Difficult tough Qs

Question 1

The ______ gene variant has been identified as a high risk factor for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.

A. APOE4

B. APOE3

C. APOE2

D. APOE1

Answer 1

Answer A is correct. There are three main variants of the APOE (apolipoprotein E) gene: APOE2, APOE3, and APOE4. APOE2 is the rarest variant and its presence reduces the risk for Alzheimer’s disease, while APOE3 is the most common variant and its presence doesn’t seem to affect the risk for Alzheimer’s disease. In contrast, APOE4 has been linked to an increased risk for Alzheimer’s disease and several other neurocognitive disorders including neurocognitive disorder due to Lewy body disease. APOE1 is very rare and has not been linked to Alzheimer’s disease.

Question 2

Which of the following questions is most likely to be included in a covert integrity test?

A. Do your friends ever steal from their employers?

B. Would your friends describe you as impulsive?

C. How often do you tell the truth?

D. Do you think it’s stealing to take small items home from work?

Answer 2

Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that there are two types of integrity tests: Overt integrity tests assess beliefs and attitudes about theft and other forms of dishonesty (e.g., Do your friends ever steal from their employers?; Do you think it’s stealing to take small items home from work?) and the examinee’s previous history of theft and dishonesty (e.g., How often do you tell the truth?). Covert integrity tests are also known as personality-based tests because they assess aspects of personality that have been linked to theft, dishonesty, and other counterproductive behaviors (e.g., Would your friends describe you as impulsive?).

Question 3

Cultural fit refers to which of the following?

A. how well the culture of an immigrant’s home country matches the culture of the host country

B. how well an immigrant’s personality and other personal attributes match the cultural values and norms of the host country

C. the degree to which mental health professionals are sensitive to the cultural differences of their clients

D. the strength of a culture’s social norms and tolerance for deviant behaviors

Answer 3

Answer B is correct. Cultural fit refers to the degree to which an immigrant’s personality and other personal attributes are similar to the cultural values and norms of the host country. A good cultural fit makes it easier for an immigrant to adapt to the host country. Answer A describes cultural distance, which also affects how easily an immigrant can adapt to the host country. Answer C is similar to the definition of cultural encapsulation. Answer D refers to cultural tightness-looseness.

Question 4

Testing the effects of overshadowing involves:

A. presenting the CS after presenting the neutral stimulus.

B. presenting the US before presenting the neutral stimulus.

C. presenting two neutral stimuli together before the US.

D. presenting the US before presenting two neutral stimuli.

Answer 4

Answer C is correct. Overshadowing occurs when two neutral stimuli that differ in salience are repeatedly presented together before an unconditioned stimulus (US) until the paired stimuli become conditioned stimuli (CS) and presentation of the two stimuli together elicits a conditioned response (CR). When each CS is subsequently presented alone, only the more salient CS will elicit the CR. Research has confirmed that the failure of the less salient CS to elicit the CR when it is presented alone occurs because the less salient CS was overshadowed by the more salient CS when the two stimuli were presented together during conditioning trials.

Question 5

According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is usually between the ages of:

A. 4 and 6 years.

B. 6 and 8 years.

C. 8 and 10 years.

D. 10 and 12 years.

Answer 5

Answer A is correct. According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is typically between 4 and 6 years of age, with the severity of tics ordinarily peaking between 10 and 12 years of age.

Question 6

A meta-analysis of 17 investigations using neuroimaging to study the brain activity of individuals with major depressive disorder before and after psychotherapy suggested that therapy caused changes in emotional processing areas of the brain. Specifically, the analysis indicated that therapy decreased activity in the left precentral gyrus and increased activity in the:

A. substantia nigra.

B. cingulate cortex.

C. hypothalamus.

D. thalamus.

Answer 6

Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question. However, even if you’re not familiar with the meta-analysis being asked about, you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the cingulate cortex has been linked to depression or, if not, know that the cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and, therefore, seems like it would be accurate to describe it as an emotional processing area of the brain. The study referred to in this question found that, following cognitive-behavior therapy, patients with major depressive disorder showed decreased activation in the left precentral gyrus (an area in the prefrontal cortex) and, following cognitive-behavior therapy or psychodynamic psychotherapy, increased activation in the left rostral anterior cingulate cortex (A. Sankar, A. Melin, V. Lorenzetti, P. Horton, S. G. Costafreda, and C. H. Y. Fu, A systematic review and meta-analysis of the neural correlates of psychological therapies in major depression, Psychiatry Research: Neuroimaging, 30, 31-39, 2018).

Question 7

During his third therapy session, a client tells his therapist that he’s HIV positive. He also says that he engaged in unsafe sex with three partners after receiving his test results 18 months ago but is no longer doing so. The 1976 Tarasoff decision:

A. applies in this situation and the therapist must file a report with the local health department or other appropriate agency.

B. applies in this situation and the therapist should contact the three partners of the client to notify them of the client’s HIV status.

C. applies in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.

D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws.

Answer 7

Answer D is correct. The original Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” an intended victim of a therapy client, but this was changed in a 1976 rehearing of the case to a “duty to protect” an intended victim by warning him or her directly, notifying the police, or taking other appropriate action (e.g., hospitalizing the client). Many experts agree that Tarasoff isn’t relevant in situations like the one described in this question because (a) it doesn’t apply to past behavior, (b) it applies only when potential victim(s) are identifiable (it’s not clear if the client’s partners are identifiable), and (c) the risk for harm does not necessarily rise to the level of foreseeable harm (dangerousness) required by Tarasoff since unsafe sex involves risk but not certainty that HIV will be transmitted. Note that there are other options in this situation – e.g., educating clients about safe-sex practices and encouraging clients to inform sexual partners of their HIV status, possibly with the assistance of the therapist. In addition, it’s important for psychologists to be familiar with state and provincial laws that address the actions that should be taken in situations involving HIV (e.g., partner notification laws). See, e.g., T. Chenneville, Tarasoff and HIV: Some considerations for therapists, Focus, 22(5), 5-8, 2007.

Question 8

A newly developed aptitude test that will be used to help make college admissions decisions was administered to 100 high school seniors whose grade point averages ranged from 3.5 to 4.0, and a split-half reliability coefficient of .75 was calculated from their scores. The aptitude test was then administered to another sample of 100 high school seniors whose grade point averages ranged from 2.0 to 4.0. The split-half reliability coefficient for the second sample of students will most likely be:

A. equal to .75.

B. larger than .75.

C. smaller than .75.

D. between about .70 and .80.

Answer 8

Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that the magnitude of a test’s reliability coefficient (or any correlation coefficient) is affected by several factors, including the range (heterogeneity) of scores: All other things being equal, the greater the range of scores, the larger the reliability coefficient will be. Because the second sample has a larger range of GPA scores than the first sample did, the reliability coefficient for the second sample will most likely be larger than .75.

Question 9

Dr. Bernstein, a school psychologist, has just been hired by a school district in a Southwestern town. Part of his job will be to administer tests to students to help determine if they qualify for special education. Spanish is likely to be the first language of some of the students he will evaluate, and many of these students will have limited English skills. To be consistent with ethical requirements when evaluating these students, Dr. Bernstein:

A. must use only tests that have a Spanish-language version.

B. must use only tests that have a Spanish-language version or are culture-fair tests that do not require verbal instructions or responses.

C. may use an interpreter who is fluent in both Spanish and English and has appropriate training.

D. may use an interpreter who is fluent in both Spanish and English and has appropriate training and must indicate the possible limitations of the test results in his report.

Answer 9

Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 9.03(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles I.24, I.27, and III.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.03(c) states that “psychologists using the services of an interpreter obtain informed consent from the client/patient to use that interpreter, ensure that confidentiality of test results and test security are maintained, and include in their recommendations, reports, and diagnostic or evaluative statements … discussion of any limitations on the data obtained.”
Answers A and B are not the best answers because available Spanish-language versions of tests and culture-fair tests may not be adequate for the purposes of Dr. Bernstein’s evaluations and because ethical guidelines do not state that psychologists MUST use these tests when evaluating children with limited English skills.
Answer C is not the best answer because it does not include the requirement to discuss the possible limitations of the test data in recommendations.

Question 10

The tendency to believe that the personal attitudes of a member of a group are similar to the personal attitudes of all members of the group is referred to as the:

A. fundamental attribution error.

B. false consensus error.

C. ultimate attribution error.

D. group attribution error.

Answer 10

Answer D is correct. For the exam you want to be sure you know the difference between the ultimate attribution error and the group attribution error, which are sometimes confused because they both address attributions made about groups rather than individuals. The ultimate attribution error occurs when the negative behaviors of members of one’s own in-group are attributed to situational factors while the negative behaviors of members of out-groups are attributed to dispositional factors, and vice versa for positive behaviors. The group attribution error occurs when people believe that an individual group member’s beliefs, attitudes, and preferences are the same as those of all members of the group. Note that the false consensus error (answer B) is actually known as the false consensus effect and is not an attributional bias. It refers to the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.

Question 11

As defined by Maslach and colleagues (2001), which of the following is not one of the core characteristics of job burnout?

A. depersonalization

B. exhaustion

C. resistance

D. a sense of inefficacy

Answer 11

Answer C is correct. According to Maslach, Schaufeli, and Leiter (2001), job burnout has three core characteristics: exhaustion, depersonalization and cynicism, and a sense of inefficacy. Resistance is the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

Question 12

Based on the results of their research, Howard and his colleagues (1986) concluded that about ___% of psychotherapy clients show measurable improvements in symptoms by the 26th therapy session with an additional ___% showing measurable improvements by the 52nd session.

A. 50; 10

B. 50; 25

C. 75; 10

D. 75; 20

Answer 12

Answer C is correct. K. I. Howard, S. Kopta, M. S. Krouse, and D. E. Orlinsky concluded that psychotherapy has a “dose effect,” with about 50% of patients showing measurable improvements by eight to 13 therapy sessions, 75% by 26 sessions, and 85% by 52 sessions (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41, 159-164, 1986).

Question 13

Based on the results of their meta-analysis of the research, Shockley and her colleagues (2018) concluded that:

A. men and women experience similar levels of work-family conflict.

B. women experience significantly more work-family conflict than men do.

C. men and women both experience significantly greater family interference with work than work interference with family.

D. men and women both experience significantly greater work interference with family than family interference with work.

Answer 13

Answer A is correct. In contrast to the commonly held belief that women experience greater work-family conflict than men do, the Shockley et al. meta-analysis found that men and women report similar levels of conflict. These investigators identified some gender differences when certain moderator variables were considered, but these differences were small. Answers C and D can be eliminated because these investigators found some differences in the magnitude of family interference with work (FIW) and work interference with family (WIF); however, these differences were small and varied by gender and subgroup. For example, women with children reported slightly greater FIW, while men in dual-earner couples reported slightly greater WIF [K. M. Shockley, W. Shen, M. M. DeNunzio, and E. A. Knudsen, Disentangling the relationship between gender and work-family conflict: An integration of theoretical perspectives using meta-analytic methods, JJournal of Applied Psychology, 144(3), 284-314, 2018].

Question 14

The WAIS-IV’s Global Ability Index (GAI) is based on subtests for which of the following Indexes?

A. Processing Speed and Working Memory

B. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning

C. Working Memory and Perceptual Reasoning

D. Verbal Comprehension and Working Memory

Answer 14

Answer B is correct. An examinee’s GAI score is based on Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning subtest scores. It’s useful when an examiner wants to obtain a measure of general intelligence that’s not affected by processing speed or working memory, which are both sensitive to the effects of brain injury and age.

Question 15

In a normal distribution, which of the following represents the highest score?

A. T score = 65

B. z score = 1.0

C. percentile rank = 84

D. stanine = 5

Answer 15

Answer A is correct. In a normal distribution, a stanine score of 5 is equivalent to raw scores that equal the mean or are slightly above or below the mean, a z-score of 1.0 and a percentile rank of 84 are equivalent to the raw score that is one standard deviation above the mean, and a T-score of 65 is equivalent to the raw score that is one and one-half standard deviations above the mean.

Question 16

Providing adults with training on a demanding working memory task is likely to:

A. have no effect on their fluid intelligence.

B. improve their fluid intelligence only when the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.

C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.

D. improve their fluid intelligence whether or not the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task but only for individuals with initially low levels of fluid intelligence.

Answer 16

Answer C is correct. This answer best describes the results of research conducted by S. M. Jaeggi, M. Buschkuchi, J. Jonides, and W. J. Perrig, who found that training on a demanding working memory task produced increases in fluid intelligence even though the working memory task was entirely different from the fluid intelligence task [Improving intelligence with training on working memory, PNAS, 105(19), 6829-6833, 2008]. This is a very difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer as long as you know that performance on working memory tasks correlates with performance on fluid intelligence tasks and that tasks designed to measure working memory and fluid intelligence may require the same underlying abilities but are not likely to be the same in terms of format.

Question 17

Alvin, age 22, has experienced delusions and hallucinations for several months. The most likely diagnosis for Alvin is schizoaffective disorder if he has also experienced:

A. concurrent episodes of major depression or mania for the entire duration of the disorder.

B. concurrent episodes of major depression or mania for the duration of the disorder except for at least one month when delusions and hallucinations were present without mood episodes.

C. concurrent episodes of major depression or mania for the duration of the disorder except for at least two weeks when delusions and hallucinations were present without mood episodes.

D. concurrent episodes of major depression or mania for the duration of the disorder except for at least two weeks when mood symptoms were present without delusions or hallucinations.

Answer 17

Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder requires the presence of concurrent psychotic symptoms and mood episodes for the duration of the disorder except for two or more weeks when psychotic symptoms were present without mood symptoms.

Question 18

Jenny J. is conducting a study for extra credit in her Psychology 101 class. She recruits a group of volunteers and divides them into two groups. Subjects assigned to Group A are asked to memorize the 10 word pairs in List 1, are then asked to memorize the 10 word pairs in List 2, and are then asked to recall as many word pairs from List 1 as they can. Subjects assigned to Group B are also asked to memorize the 10 word pairs in List 1. However, they’re then asked to solve several simple addition and subtraction problems to keep them from rehearsing List 1 before they’re asked to recall as many word pairs from List 1 as they can. Apparently, the purpose of Jenny’s study is to investigate the effects of __________ interference.

A. proactive

B. retroactive

C. indirect

D. direct

Answer 18

Answer B is correct. Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. It’s most likely to occur when recently and previously learned information are similar – e.g., when recently and previously learned material are different lists of paired words.

Question 19

The “in-basket test” is most likely to be included as part of which of the following?

A. cross-training

B. vestibule training

C. assessment center

D. job evaluation

Answer 19

Answer C is correct. An assessment center is most commonly used to help make managerial-level selection and promotion decisions and incorporates a number of techniques including personality and ability tests, structured interviews, and simulations, with the in-basket test being one of the simulations. The in-basket test is also known as the in-basket exercise and requires the applicant to respond to letters, memos, and other materials that are commonly found in a manager’s in-basket.

Question 20

The studies suggest that children exhibit the greatest number of internalizing and externalizing behaviors and other problems when their divorced parents remarry when the children are:

A. between five and eight years old.

B. between nine and 12 years old.

C. in early adolescence.

D. in late adolescence.

Answer 20

Answer C is correct. The research has found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age, with the poorest adjustment occurring when children are in early adolescence at the time a parent remarries. Note that there’s also evidence that, with regard to gender, girls often exhibit more adjustment problems than boys do following the remarriage of their parents. See, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage: A focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7,

Question 21

According to Selman (1980), children ages 3 to 6 are most likely to say that friends are children who:

A. do nice things for them.

B. do what they want them to do.

C. like the same things they do.

D. play with or live near them.

Answer 21

Answer D is correct. R. L. Selman distinguishes between five overlapping stages of friendship: Level 0 (momentary playmate) extends from about 3 to 6 years of age. During this stage, a child says friends are children whom they play with or live nearby. The other stages are Level 1 (one-way assistance; ages 5-9), Level 2 (two-way, fair weather cooperation; ages 7-12), Level 3 (intimate, mutually shared relationships; ages 8-15), and Level 4 (mature friendship; ages 12+). [The child as a friendship philosopher, in S. R. Asher and J. M. Gottman (Eds.), The development of children’s friendships (pp. 242-272), Cambridge, Cambridge University Press, 1980.]

Question 22

It’s common for children of immigrants to act as language brokers. Research on the effects of language brokering has found that it has:

A. positive effects on the child but negative effects on the parent-child relationship.

B. negative effects on the child but positive effects on the parent-child relationship.

C. positive effects on the child and the parent-child relationship.

D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship.

Answer 22

Answer D is correct. As defined by A. Morales, O. F. Yakushko, and A. J. Castro, language brokering “is the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults” [Language brokering among Mexican-immigrant families in the Midwest: A multiple case study, The Counseling Psychologist, 40(4), 520-553, 2012]. Studies on the effects of language brokering have produced mixed results. For example, with regard to the parent-child relationship, language brokering has been linked to a greater sense of connection between the child and his/her parents but also to role reversals within the family that force the parents to become overly dependent on the child [e.g., A. J. Umana-Taylor, Language brokering as a stressor for immigrant children and their families,

Question 23

Data collected from the U.S. Medicare Outcome Survey (Jia & Lubetkin, 2020) confirmed that, for individuals between 65 and 95 years of age, the estimated life expectancy in years was longest for:

A. married women.

B. married men.

C. never married women.

D. never married men.

Answer 23

Answer A is correct. The longitudinal U.S. Medicare Health Outcome Survey (HOS) confirmed the results of other studies that have found that women tend to live longer than men do and that, for both genders, married people tend to live longer than never married people do. For example, the HOS found that, for people 65 years of age, the life expectancy for married women was 21.1 years, for never married women was 19.3 years, for married men was 18.6 years, and for never married men was 16.2 years.

Question 25

When scoring and interpreting the Rorschach test, form quality provides information on which of the following?

A. what in the inkblot determined the examinee’s response

B. the extent to which the examinee’s response matches the stimulus properties of the inkblot

C. the category to which the examinee’s response belongs

D. the extent to which the examinee’s response is similar to responses given by other examinees

Answer 25

Answer B is correct. Form quality is a measure of perceptual accuracy and indicates the extent to which the examinee’s response corresponds to the actual shape of the inkblot. Determinants indicates the characteristic(s) of the inkblot (e.g., form or color) that determined the examinee’s response (answer A). Content indicates the category (e.g., whole human, human detail, whole animal, animal detail, landscape, food) to which the examinee’s response belongs (answer C). And popularity indicates the extent to which the examinee’s response is similar to responses given by other examinees (answer D).

Question 26

Which of the following best describes the prediction of goal-setting theory about the relationship between a supervisee’s participation in goal setting and his or her commitment to goals?

A. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is always necessary to ensure his/her acceptance of and commitment to goals.

B. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is likely to affect his/her commitment to goals only when the supervisor has a participative leadership style.

C. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when a supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals.

D. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not necessary for his/her commitment to goals unless the supervisee is low in need for achievement and is not likely to accept assigned goals.

Answer 26

Answer C is correct. Goal-setting theory predicts (a) that a supervisee’s acceptance of goals is most important for ensuring that the supervisee will be committed to achieving those goals and (b) that participation in goal-setting is not always necessary for ensuring a supervisee’s commitment to goals but is useful when the supervisee is high in need for achievement and/or is not likely to accept goals assigned by the supervisor.

Question 27

Physical and psychological fidelity are associated with which of the following?

A. the principle of identical elements

B. the principle of equipotentiality

C. time and motion studies

D. overlearning

Answer 27

Answer A is correct. According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and work situations are, the greater the transfer of training. Identical elements is also known as physical and psychological fidelity: Physical fidelity refers to the extent to which the physical training and work conditions are similar, while psychological fidelity refers to the degree to which training addresses the KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics) needed to perform the job satisfactorily. [The principle of equipotentiality (answer B) is another name for the principle of multifinality and predicts that systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.]

Question 28

You have developed a new selection test for your client, the Acme Company, to help the company make better hiring decisions. After administering the test to samples of job applicants and current employees, you decide to raise the test’s cutoff score. Doing so will have which of the following effects?

A. It will increase the number of false negatives and true positives.

B. It will decrease the number of false negatives and false positives.

C. It will increase the number of true positives and decrease the number of false negatives.

D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives.

Answer 28

Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question and, to identify the correct answer, you need to know that raising the predictor (selection test) cutoff score will result in fewer applicants being hired. This decreases the number of true and false positives (which eliminates answers A and C) and increases the number of true and false negatives (which eliminates answer B).

Question 29

According to Cummings and Worley (2009), the primary focus during the beginning of the first phase of planned change is on:

A. identifying the causes and consequences of the organization’s problems and best practices.

B. identifying the relevant client(s) for addressing the organization’s problems.

C. specifying how the OD practitioner and client(s) will work together.

D. fostering clients’ readiness for change and overcoming any resistance to change.

Answer 29

Answer B is correct. T. G. Cummings and C. G. Worley’s (2009) general model of planned change distinguishes between the following phases: entering and contracting, diagnosing, planning and implementing change, and evaluating and institutionalizing change [Organization development and change (9th ed.), Mason, OH, South-Western Cengage Learning, 2009]. As described by these investigators, an OD practitioner’s initial tasks during the entering and contracting phase include clarifying the organization’s problems, determining the relevant clients (organizational members) for addressing the problems, and establishing a collaborative relationship with those individuals. Identifying the causes and consequences of the organization’s problems and best practices (answer A) occurs during the diagnosing phase and helps determine the most appropriate interventions. Specifying how the OD practitioner and client(s) will work together (answer C) is a final step in the contracting process, not an initial step in the entering and contracting phase. Fostering clients’ readiness for change and overcoming resistance to change (answer D) are part of the planning and implementing change phase.

Question 30

A prenatal care program that’s available to all pregnant women in a community is an example of which of the following types of prevention?

A. indicated

B. universal

C. selective

D. secondary

Answer 30

Answer B is correct. The three types of prevention listed in answers A, B, and C were described by Gordon (1983). Universal prevention programs are aimed at a designated population or specific members of that population regardless of their level of risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all pregnant women in a community). Selective prevention programs (answer C) are aimed at members of a subgroup of a designated population who are known to be at above-average risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women in a community). Indicated prevention programs (answer A) are aimed at individuals who are known to have a characteristic that puts them at high risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women who have had a miscarriage or whose newborns had problems that were due to inadequate prenatal care).

Another method for describing prevention programs is to classify them as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Secondary prevention programs (answer D) are aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at elevated risk for a disorder or condition.

Question 31

Stoltenberg and McNeill’s (2010) integrated developmental model (IDM) of supervision describes a supervisee’s stages of development in terms of three characteristics. Which of the following is not one of these characteristics?

A. motivation

B. self-other awareness

C. competency

D. autonomy

Answer 31

Answer C is correct. Like other developmental models, IDM focuses on the developmental levels of supervisees and proposes that supervision is most effective when a supervisor’s actions match a supervisee’s developmental level. IDM distinguishes between three developmental levels that differ in terms of a supervisee’s level of self-other awareness, motivation, and autonomy.

Question 32

The point at which an item characteristic curve intercepts the Y (vertical) axis provides information about which of the following?

A. the ability of the item to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability

B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing

C. the item’s difficulty level

D. the degree to which the item correlates with other items in the test

Answer 32

Answer B is correct. Different item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on one, two, or three parameters, with the three parameters being item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of guessing correctly. The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the Y axis.
difficulty parameter is also known as the severity parameter and location parameter. It indicates the level of the trait required for a 50% probability of endorsing the item or answering the item correctly.

The discrimination parameter indicates how well the item can discriminate between individuals with high and low levels of the trait measured by the test. It is indicated by the slope of the ICC: the steeper the slope, the better the discrimination.

Question 33

Multicollinearity occurs when:

A. scores on one or more explanatory variables have low correlations with scores on one or more of the other explanatory variables.

B. scores on one or more explanatory variables are highly correlated with scores on one or more of the other explanatory variables.

C. scores on one or more explanatory variables have high correlations with scores on some response variables but low correlations with scores on other response variables.

D. scores on one or more explanatory variables have low correlations with scores on the response variable.

Answer 33

Answer B is correct. The term multicollinearity is used in the context of multiple regression and similar multivariate techniques to describe high correlations between predictors, which means that the predictors are providing redundant (rather than unique) information about the factors that contribute to performance on the criterion. Even if you’re familiar with multicollinearity, this may have been a difficult question because it uses unfamiliar terms – i.e., explanatory variable instead of predictor and response variable instead of criterion. Unfortunately, exam questions sometimes contain unfamiliar or unexpected language; however, as long as you’re sufficiently familiar with the concept that’s being asked about, you should be able to identify the correct answer.

Question 34

A test developer is calculating a test’s __________ when she divides the number of true positives identified by the test by the number of true positives plus false negatives.

A. sensitivity

B. specificity

C. positive predictive value

D. negative predictive value

Answer 34

Answer A is correct. Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disorder who are identified by a test as having the disorder. It’s calculated by dividing the true positives identified by the test by the true positives plus the false negatives (TP/TP + FN).

Question 35

Behavioral treatments for narcolepsy are often not adequate and, consequently, are usually combined with medications. Which of the following medications is most useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy?

A. modafinil

B. sodium oxybate

C. fluoxetine

D. methylphenidate

Answer 35

Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because all of the drugs listed in the answers are used to treat narcolepsy. However, only sodium oxybate has been found to be effective for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy. Modafinal, methylphenidate, and other stimulant drugs are useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, while antidepressants (e.g., fluoxetine) are useful for reducing cataplexy. See, e.g., S. V. Kothare and J. Kaleyias, Pharmacotherapy of narcolepsy: Focus on sodium oxybate, Clinical medical insights: Therapeutics, 2, 37-52, 2010.

Question 37

Which subtests make up the Processing Speed Index of the WAIS-IV?

A. Digit Span and Coding

B. Cancellation and Letter-Number Sequencing

C. Arithmetic and Digit Span

D. Symbol Search and Coding

Answer 37

Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV Processing Speed Index assesses speed of mental and graphomotor processing. It consists of two core subtests (Symbol Search and Coding) and one supplemental subtest (Cancellation).

Question 38

To decrease an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific alternative desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally, you would use which of the following?

A. DRL

B. DRA

C. DRO

D. DRI

Answer 38

Answer B is correct. DRA (differential reinforcement for alternative or appropriate behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally. It involves removing all reinforcement (e.g., attention) following the undesirable behavior and providing reinforcement whenever a specified alternative behavior occurs. DRL (differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior) is used to reduce a behavior to a more acceptable level by providing reinforcement only when the behavior occurs at or below that level. It does not involve reinforcing alternative behaviors. DRO (differential reinforcement of other behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior by providing reinforcement after specified intervals of time only when the individual hasn’t engaged in the undesirable behavior during each interval. In contrast to DRA, DRO does not require the individual to engage in any specific alternative behaviors during each interval, only that he/she doesn’t engage in the undesirable behavior. DRI (differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase a desirable and physically incompatible behavior (i.e., a behavior that cannot be performed at the same time as the undesirable behavior is performed). Because the question doesn’t mention that the desirable behaviors are incompatible with the undesirable behavior, this is not the best answer.

Question 39

In a factor matrix, a communality indicates the proportion of variability:

A. in multiple tests that’s accounted for by a single identified factor.

B. in multiple tests that’s accounted for by all of the identified factors.

C. in a single test that’s accounted for by a single identified factor.

D. in a single test that’s accounted for by all of the identified factors.

Answer 39

Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that a communality indicates the amount of variability in each test included in the factor analysis that’s explained by all of the identified factors. Alternatively, knowing that each test in a factor matrix has its own communality would have helped you eliminate answers A and B. Then, knowing that it’s a factor loading (not a communality) that indicates the proportion of variability in a single test that’s accounted for by a single factor would have helped you eliminate answer C.

Question 40

In the context of factor analysis, “orthogonal” means:

A. statistically significant.

B. statistically insignificant.

C. uncorrelated.

D. correlated.

Answer 40

Answer C is correct. The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, while oblique factors are correlated.

Question 41

In their study comparing the effects of age-based stereotype threat and self-stereotyping on memory performance, O’Brien and Hummert (2006) found that late middle-aged adults ages 48 through 62 who had:

A. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.

B. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.

C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.

D. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.

Answer 41

Answer C is correct. L. T. O’Brien and M. L. Hummert found that late middle-aged adults who had an older identity had significantly poorer word recall when they were told their performance would be compared to that of older adults than did those who were told their performance would be compared to that of younger adults or were not given any comparison information. In contrast, adults who had a youthful identity exhibited similar levels of word recall whether they were told their performance would be compared to older adults or younger adults or were not given comparison information. O’Brien and Hummert conclude that their results support the self-stereotyping hypothesis by showing that internalized stereotypes about aging can impair performance on memory tasks [Memory performance of late middle-aged adults: Contrasting self-stereotyping and stereotype threat accounts of assimilation to age stereotypes, Social Cognition, 24(3), 338-358, 2006].

Question 42

Which of the following theories proposes (a) that emotions are due to a combination of physiological arousal in response to an external event and cognitive attributions for that arousal and (b) that physiological arousal is similar for all emotions and that differences in the experience of emotions is due to differences in the attributions.

A. James-Lange

B. Schachter-Singer

C. Cannon-Bard

D. Lazarus-Papez

Answer 42

Answer B is correct. According to Schachter and Singer’s cognitive arousal theory (also known as two-factor theory), the experience of emotion is the result of physiological arousal elicited by an event followed by an attribution (“cognitive label”) for that arousal. The James-Lange theory (answer A) proposes that exposure to an event causes a physiological reaction that, in turn, is perceived as an emotion and that the physiological states associated with different emotions are distinct from one another. Like the Schachter-Singer theory, Cannon-Bard theory (answer C) views all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal, but it proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to an event occur simultaneously and independently. There is no Lazarus-Papez theory (answer D), but Lazarus developed the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion which predicts that physiological arousal follows the cognitive appraisal of an event and Papez was among the first to link emotions to specific areas of the brain.

Question 43

Community-based participatory research (CBPR) is best described as a type of:

A. historical research.

B. action research.

C. ethnographic research.

D. developmental research.

Answer 43

Answer B is correct. CBPR is a type of community-engaged research that “encourages engagement and full participation of community partners in every aspect of the research process from question identification to analysis and dissemination” [K. Hacker, Community-based participatory research, Los Angeles, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2013, p. 2]. It’s categorized as a type of action research, which was originally developed by Lewin in the 1940s as a way of using research to facilitate planned social change. Action research subsequently became the basis for a number of participatory action research approaches including CBPR. Like other forms of action research, CBPR involves formulating a research question, planning the study, collecting and analyzing the data, developing action plans from the data, carrying out the action plan, evaluating the results, and disseminating the results.

Question 44

Implicit memories are recorded and recalled without conscious effort. These memories are stored in which of the following areas of the brain?

A. cerebellum and basal ganglia

B. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex

C. cerebellum and hippocampus

D. thalamus and prefrontal cortex

Answer 44

Answer A is correct. Knowing that implicit memories include memories of learned skills and actions (procedural memory) and conditioned responses would have helped you identify the cerebellum and basal ganglia as the correct answer since these areas of the brain mediate motor responses.

The prefrontal cortex and hippocampus are responsible for explicit memory.

Question 45

Pramipexole and ropinirole are ____________ that are used to treat restless leg syndrome.

A. serotonin agonists

B. serotonin antagonists

C. dopamine agonists

D. dopamine antagonists

Answer 45

Answer C is correct. Pramipexole and ropinirole are two of the dopamine agonists that are used to treat restless leg syndrome and Parkinson’s disease.

Question 46

An initial goal in structural family therapy is most likely to be which of the following?

A. increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries

B. increasing the differentiation of all family members

C. helping family members perceive their problems in alternative ways

D. replacing problem-saturated stories with alternative, more satisfying ones.

Answer 46

Answer A is correct. The primary goal of structural family therapy is to resolve the family’s presenting problem by altering the family’s structure. An initial step is to achieve agreement between the therapist and family members that the goal of therapy is to eliminate the problem, which is followed by the use of strategies that alter the structural elements that are maintaining the problem. Depending on the nature of the problem, this may include using strategies that create clear boundaries between family members and subsystems by increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries. Increasing the differentiation of all family members (answer B) is a goal of extended family systems therapy. Helping family members perceive their problems in alternative ways (answer C) is a goal of Milan systemic family therapy. Replacing problem-saturated stories with alternative, more satisfying ones (answer D) is the primary goal of narrative family therapy.