical parkinsonism.
C. essential tremor.
D. dystonia.
Answer B is correct. DBS is a surgical treatment for Parkinson’s disease, essential tremor, and dystonia (especially primary dystonia) that involves implanting a device that sends electrical signals to areas in the brain that control movement. It is contraindicated for atypical parkinsonism, which shares some symptoms with Parkinson’s disease but is caused by other disorders, including progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, corticobasal degeneration, and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Unlike Parkinson’s disease, atypical parkinsonism does not respond well to treatment with levodopa or DBS.
A psychologist is conducting a study that involves having children, one at a time, watch a video in which Sally first puts a teddy bear in a box on a table and then leaves the room. While Sally is out of the room, Anne enters the room and moves the teddy bear to a drawer in a nearby cupboard. Each child is then asked where Sally will look for the teddy bear when she returns to the room. This task is most often used to assess which of the following?
A. transductive reasoning
B. zone of proximal development
C. egocentrism
D. theory of mind
Answer D is correct. The task described in the question is the change-of-location task, which is one of several false-belief tasks that are used to evaluate children’s theory of mind – i.e., children’s ability to understand that the beliefs, perceptions, and intentions of others can differ from their own. More specifically, the change-of-location task assesses children’s understanding that another person can have a mistaken belief about the location of something and will act in accord with that belief.
The mother of a 5-year-old boy yells at him whenever he misbehaves by, for example, teasing the dog or punching his younger brother. The boy figures out that, if he says “I love you” to his mother when she yells at him, she will stop yelling. For the boy, continuing to say “I love you” to his mother whenever she yells at him is best described as being the result of:
A. escape conditioning.
B. avoidance conditioning.
C. stimulus generalization.
D. response generalization.
Answer A is correct. In this situation, the boy says “I love you” to his mother because, when he does so, she stops yelling at him. In other words, his behavior continues because it allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling. Escape conditioning is essentially another name for negative reinforcement: It occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because something is removed following the behavior.
In signal detection theory, d-prime (d’) indicates the difference between the standard scores for the:
A. hit rate and false alarm rate.
B. false alarm rate and correct rejection rate.
C. hit rate and miss rate.
D. miss rate and correct rejection rate.
Answer A is correct. In signal detection theory, d’ is an estimate of an observer’s sensitivity and is a standard score that indicates the difference between the standard (z) scores for the hit rate and false alarm rate: d’ = z(H) – z(FA). The hit rate indicates the number of times the observer correctly detected a signal when it was present, and the false alarm rate indicates the number of times the observer erroneously detected a signal when it was not present.
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment is best described as a:
A. developmental theory.
B. decision-making theory.
C. person-environment fit theory.
D. social learning theory.
Answer C is correct.
Like Holland’s theory of career choice, Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment emphasizes the importance of the match between a person’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job. More specifically, Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness: Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.
Which of the following schedules of reinforcement produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction?
A. variable interval
B. fixed interval
C. variable ratio
D. fixed ratio
Answer C is correct. When using the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after six responses, then after four responses, then after eight responses, and so on. Of the four intermittent schedules of reinforcement, it produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction.
Fairchild and colleagues (2008) compared groups of male adolescents with childhood-onset or adolescence-onset conduct disorder to a control group of adolescents without a psychiatric disorder and found that youth in both conduct disorder groups:
A. were hyperreactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls.
B. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls.
C. were hyperreactive in terms of cortisol response but hyporeactive in terms of cardiovascular response to stress when compared to controls.
D. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol response but hyperreactive in terms of cardiovascular response to stress when compared to controls.
Answer B is correct. Fairchild et al. found that male adolescents with conduct disorder showed hyporeactive (reduced) cortisol and cardiovascular responses to a stressful procedure when compared to adolescents without a psychiatric disorder even though adolescents in all three groups reported experiencing similar levels of negative feelings when exposed to the procedure.
As described by Baddeley (2000), the phonological loop:
A. transfers auditory information from sensory to short-term memory.
B. transfers auditory information from short- to long-term memory.
C. temporarily stores auditory information.
D. transforms auditory information to visual information.
Answer C is correct. Baddeley’s model describes the working memory aspect of short-term memory as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer. The phonological loop is responsible for the temporary storage of auditory (verbal) information. It consists of a phonological store that briefly stores words and other speech sounds and an articulatory process that silently repeats words and other speech sounds on a loop to prevent them from decaying.
The word-stem and word-fragment completion tasks and other tasks that assess repetition priming are measures of:
A. explicit memory.
B. implicit memory.
C. iconic memory.
D. short-term memory.
Answer B is correct. Priming is a method for studying implicit memory, and there are several types of priming. One type is repetition priming, which occurs when presentation of a word or object facilitates later identification of that word or object in a different format or context. Word-stem completion and word-fragment completion are two of the repetition priming tasks that are used to investigate implicit memory.
Of the Big Five personality traits, level of __________ has been most consistently identified as an accurate predictor of level of marital satisfaction/dissatisfaction and stability/instability.
A. agreeableness
B. extraversion
C. conscientiousness
D. neuroticism
Answer D is correct. With regard to marriage, high levels of neuroticism have been most consistently linked to a number of negative outcomes including marital dissatisfaction and an increased risk for separation and divorce. See, e.g., B. R. Karney and T. N. Bradbury, The longitudinal course of marital quality and stability: A review of theory, method, and research, Psychological Bulletin, 118(1), 3-34, 1995.
Overcorrection is ordinarily classified as a type of:
A. negative punishment.
B. positive punishment.
C. negative reinforcement.
D. positive reinforcement.
Answer B is correct. Overcorrection is considered an application of positive punishment because it involves applying a penalty (restitution and/or positive practice) after the target behavior occurs in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
The Dot Counting Test (DCT) is most useful:
A. for detecting dysfunction in selective attention.
B. for detecting feigned cognitive impairment.
C. as a screening test for mild neurocognitive disorder.
D. as a screening test for attention deficits.
Answer B is correct. The DCT requires examinees to count grouped and ungrouped dots printed on separate cards as quickly as possible. Poor effort is suggested when the time taken to count grouped dots (which should be easier to count) is equal to or greater than the time taken to count ungrouped dots. It allows examiners to detect poor test-taking effort and whether it was intentional (e.g., due to malingering) or unintentional and represents normal effort for several diagnostic groups (e.g., depression, schizophrenia, head injury).
Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy (2003) investigated the relationship between religiosity and substance use among adolescents and found that:
A. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
B. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent marijuana and alcohol use but not tobacco use.
C. moderate levels of religiosity are associated with the highest risk for alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
D. low and high levels of religiosity are both associated with a high risk for alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
Answer A is correct. Research has consistently confirmed that life stress is associated with an increased risk for substance use. Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy extended this research by confirming that religiosity acts as a buffer (mediator) between life stress and substance use: They found that, for adolescents, high religious involvement reduced the impact of life stress on both the initial level of alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use and the rate of increase in their use over time.
Uncertainty intolerance refers to anxiety about the possible occurrence of future threats. Kim and colleagues (2017) found that high scores on a measure of uncertainty intolerance were most associated with increased volume of which of the following?
A. striatum
B. cerebellum
C. reticular formation
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
Answer A is correct. M. J. Kim and colleagues used magnetic resonance imaging to identify structural brain abnormalities associated with uncertainty tolerance and found that high scores on the Intolerance of Uncertainty Scale were most associated with increased volume of the striatum [Intolerance of uncertainty predicts increased striatal volume, Emotion, 17(6), 895-899, 2017]. The exam is likely to include 2 or 3 questions like this one that ask about a topic that has been addressed by only a few studies and require you to be familiar with the results of one of those studies. If you are unfamiliar with the study being asked about in this question, knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that altered basal ganglia functioning has been linked to generalized anxiety disorder would have helped you identify the correct answer. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination if you are familiar with the functions of the three other areas of the brain listed in the answers.
Which of the following infants is at greatest risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A. an 8-month-old Hispanic girl
B. an 8-month-old Asian American boy
C. a 5-month-old European American girl
D. a 5-month-old African American boy
Answer D is correct.
Risk factors for SIDS include male gender, African American and Native American race, and age under 6 months. Consequently, of the infants listed in the answers, a 5-month-old African American boy is at greatest risk for SIDS.
The Technical and Interpretive Manual for the WAIS-IV reports the results of several factor analyses that support the test’s underlying ________ structure.
A. two-factor
B. three-factor
C. four-factor
D. six-factor
Answer C is correct. This is an easy question as long as you know that the WAIS-IV includes four indexes that each assess a different factor: Verbal Comprehension, Working Memory, Perceptual Reasoning, and Processing Speed.
A college student says her seizures begin with the feeling like she’s on a roller coaster and a sudden sense of fear. She never remembers what happens next, but her roommate has told her that she’s very “fidgety” during seizures and makes smacking noises with her lips. These symptoms suggest that the woman is experiencing which of the following?
A. frontal lobe seizures
B. temporal lobe seizures
C. parietal lobe seizures
D. occipital lobe seizures
Answer B is correct. The woman’s feeling that she’s on a roller coaster accompanied by a sense of fear and automatisms (being fidgety and smacking her lips) are most characteristic of temporal lobe seizures.
The EEG for stage ___ of non-REM sleep is characterized by theta waves interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer B is correct. Theta waves begin in stage 1 sleep and continue in stage 2, when they are interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes. Sleep spindles are brief bursts of high frequency activity, and K complexes are well-defined high-amplitude waves that occur spontaneously or in response to environmental stimuli.
The peak age of onset for schizophrenia is:
A. early- to mid-20s for males and females.
B. late-20s for males and females.
C. late-20s for males and early- to mid-20s for females.
D. early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females.
Answer D is correct: The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia usually first appear between the late teens and early 30s, with the peak age of onset being in the early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females. See, e.g., G. M. Giordano, P. Bucci, A. Mucci, P. Pezzella, and S. Galderisi, Gender differences in clinical and psychosocial features among persons with schizophrenia: A mini review, Frontiers in Psychiatry, 12, 2021, https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fpsyt.2021.789179/full.
Which of the following syndromes is not caused by a chromosomal deletion?
A. cri-du-chat
B. Prader-Willi
C. Klinefelter
D. Angelman
Answer C is correct. Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Chromosomal deletion syndromes are caused by the loss of a segment of a chromosome and include cri-du-chat, Prader-Willi, and Angelman syndromes.
The majority of men who receive the diagnosis of transvestic disorder identify their sexual orientation as:
A. homosexual.
B. heterosexual.
C. bisexual.
D. asexual.
Answer B is correct. The majority of men with transvestic disorder self-identify as heterosexual, although some may occasionally have sexual interactions with other men, especially when cross-dressed. See, e.g., N. O. Rosen, L. A. Brotto, and K. J. Zucker, Sexual dysfunctions and paraphilic disorders, in D. C. Beidel and B. C. Frueh (Eds.), Adult psychopathology and diagnosis (8th ed., pp. 571-632), Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2018.
Answer B is correct. The majority of men with transvestic disorder self-identify as heterosexual, although some may occasionally have sexual interactions with other men, especially when cross-dressed. See, e.g., N. O. Rosen, L. A. Brotto, and K. J. Zucker, Sexual dysfunctions and paraphilic disorders, in D. C. Beidel and B. C. Frueh (Eds.), Adult psychopathology and diagnosis (8th ed., pp. 571-632), Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2018.
Answer B is correct. The results of Project MATCH indicated that the three treatments produced similar reductions in drinking with only a small (nonsignificant) advantage for twelve-step facilitation. The results also provided some support for the hypothesis that matching type of treatment to certain patient characteristics improves treatment outcomes. For example, at the three-year follow-up, patients who had higher levels of anger had better outcomes with motivational enhancement therapy, while those low in psychiatric severity and those with a pre-treatment social network that supported drinking had better outcomes with twelve-step facilitation (Project MATCH Research Group, 1997, 1998).
Dr. Renee Rochester has been hired to conduct a court-ordered evaluation of Terrance Tillis, the defendant in a criminal court case. To be consistent with the provisions of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (2013), Dr. Rochester:
A. must obtain informed consent from the defendant before conducting the evaluation.
B. must obtain informed consent from the defendant and remind him that the evaluation is court-ordered if he refuses to consent.
C. does not have to obtain informed consent from the defendant but should tell him about the nature of the services being provided and the limits of confidentiality.
D. does not have to obtain informed consent from the defendant unless the court or the defendant’s attorney has asked her to do so.
Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Principles III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibit psychologists from making false or misleading statements about their credentials, institutional or associational affiliations, etc. Listing the University of Illinois on her business card violates this ethical responsibility because it might be interpreted as indicating that her clinical practice is sponsored or endorsed by the University of Illinois (see, e.g., G. G. Ford, Mental health reasoning for mental health professionals, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, Inc., 2006).
In the context of diagnostic efficiency, prevalence refers to how common a disorder is in a particular population at a particular point in time, and its magnitude affects a test’s positive and negative predictive values. When the prevalence increases:
A. the positive and negative predictive values both increase.
B. the positive and negative predictive values both decrease.
C. the positive predictive value increases and the negative predictive value decreases.
D. the positive predictive value decreases and the negative predictive value increases.
Answer C is correct. A test’s positive predictive value (PPV) is the probability that a person who tests positive for a disorder actually has the disorder, while the negative predictive value (NPV) is the probability that a person who tests negative for a disorder does not actually have the disorder. Both values are affected by the prevalence of the disorder, which can vary in different locations and at different times. When the prevalence of the disorder increases, the PPV increases and the NPV decreases, and vice versa.
When people are unable to end their cognitive dissonance by replacing or subtracting the dissonant cognition or adding a consonant cognition, they will most likely:
A. decide that the dissonant cognition is actually consonant.
B. decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition.
C. find someone or something to support the dissonant cognition.
D. hide the dissonant cognition from other people.
Answer B is correct. This question requires you to be familiar with the four methods that people usually use to reduce cognitive dissonance: replace or subtract the dissonant cognition, add a consonant cognition, increase the importance of a consonant cognition, or decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. Of the answers given, only decreasing the importance of the dissonant cognition is one of these methods and, therefore, is the best answer.
Mental imagery serves several functions in cognitive behavior therapy (CBT). For example, __________ is used to replace involuntary distressing and intrusive images related to a client’s presenting problem with more adaptive images.
A. guided imagery
B. guided visualization
C. imagery rescripting
D. imaginal exposure
Answer C is correct. The importance of imagery in cognitive behavior therapy has been acknowledged by A. T. Beck who has noted that “[m]any times, maladaptive ideation occurs in a pictorial form instead of, or in addition to, the verbal form” (1976, p. 242). Guided imagery (also known as guided visualization) and imaginal exposure (answers A, B, and D) have been incorporated into CBT, with guided imagery/guided visualization being used primarily to promote relaxation and reduce stress and pain and imaginal exposure being used to treat phobic reactions. Imagery rescripting is used to replace (rescript) involuntary negative images and memories with more realistic and adaptive content (Cognitive therapy and the emotional disorders, New York, New American Library, 1976).
When reviewing a supervisor’s performance ratings of the employees he supervises, you notice that there is a great deal of consistency in the positivity or negativity of ratings he has assigned to each employee, but his positive and negative ratings vary for different employees. For example, the supervisor assigned one employee very low ratings on all dimensions of job performance but another employee high ratings on all dimensions. Which of the following rater biases is suggested by this pattern of ratings?
A. central tendency bias
B. false consensus effect
C. halo effect
D. leniency/strictness bias
Answer C is correct. When a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are affected by the central tendency, leniency, or strictness bias (answers A and D), the ratings of all employees are affected in the same way.
The central tendency bias occurs, for instance, when a supervisor gives all employees average ratings regardless of their actual level of performance. In contrast, when a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect, ratings are likely to differ for different employees.
For example, a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect when the supervisor highly values communication skills and, consequently, rates employees who have very good communication skills high on all other dimensions of performance but rates employees who have poor communication skills low on all other dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance on the other dimensions.
The false consensus effect (answer B) is not a rater bias but is a cognitive bias that occurs when we overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.
As described by Broten and colleagues (2011), when a stepped care approach is used to treat individuals with low levels of depressive symptoms, the first step includes assessment and monitoring. When symptoms do not remit, the second step includes which of the following?
A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT
B. watchful waiting, self-monitoring, and/or psychoeducation
C. group therapy, brief individual CBT, and/or medication
D. psychoeducation, peer support group, and/or brief individual CBT
Answer A is correct. The stepped care model developed by Broten and colleagues is similar to other models of stepped care for depression and includes four steps. Step 1 consists of assessment, monitoring, and watchful waiting. Step 2 consists of interventions that require minimal practitioner involvement and includes psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT. Step 3 consists of interventions that require more intensive care and specialized therapist training and includes group therapy, individual therapy, and/or medication. Step 4 consists of the most restrictive and intensive form of care and involves voluntary or involuntary inpatient care.
The 7th edition of the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association states that authors should retain raw data associated with their articles published in APA journals:
A. for at least 7 years after publication of the articles.
B. for at least 12 years after publication of the articles.
C. in accordance with APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines.
D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements.
Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because the 7th edition of APA’s Publication Manual (APA, 2020) does not specify a specific number of years for retaining raw data. Instead, it states that “authors are expected to retain the data associated with a published article in accordance with institutional requirements; funder requirements; participant agreements; and, when publishing in an APA journal, the APA Ethics Code” (p. 13). Note, however, that the 6th edition of the Publication Manual and submission guidelines for APA journals state that authors of articles published in an APA journal must maintain raw data for at least five years after publication of the articles.
The two most frequently cited models of disability are the ________ models.
A. medical and social
B. deficit and surfeit
C. behavioral and functional
D. unidimensional and multidimensional
Answer A is correct. There are a number of models of disability, but the most frequently mentioned are the medical and social models. The medical model is also referred to as the biomedical model and views a disability as a medical problem intrinsic to the individual and as an abnormality or deficiency. In contrast, the social model views a disability as a difference rather than a deficiency and as due primarily to aspects of society that create barriers for people with disabilities (e.g., negative attitudes, discrimination, exclusion).
